Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Who monitors drugs for the potential of abuse

A

DEA (Drug enforcement agency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drug schedules

A

I) Highest- No accepted medical use (heroin, LSD)
II) High- Rx required, opioid narcotics (oxycodone, morphine, hydrocodone)
III) Moderate- Rx required, codeine mixtures (Tylenol 3)
IV) Less- Rx required, anti anxiety, sleeping meds, tramadol
V) Least- No Rx required, codeine containing cough syrups
Schedule II must be typed or written, require new written script for refill
Schedule III and IV can be telephoned to pharmacy 5 times in 6 months
As schedule number increases, abuse potential decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Potency vs efficacy

A

Potency: Amount of drug needed to produce therapeutic effect
Efficacy: Maximum intensity of effect produced by drug
Potency and efficacy are unrelated, drugs may have different potencies but not the same efficacy
Efficacy- Y axis
Potency- X axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Agonist

A

Drug produces an effect and has affinity for receptor on cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antagonist

A

Drug counteracts the action of agonist (blocks receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ADME: Absorption

A

Drug transfer from sight of administration to blood stream
Lipid soluble and nonionized= Easily absorbed
The absorption phase is bypassed when a drug is administered intravenously
The most important site for drug absorption of orally administered drugs is the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ADME: Distribution

A

Drug distributed by blood plasma
Factors that influence distribution: Organ size and amount of blood flow, drug solubility, barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ADME: Metabolism

A

Body’s way of changing a drug so it can be excreted
Excreted product is ionized and less lipid soluble (opposite so body can excrete it)
Most common location is the liver. Patients with liver disease or alcoholism may have decreased ability to metabolize drugs. Leads to increased levels in blood which increases toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ADME: Excretion

A

Drug can be excreted unchanged or as a metabolite (modified)
Kidney (renal) excretion is most common. Can also be excreted through lungs, saliva, breast milk, crevicular fluid
Lipid soluble drugs are not excreted in urine- must be metabolized by liverinto water soluble form to be excreted into urine
Major route of fluoride excretion is in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Half life first order kinetics

A

Constant PERCENTAGE of drug is removed from body per unit of time
(Shorter half life, shorter action of duration, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Half life zero order kinetics

A

Constant AMOUNT of drug removed from body per unit of time (alcohol and aspirin)
High doses, very long duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Enteral route

A

Drug placed directly in GI tract- orally or rectally
Drug levels less predictable with oral administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

First pass effect

A

Orally derived drugs must pass through hepatic portal circulation which can inactivate some drugs.
Amount of drug available to produce systemic effect is reduced by first pass effect
Drugs with high first pass effect require a larger oral dose as high percentage will be deactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Parenteral route

A

Bypasses GI tract
Injection
Inhalation
Topical- contraindicated if surface is ulcerated, burned or abraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Therapeutic effect

A

Desirable action of drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adverse reaction

A

Undesirable action of drug
- Side effect: Expected but unwanted response, dose related, non target organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Toxic reaction

A

Expected response, exaggeration of therapeutic effect, dose related, target organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Allergic reaction

A

Not predicatable, not dose related,
Type I: Immediate hypersensitivity- anaphylaxis
Type IV: Delayed hypersensitivity- contact dermatitis (latex, TB test, transplant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Lethal dose divided by effective dose (LD50/ED50)
Shows safety of drug
Narrow TI: Toxicity more likely
Wide TI: Toxicity less likely, safer drug
TI>10 needed for useful drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is epinephrine contraindicated

A

Cocaine or meth abuser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clonidine

A

Adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Meth

A

Oral mucosal irritation is a result of the method of drug administration, not the drug itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adrenergic drug contraindication

A

Uncontrolled hypertension and uncontrolled hyperthyroidism- avoid epi or use cardiac dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Autonomic nervous system drugs

A

Adrenergic drugs: Mimics SANS
Cholinergic drugs: Mimics PANS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
SLUD
Large doses of cholinergic drugs produce SLUD Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation Pilocarpine (salagen) treats xerostomia (pillow) Cevimeline (evoxac) treats xerostomia (evacuate)
26
Atropine
Anticholinergic drug used pre operatively to decrease salivary flow for dental procedures
27
Non opioid analgesics (Non narcotics)
Mechanism of action: Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis Prostaglandins: Sensitize pain receptors, lower pain threshold, cause inflammation and fever
28
Aspirin
NSAID, analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, antiplatelet Adverse reactions: GI irritation, can cause Reye syndrome in kids, contraindicated with warfarin, can cause white wrinkle of mucobuccal tissue where a patient might hold it in their mouth (aspirin burn)
29
Ibuprofen (Naproxen)
NSAID, most useful pain med in dentistry, analgesic, antipyretic, anti inflammatory, NOT antiplatelet GI irritation. Contraindicated with warfarin, can decrease effects of many drugs such as ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, loop diuretics, corticosteroids, cyclosporine, lithium
30
Is taking NSAIDS with phenytoin (Dilantin) contraindicated?
Yes! Can increase phenytoin levels (Seizure meds)
31
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
No anti inflammatory action, NOT an NSAID No effect on GI irritation, no effect on clotting Analgesic, antipyretic Patients with liver disease should avoid Is drug of choice for patients on warfarin or peptic ulcers
32
Naloxone (narcan)
Parenteral opioid antagonist Drug of choice for treating overdose
33
What is most common opioid used in dentistry
Codeine (Tylenol 3) Codeine cannot be used in pregnant women (repiratory depression for neonatal fetus) Sign of overdose or addiction: Pinpoint pupils All opioids lead to constipation
34
Antiinfective agents
Stage 1: Initial stages of infection- Penicillin/amoxicillin Stage 2: Mixed infection- Metronidazole or Clindamycin Stage 3: Advanced infection- Metronidazole or Clindamycin Mean Cleaners
35
Are antibiotics effective against bacterial or viral infections?
Bacterial
36
Antibiotic tips
Penicillin: High incidence of allergies Antibiotics decrease the effectiveness of birth control pills Increase effects of anticoagulants (warfarin) Erythromycin: Highest incidence of GI complaints Tetracycline: Contraindicated during pregnancy Liquid forms have higher sugar content- advise kids to brush after Most common allergic reaction is rash
37
Is penicillin VK preferred over penicillin G?
Yes! Penicillin G is inactivated by gastric acids
38
Augmentin
Augmentin= penicillin with clavulanic acid Penicillin is not effective against penicillinase producing bacteria… BUT Augmentin is effective… it prevents penicillinase from breaking down amoxicillin
39
Cephalosporins
Very similar to penicillin but more expensive. If pt is allergic to penicillin they’re allergic to cephalosporins
40
Macrolides (-mycins)
Erythromycin: Increase effect of warfarin, most common side effect is GI upset Azithromycin and clarithromycin: Both can be used for premedication if there is a penicillin allergy
41
Tetracycline (cyclines)
Don’t take with milk (binds with calcium) Used to treat NUP/NUG and aggressive perio due to their excretion into the crevicular fluid where they have an anti collangenase effect Photosensitivity All tetracyclines cross placental barrier and are excreted in breast milk
42
Clindamycin
Can lead to C diff and severe persistent diarrhea
43
Nitroimidazoles
Effective against obligate anaerobes only If alcohol is ingested, it will make you very sick, avoid listerine
44
Anti tuberculosis agents
Tx is difficult, treat with multiple drugs at the same time (RIPE) Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol If pt indicated they are taking rifampin or isoniazid only they are likely taking it as a preventative agent
45
Suggested premed
Single dose of 2000mg of amoxicillin 30-60mins before appt If allergic- cephalexin 2000mg, macrolides or tetracyclines
46
Anti fungal agents (-azole)
Nystatin: Most commonly used in dentistry, topical drug used to treat candidiasis Fluconazole (diflucan): oral drug to treat systemic infections
47
Anti viral drugs (-vir)
Most viruses do not require drug therapy and should “run their course” beside HIV Aclovir topical
48
Local anesthetic preservative
Sodium bisulfate/sodium metabisulfate is the preservative (only is vasoconstrictor is present) Contraindicated in patients with sulfite allergies or sensitivities
49
Local anesthetic mechanism of action
Inhibit influx of sodium ions Function is lost in this order: Autonomic, temperature, pain, touch/pressure, vibration and motor, regain function in reverse order
50
Esters
No i before Caine Metabolized in plasma/blood High potential for allergic reactions Not available in dental cartridges anymore Benzocaine is an ester and available as a topical
51
Amides
Metabolized in liver Lidocaine: Most commonly used in dentistry, safe in pregnancy and during lactation Mepivacaine (carbo): Similar to lidocaine, plain or with epi Prilocaine: Longer duration and lower epi content than lido, associated with methemoglobinemia Bupivacaine: Greatly prolonged duration of action, indicated for lengthy procedures Articaine (septo): Partially metabolized in liver (5-10%) and partially in blood (90-95%) can cause paresthesia after mandibular block, no absolute max
52
Duration of action of anesthetics (shortest to longest)
Mepivacaine Lidocaine Prilocaine Articaine Bupivacaine
53
Choosing your anesthetic
PKa (Onset of action): lower pKa=better absorbed Protein binding capacity (duration of action): Stronger binding=longer duration Lipid solubility (potency): more lipid soluble=more potent Vasodilating properties (potency and duration of action): Less vasodilation=more potent and longer duration
54
Vasoconstrictors are added to anesthetics for:
Decreased systemic absorption- Lower risk for toxicity Decreased absorption Increased duration of action Decreased bleeding
55
Healthy and cardiac dose of epi
Healthy: 0.2mg epi per appt Cardiac: 0.04mg epi per appt (pregnancy, diabetes, hypertension)
56
Which anesthetics are available without a vasoconstrictor
Lidocaine (not available in US) Mepivacaine Prilocaine
57
Benzodiazepines (-Pam, -lam)
Anti anxiety drug, fast acting, wide TI, causes sedation, no analgesic effect
58
Barbiturates (-tal)
Long acting and narrow TI, produces CNS depression, no analgesic effect, used for anticonvulsant and to induce general anesthesia
59
Nitrous oxide
Low solubility in blood, nitrous tank is blue while oxygen tank is green, excreted by inhalation, no biotransformation (inhaled and exhaled in same form), place pt on 100% oxygen for 5 mins following procedure to prevent headache, nitrous maintains pt in stage I anesthesia, can reduce orofacial muscle tone in cerebral palsy patients, can lead to neurological symptoms similar to Parkinson’s/demetia
60
What symptoms accompanies all antidepressant drugs
Xerostomia
61
Antidepressant drugs
SSRIs SNRIs TCAs, (Do not use epi in patients taking TCAs- may lead to hypertensive crisis. If must, use cardiac dose) MAOIs Other: bupropion (Wellbutrin) and lithium
62
Anticonvulsant drugs
Phenytoin (Dilantin): gingival enlargement in 50% of chronic users Benzodiazepines: Diazepam (Valium) is drug of choice for status epilepticus which can be caused by local anesthetic overdose
63
Antihypertensive drugs
Diuretics: Thiazide diuretics: HCTZ is most common, causes xerostomia and treats high bp Loop diuretics: furosemide most common
64
ACE inhibitors (-pril)
Antihypertensive drugs, blocks ACE, dry hacking cough, effectiveness reduced by NSAIDS
65
Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) (-sartan)
Antihypertensive drug, more specific than ACE so less side effects, effectiveness reduced by NSAIDS
66
Calcium channel blockers
Antihypertensive drug, effectiveness NOT reduced by NSAIDS, gingival enlargement Ex: AMlodipine, verapamil, nifedipine (HIGH probability of gingival enlargement), diltiazem Always Very Nice Day… except with gingival enlargement
67
Beta blockers (-olol)
Antihypertensive drug. Epi should not be used on patients taking non specific beta blockers such as propranolol, can result in greatly increased vasopressor response causing hypertension. Avoid epi or use cardiac dose
68
Alpha blockers (-zosin)
Orthostatic hypotension does NOT cause blood pressure to quickly rise, the BP drops
69
When is nitroglycerin contraindicated in an angina attack
If pt has taken erectile dysfunction drug in last 24 hrs
70
Antihyperlipidemic drugs (-statin)
Lowers levels of cholesterol
71
Anticoagulation drugs
Reduce intra vascular clotting Antibiotics can increase bleeding effects of warfarin (due to effects on vitamin K) Plavix is used to prevent blood clots after MI or stroke Heparin is one of most used anticoagulants used in Hospitalized patients (injection)
72
GI drugs board alerts
Pt on Tagamet likely being treated for gastric ulcers Gastric ulcers do not cause gingival bleeding Enamel erosion on ant max linguals indicate GERD
73
Respiratory drugs board alert
Aspirin should be avoided in asthmatics- increased risk of aspirin hypersensitivity Albuterol can cause insomnia Corticosteroid inhalers can lead to thrush- rinse with water after