Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is drug?

A

Chemical substance (other than food) that when administered to a living organism produces a biological effect on the structure or function of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are medicinal drugs?

A

Substances intended for the use of diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are non-medicinal (recreational) drugs?

A

Includes illegal substances such as cannabis, heroin, cocaine, and legal substances such as caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are therapeutic effects of drugs?

A

-Intended/Desired outcome of drug administration
-Seen as beneficial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are side effects of drugs?

A

-Unintended effects
-Known/ predictable
-Usually harmful/negative but occasionally beneficial.
-Does not hinder the primary effect of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are adverse effects of drugs?

A

-Undesirable effects
-Undocumented/unpredictable
-More severe/harmful
-Can hinder treatment/cause complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name types of drugs used in dentistry

A

-Local anaesthetic e.g. Lidocaine, Articaine
Prevent pain during procedures
-Antimicrobials e.g. Penicillin, Fluconazole
Treat and prevent infections
-Anxiolytics e.g. Diazepam, Midazolam
Reduce anxiety
-Analgesics e.g. Paracetamol, Ibuprofen
Reduce postoperative pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

The effects of the drug on the body and mechanism of action.
(What the drug does to the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

Term to describe the 4 stages of absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion of drugs.
(What the body does to the drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can drugs do in the body?

A

Simulate normal body communications,
Interrupt normal body communications
Act on non-host organisms to aid body defences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the components of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic (Adrenaline) and Parasympathetic (Acetylcholine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of sympathetic stimulation on heart rate?

A

Speeds up the heart via Beta-adrenergic receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the role of parasympathetic stimulation on heart rate?

A

Slows the heart via cholinergic receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are autonomic drugs?

A

Drugs that enhance or inhibit the function of the sympathetic NS and parasympathetic NS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Examples of autonomic drugs

A

Adrenaline (beta agonist)
Atenolol (beta blocker)
Pilocarpine (cholinergic agonist)
Atropine (cholinergic blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fill in the blank: Drugs can be administered through a variety of _______.

A

[routes].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Types of drugs administration

A

-Topical: Drug applied to the tissue where it acts
-Systemic: Drug applied to the whole organism
-Parenteral: Drug administered by injection
-Transdermal: Drug applied to the skin for adsorption
-Subcutaneous: Drug injected into the tissues of the skin
-Intramuscular: Drug injected into muscle
-Intravenous: Drug injected into a vein
-Transmucosal: Drug applied to the mucosa for adsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the four main modes of action for drugs?

A
  • Activation or blocking of Receptors
  • Activating or blocking Enzyme function
  • Opening or blocking Ion Channels
  • Facilitation or blocking Transport systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Receptors can be coupled to:

A

-Ion channels
-G-proteins
-Enzymes
-Gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What determines drug efficacy?

A
  • Affinity – how avidly the drug binds to the receptor
  • Occupancy – how much time the drug spends on the receptor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an agonist?

A

Binds to receptor and initiates the same action that would be produced by the substance that normally binds to the receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

Binds to receptor but only partially activates the receptor, producing less than maximal effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

Binds to but does not activate the receptor, blocking/reducing response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between competitive and non-competitive antagonists?

A
  • Competitive Antagonist: Binds to the same site on receptor as agonist
  • Non-competitive Antagonist: Binds to a different site on receptor and prevents activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Proteins that speed up chemical reactions in the body and remain unchanged at the end of their normal reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do drugs affect enzyme action?

A
  • Competitive Substrate Antagonism: drug competes with the substrate to bind to the enzyme
  • Non-competitive substrate inhibition: drug binds to a different site, causing a conformational change that prevents substrate interaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What can ion channel effects change?

A
  • Cell electrical activity
  • Ion influx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or False: Agonists bind to receptors and cause an effect.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: Antagonists bind to receptors and cause an effect.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity?

A

As temperature increases, enzyme activity increases until optimal temperature, beyond which it becomes denatured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the four stages of pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most commonly used route of drug administration?

A

Oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the advantages of using oral route as drug administration?

A

Convenient portable, painless
Non invasive
Cost effective
Patient can self administer

34
Q

What are the disadvantages of using oral route as drug administration?

A

Slow onset
May be inefficient- high dose/ low solubility Variable absorption- Food interactions in the GI tract, GI disease, Gastric acid may destroy drug
‘first-pass’ metabolism

35
Q

Which organ is responsible for first-pass metabolism?

36
Q

Why does glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) require a higher dose when taken orally?

A

It undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism, reducing its bioavailability

37
Q

What is an example of a drug that is activated by first-pass metabolism?

A

Valaciclovir → Acyclovir

38
Q

What is the difference between enteral and parenteral drug administration?

A

Enteral is via the gut; Parenteral is not via the gut

39
Q

Give examples of parenteral drug administration.

A

Intravenous (IV), Intramuscular (IM), Subcutaneous (SC), Transdermal

40
Q

Which route of administration avoids first-pass metabolism?

A

Intravenous (IV), Sublingual, Rectal, Transdermal, Inhalation

41
Q

What are the advantages of using IV & IM as drug administration?

A

Very rapid onset
Predictable plasma levels
No first pass metabolism

42
Q

What are the disadvantages of using IV & IM as drug administration?

A

Allergic reactions more severe
Short duration of action
Requires trained staff to administer
Drug cost higher
Painful

43
Q

What are the advantages of using Transdermal & Subcutaneous
as drug administration?

A

No first pass metabolism
Allergic reactions often very localised Prolonged action – can be days with transdermal patches
Can be self administered

44
Q

What are the disadvantages of using Transdermal & Subcutaneous
as drug administration?

A

Very slow onset
Drug cost higher
Effect will vary from person to person and site to site

45
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

The proportion of an ingested drug that reaches systemic circulation for clinical effect

46
Q

What factors can affect drug bioavailability?

A

First-pass metabolism, drug formulation, food interactions, gut absorption

47
Q

What is drug distribution?

A

The movement of a drug to and from the blood and various tissues

48
Q

What protein commonly binds to drugs in the blood?

49
Q

How does plasma protein binding affect drug activity?

A

Bound drugs are inactive; only free drugs exert effects.

50
Q

The rate of drug diffusion into tissues depends on:

A

Blood flow to the area
Membrane characteristics
pH levels
Active secretion into tissues

51
Q

Models of Drug Distribution

A

Single Compartment Model – Assumes the drug is evenly distributed throughout the body.
Two Compartment Model – Assumes the drug reaches equilibrium with different tissues at different rates.

52
Q

Factors Affecting Drug Distribution

A

Different tissues may receive varying drug concentrations.
Some drugs have a preference for specific tissues.
Lipid-binding drugs (e.g., halothane, isoflurane) can accumulate in tissues, leading to slow release and prolonged effects.

53
Q

What are the two phases of drug metabolism?

A

Phase 1 - Modification
(Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis)
Phase 2 - Conjugation
(Glucuronidation, sulphation, methylation, acetylation)

54
Q

What enzyme system is responsible for drug metabolism in the liver?

A

Cytochrome P450 system

55
Q

What are the major routes of drug excretion?

A

Renal (urine)
Hepatic (bile)
Pulmonary (lungs)

56
Q

Which three stages are involved in renal drug excretion?

A

Glomerular filtration
Reabsorption
Secretion

57
Q

What is plasma half-life (t½)?

A

The time taken to eliminate half of the drug from the body

58
Q

What is the difference between first-order and zero-order kinetics?

A

First-order: Drug elimination is proportional to concentration
Zero-order: Drug elimination occurs at a fixed rate.

59
Q

Why is paracetamol overdose dangerous?

A

It produces toxic metabolites that cause liver damage and hepatotoxicity.

60
Q

Why must drug doses be reduced in renal or liver disease?

A

Impaired metabolism/excretion can lead to drug accumulation and toxicity.

61
Q

Which drug interactions occur due to competitive plasma protein binding?

A

Warfarin & Aspirin

62
Q

Why is intravenous administration preferred for emergency situations?

A

Rapid onset, predictable plasma levels, bypasses first-pass metabolism.)

63
Q

What are the possible hazards of drug administration?

A

Allergy, drug interactions, acute toxic reactions, and death.

64
Q

What is an unintended effect of drug administration called?

A

Side effect.

65
Q

How does the BNF categorize side effects?

A

Common, uncommon, rare, very rare, and frequency unknown.

66
Q

What is the difference between a mild allergic reaction and anaphylaxis?

A

Mild allergies cause rashes, itching, and sneezing
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening reaction requiring urgent treatment with adrenaline.

67
Q

What is a drug interaction?

A

A reaction between two or more drugs, or between drugs and food/supplements, affecting drug action or causing side effects.

68
Q

Give an example of drug interaction due to protein binding.

A

Warfarin & aspirin/NSAIDs.

69
Q

What factors determine drug toxicity?

A

Chemical structure, absorption, metabolism, and elimination capacity of the body.

70
Q

What are key principles of safe prescribing?

A

Treat the whole person, prescribe only when necessary, justify drug use, and consider risk vs benefit.

71
Q

Why should dentists review a patient’s medical history before prescribing?

A

To avoid contraindications, drug interactions, and dosage adjustments for conditions like liver/kidney disease.

72
Q

What is the role of the British National Formulary (BNF)?

A

It provides guidance on drug prescribing, dosage, side effects, and interactions.

73
Q

What is the Dental Practitioners’ Formulary (DPF)?

A

A guide for drug management in dental and oral conditions, used by NHS dentists.

74
Q

What details must a prescription include?

A

Patient’s full name, age (if under 12), date, prescriber’s details, drug name, dosage, frequency, quantity, and signature.

75
Q

Why must prescription pads be kept secure?

A

To prevent misuse or theft.

76
Q

What considerations should be made when prescribing for children?

A

Age-appropriate dosage and sugar-free formulations (marked as “SF”).

77
Q

What should patients do if they experience unexpected drug reactions?

A

Stop taking the drug and contact the prescriber immediately.

78
Q

What is the most common dental prescribing error?

A

Prescribing the wrong drug.

79
Q

How can prescribing errors be minimized?

A

Double-checking the BNF, reviewing medical history, and ensuring correct prescription form completion.

80
Q

Where can dentists access the latest drug prescribing guidelines?

A

On the SDCEP Drug Prescribing for Dentistry website.