Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the clinical aim of pharmcokinetics?

A

To achieve effective drug concentration at site

of action long enough to produce a therapeutic action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

The proportion of dose of a drug that reaches the site of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the main site of drug absorption?

A

The small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the rate of absorption dependent on?

A

Gut motility

Splanchnic blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give four characteristics of phase 1 of drug metabolism:

A

Transforms molecular structure of the drug (oxidation, hydrolysis, reduction etc)
Can Introduce polar group/Increase water solubility
Can abolish activity
Can produce toxic or non-toxic metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the second phase of drug metabolism:

A

Transferases attatch an endogenous substance to parent drug or phase 1 metabolite
Increases polarity/water solubility so the metabolites can be eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the major route of drug excretion?

A

Renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is clearance?

A

The virtual volume of blood cleared of drug per unit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are receptors?

A

Proteins inserted into the membrane which bind neurotransmitters, hormones etc and produce a cellular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the four main types of receptors?

A

Ligand gated ion channels
G-protein coupled receptors
Kinase-linked receptors
Receptors linked to gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is affinity?

A

How well a drug binds to the receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is efficacy?

A

The measure of response produced by bound drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is potency?

A

A combination of affinity and efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an agonist?

A

A substance which initiates a physiological response when combined with a receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are clinical uses of partial agonists?

A

Reduce over-activity but do not block basal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three main neurophysiological changes resulting from anaesthesia?

A

Unconsciousness
Analgesia
Loss of reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the lipid theory of how anaesthetics work?

A

GA agents dissolve in membrane leading to:
changes in bilayer thickness
changes in order parameters
changes in curvature elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two major problems with the lipid theory?

A

Stereoisomers

Cut off effect of carbon chain length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three main receptors implicated with the anaesthetic protein theory?

A
GABA receptor (inhibitory)
2 pore K+ channels (control resting potential)
NMDA receptor (excitatory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Greater solubility in blood of inhaled GA agents leads to what?

A

Slower rate of anaesthesia onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give five characteristics of propofol:

A
Intravenous anaesthetic
Potentiates GABAA receptor responses
Rapidly metabolized in the liver.
Distributes in fatty tissues: high lipophilicity. 
Used as an induction agent.
22
Q

Give four characteristics of thiopental:

A

Intravenous anaesthetic
Barbiturate used to induce anaesthesia.
Potentiates GABAA receptors
Highly lipid soluble

23
Q

Why is halothane no longer widely used in clinical situations?

A

It’s associated with severe hepatotoxicity

24
Q

Which inhaled GA agent is widely used in surgery?

A

Isoflurane

25
In which clinical situation is nitrous oxide generally used?
Obstetrics
26
What are the two pain pathways?
Peripheral nociceptive afferent neurons activated by noxious stimuli Central mechanisms by which the afferent input generates a pain sensation
27
What are the two types of pain?
``` Fast pain (Adelta fibres) Slower pain (C fibres) ```
28
Name two non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
Aspirin, ibuprofen
29
What is an opiate?
Drugs derived from the opium poppy
30
What is an opioid?
Opiates and synthetic opiate substances
31
What are the main CNS effects of Opioids?
Profound analgesia Respiratory depression Nausea and vomiting
32
Which are the endogenous ligands for opioid receptors?
Endorphins and enkephalins
33
What is the main opioid receptor antagonist?
Naloxone
34
What makes up the peripheral nervous system?
All nerves outside the brain and spinal cord
35
What are the five different steps of neurotransmitter release?
``` Synthesis Storage Release Activation Inactivation ```
36
Which neurones are noradrenaline released from and which is the exception from this?
``` Postganglionic neurone Sweat glands (release acetylcholine) ```
37
Which are the two classes of cholinoceptor that occur the PNS?
Nictotinic cholinoceptors | Muscarinic cholinoceptors
38
Which are the two classes of adrenoceptors that occur in the PNS?
Alpha-adrenoceptors | Beta-adrenoceptors
39
What type of receptors are nicotinic cholinoceptors?
Ligand-gated ion channels
40
What type of receptors are muscarinic cholinoceptors and all subtypes of adrenoceptors?
G-protein-coupled receptors
41
What does hemicholinium 3 do?
It competitively block the reuptake of choline
42
What does choline acetyltransferase do?
It synthesises ACh from precursors choline and acetyl coenzyme A
43
Which drug inhibits uptake and storage of synaptic vesicles?
Vesamicol
44
What does tetrodotoxin do?
It blocks voltage gated sodium channels
45
What do conatoxins do?
They block P/Q and N-type voltage gated calcium channels
46
What does botulinum toxin do?
It blocks vesicle fusion
47
What do dendrotoxins do?
They block voltage gated potassium channels (More calcium influx- more release)
48
What does ziconotide do, and where does it come from?
It acts as a selective N-type voltage-gated calcium channel blocker. It comes from cone snails
49
Which enzyme terminates activation of nicotinic ACh receptors at the NMJ?
Acetylcholinesterase
50
What is tubocurarine and what are its two clinical alternatives?
It's a competitive non-depolarising blocker. The alternatives that are actually clinically used are vecuronium and rocuronium
51
What does suxamethonium do?
It's a depolarising blocker which produces the rapid onset of paralysis