Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

Which medications are most likely to be implicated in medication-induced SCLE? What is the most likely antibody to be positive?

A
"THe D-BAG causes scle" 
Terbinafine 
HCTZ
Diltiazem
Beta-blockers
ACEIs
Griseofulvin 

Also, 5-FU and capecitabine can induce as well as antihistamines, PUVA, IFN, TNF-inhibitors, PPIs

Most likely antibody: Anti-Ro (SSA)
38% of SCLE is drug-induced within 2 w - 6 months after drug started

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2
Q

Which medications can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

Cyclosporine, phenytoin, calcium channel blockers

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3
Q

Which electrolyte abnormalities can cyclosporine cause?

A

Increased potassium, uric acid; decreased magnesium

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4
Q

Which medications are recommended for blood pressure management for patients on cyclosporine?

A

CCBs, specifically isradipine and nifedipine

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5
Q

What is the difference between how the following work: etanercept, adalimumab and infliximab?

A
  • Etanercept: fusion protein of TNF-alpha receptor linked to Fc portion of human IgG1; binds free (soluble) TNF-alpha.
  • Adalimbumab: fully human monoclonal Ab against TNF-alpha; binds soluble and membrane-bound TNF
  • Infliximab: chimeric monoclonal Ab against TNF-alpha (mouse Fv/human IgG1); binds soluble and membrane-bound TNF
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6
Q

The two biologics for psoriasis that are off the market and should never be asked about on a board exam are: _______. Their functions are ______. Why were they removed from market?

A

Efalizumab: humanized murine Ab against CD11a (blocks LFA1 interaction with CAM1); given sq. Removed from market due to risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.

Alefacept: human fusion protein of LFA3 and Fc portion of IgG1 (inhibits CD2/LFA3 interaction, blocking T-cell activation); given IM; must monitor CD4 counts weekly.

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7
Q

Name some EGFR inhibitors (6 or so)…

A

Cetuximab, Panitumumab, Erlotinib, Gefitinib, Lapatinib, Vandetanib.
Treat: colorectal, head/neck SCC, non-small cell lung, pancreatic cancers

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8
Q

What are common skin manifestations of EGFR inhibitors?

A
"PRIDe" Syndrome: 
Papulopustular eruption
Paronychia
Regulatory changes of Hair
Itching
Dryness
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9
Q

What distinguishes bexarotene from the other retinoids (5 things)?

A
  • RXR-specific
  • Used to treat CTCL
  • Eliminated by hepatobiliary system (others excreted in urine and bile)
  • Can cause central hypothyroidism (check TSH and free T4)
  • DEET is contraindicated when taking bexarotene; gemfibrozil is also contraindicated because it increases bexarotene levels (and therefore TG levels) via CYP.
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10
Q

Name four low-androgenic progestins.

A

Norethindrone, levonorgestrel, desogestrel, norgestimate

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11
Q

Which medications can lead to drug-induced bullous pemphigoid (7)?

A

Furosemide, Penicillin, Captopril, beta-blockers, sulfonamides, terbinafine, penicillamine

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12
Q

What are the three types of minocycline dyspigmentation and which stains distinguish them?

A

Type 1: blue/black in scars; iron (hemosiderin) stains with Perls
Type 2: blue-grey on shins; melanin stains with Fontana-Masson, iron stains with Perls
Type 3: generalized muddy brown in sun-exposed areas; increased melanin in epidermis but NO iron deposition.

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13
Q

What medications are frequently implicated in lichenoid drug eruptions?

A

HCTZ, beta-blockers, antimalarials, quinidine, penicillamine, gold, furosemide, ACEI

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14
Q

Which medications are implicated in causing pseudoporphyria?

A

NSAIDs (naproxen, piroxicam), nalidixic acid, furosemide, HCTZ, isotretinoin, TCNs, sulfonamides

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15
Q

Which anticonvulsants are safe for a patient who developed DRESS syndrome after taking carbamazepine?

A

Levetiracetam, valproic acid = safe

Phenytoin, carbamazepine and phenobarbital cross-react and are not safe options.

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16
Q

Which medications that can cause SJS/TEN have specific HLA-alleles that increase an individual’s risk of developing SJS/TEN (3)?

A

Carbamazepine (#1) = HLA-B1502 (especially in Asians)

Allopurinol = HLA-B5801

Abacavir = HLA-B5701

17
Q

How are amide anesthetics metabolized? Esters?

A

Amides: metabolized by cytochrome p450 3A4; excreted by kidneys

Esters: hydrolyzed by plasma pseudocholinesterase; excreted by kidneys
– Esters are “especially allergic” and cross-react with PABA

18
Q

What is the maximum recommended lidocaine dose for a 70 kg person…with epi? without epi? if he is a child?

A

With Epi: 7.0 mg/kg
Without Epi: 4.5 mg/kg
Child: 3-4 mg/kg WITH epi

1% lidocaine is 10 mg lidocaine/ml, so 70 kg person can have 49 ml.

19
Q

What is the ratio of sodium bicarbonate to 1% lidocaine in a buffered solution? What is the purpose?

A

1:10

Buffering raises the pH to a more physiologic level so that injection is less painful. Makes lidocaine’s T1/2 shorter.

20
Q

Mechanism of action of hydroxyurea

A

S-phase specific cytotoxic agent that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

Side effects: Anemia, hepatitis, and renal toxicity

21
Q

Which drugs are penicillinase resistant penicillins?

A

Oxacillin, Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin, Nafcillin

22
Q

Name 1st generation cephalosporins (3) and their antimicrobial coverage.

A

Cephalexin, Cefazolin, Cefadroxil
– Primarily gram positives (MSSA, group A strep); some gram negative (E.coli, Klebsialla, Proteus mirabilis), no anaerobic coverage

23
Q

Name 2nd generation cephalosporins (5) and antimicrobial coverage.

A

Cefaclor, Cefotetan, Cefoxitin, Cefprozil, Cefuroxime
– Gram positive coverage similar to 1st gen, improved gram negative coverage (H.flu, M.catarrhalis, Neisseria), some anaerobic (B.fragilis)

24
Q

Name 3rd generation cephalosporins (7) and antimicrobial coverage.

A

Cefdinir, Cefditoren, Cefixime, Cefotaxime, Ceftazidime, Ceftibuten, Ceftriaxone
– Some degree of gram positive coverage except for ceftazidime; improved gram negative coverage compared with 1/2 generations; some anaerobic coverage

25
Q

Name 4th generation cephalosporins (1) and antimicrobial coverage.

A

Cefipime

    • Broad gram positive and negative coverage, some anaerobic coverage
    • No oral option currently
26
Q

Name 5th generation cephalorposine (1) and antimicrobial coverage.

A

Ceftaroline
– Enhanced gram positive coverage with MRSA, S.pneumo, E. faecalis; similar gram negative coverage to 3/4th gen but does NOT cover Pseudomonas; limited anaerobic activity

27
Q

Which antibiotic classes work on the following sites: cell wall, nucleic acid synthesis, DNA gyros, DNA strand breakage, ribosomal subunit

A

Cell Wall: Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Monobactams, Vancoymycin, beta-lactamase inhibitors
Nucleic Acid Synthesis: Sulfonamides, Trimethoprim
DNA gyrase: Quinolones
DNA strand breakage: Metronidazole
Ribosomal subunits: aminocylcosides (30s), tetracyclines (30s), chloramphenicol (50s), clindamycin (50s), macrolides (50s)

28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of azelaic acid?

A

inhibition of microbial cellular protein synthesis

29
Q

What is the mechanism of action of brimonidine?

A

Alpha-2 agonist

Used for erythema associated with rosacea