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Mod 5 finals > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

it is common to give lidacain IV to both dogs and cats for certain cardiac arrhythmias

A

false

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2
Q

which of the following is an example of a cardiac glycoside?

A

digoxin

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3
Q

the doc expresses concern that a patients cardiac output is poor and is considering something to increase the contractility of the heart. What will he want to use

A

positive inotrope

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4
Q

which of the following is not a factor of cardiac compensation

A

all are factors

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5
Q

which of the following is an example of a sodium channel blocker

A

lidocaine

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6
Q

the most common side effect of drugs that cause vasodilation is

A

hypotension

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7
Q

digoxin

A

digitalis

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8
Q

nitroglycerine

A

nitro-bid

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9
Q

acetylsalicylic acid

A

asprin

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10
Q

furosemide

A

lasix

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11
Q

enalapril

A

enacard

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12
Q

pimobendan

A

vetmedin

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13
Q

sildenafil

A

viagra

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14
Q

cardiac drugs that belong in class IV antiarrhythmics act by

A

blocking calcium channels

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15
Q

which of the following can be added to lidocaine to extend the duration of action when used as a local anesthetic, but should never be given IV

A

epinephrine

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16
Q

what is the arterial vasodilator used in dogs and cats with hypertension

A

amlodapine

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17
Q

which of the following is the drug of choice to stimulate the heart to begin contracting again in cases of cardiac arrest?

A

epinephrine

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18
Q

propanolol is a

A

nonselective blocker

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19
Q

calcium channel blockers exert most of their effects on the

A

atria

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20
Q

which of the following is an example of a calcium channel blocker?

A

diltiazem

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21
Q

which of class of antiarrhythmics is most commonly used in Boxer’s with ARVC disease?

A

potassium channel blockers

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22
Q

which of the following adrenergic receptors has a greater role in stimulating the resp tract

A

beta-2

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23
Q

all of the following are catecholamines except

A

acetylcholine

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24
Q

which of the following is an example of a potassium channel blocker

A

sotalol

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25
Q

what is the antiplatelet drug that can be safely used in cats

A

plavix

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26
Q

which of the following is a beta-blocker that is used in treating feline patients with HCM long term

A

atenolol

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27
Q

enalapril is an example of an

A

vasodilator

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28
Q

nitroglycerine is administered primarily to achieve which of the following affects

A

vasodilation

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29
Q

which of the following is an example of a beta blocker?

A

propanolol

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30
Q

positive inotropic drugs

A

increase the force of cardiac contractions

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31
Q

the diuretic most commonly used in patients with CHF is

A

furosemide

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32
Q

when applying nitroglycerine ointment it is important to

A

wear gloves

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33
Q

in regards to the parasympathetic nervous system, which neurotransmitter is secreted?

A

acetylcholine

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34
Q

loop diuretics work by preventing the reabsorption of _____from the urine

A

sodium

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35
Q

most drugs that control arrhythmias of teh heart are said to be “negative inotropes”. What does that mean?

A

they decrease the force of contractions

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36
Q

drugs that mimic the effects of epinephrine are called

A

both adrenergic agonists and sympathomimeitcs

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37
Q

the class 1 sodium channel blocker is used as an antiarrhythmic, which works by decreasing the rate of Na+ movement into a cell through the sodium fast channel most commonly used is

A

lidocaine

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38
Q

which of the following is an ACE-inhibitor?

A

enalapril

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39
Q

of the four adrenergic receptors which is located primarily in the heart

A

beta-1

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40
Q

which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic

A

spironalactone

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41
Q

what is the function of the ACE inhibitors

A

interfere with the conversion of angiostensin I to angiotensin II

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42
Q

with which of the following conditions would the use of diuretics be contraindicated?

A

treating a severely dehydrated patient

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43
Q

lidocaine is used to treat certain specific cardiac arrhythmias. Of the following choose the statement about lidocaine that is correct

A

lidocaine functions best as a ventricular antiarrhythmic

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44
Q

____blocks b1-receptors on the SA node and AV node and slows the conduction of teh depolarization wave

A

propranolol

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45
Q

what is the name of the sole member of the inodilator class of medications that are used in vet met

A

pimobendan

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46
Q

flurbiprofen is a pain reliver in the class of

A

NSAID

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47
Q

TrizEDTA is an ear flushing agent that can be used safely if the eardrum is not intact

A

treu

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48
Q

which of the following can be used to treat 1st and 2nd degree burns?

A

silver sulfadiazine

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49
Q

assuming it is safe to give, which of the following antibiotics can be mixed

A

enrofloxacin

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50
Q

which of the following drugs can be given long term to patients wiith KCS to help them begin producing ocular lubrication again?

A

cyclosproine

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51
Q

which of the following is used to treat feline acne

A

clindagel

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52
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used for

A

used for both decreasing the production of aqueous humor and as a preventative in the opposing eye

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53
Q

latanoprost is used for decreasing IOP and is classified as

A

a prostaglandin

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54
Q

caution should be used with topical diphenhydramine as it can still casue systemic responses

A

false

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55
Q

ocular fluoroquinolones should be used with caution in which of the following species as retinal neurotoxicity can occur

A

cats

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56
Q

which of the following tools is used to cheeck intraocular pressures in our patients?

A

tonopen

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57
Q

topical ocular NSAIDS can delay wound healing of an ulcer

A

true

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58
Q

griseofulvin is used in cats, dogs, and horses to treat which of the following disorders?

A

drematophytosis

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59
Q

what medication is used as a topical anesthetic for the eye

A

proparacaine

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60
Q

diluted chlorhexidine can be used safely in the ears, but cannot be used in/around the eyes

A

true

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61
Q

ketoconazole, miconazole, and griseofulvin are all efective against

A

fungi

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62
Q

if ear mites were found in a patient we would use a

A

mitacide

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63
Q

topical benzyl peroxide products may be used to treat feline acne

A

true

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64
Q

which of the following ocular tests can be used to determine KCS

A

schirmer tear test

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65
Q

which of the the following can you apply topically to help treat ringworm?

A

lyme sulfur

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66
Q

which of the following ocular tests can be used to determine a patient nasolacramal duct

A

fluorescein staining

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67
Q

atropine ophthalmic preparations can be used for the following situations except

A

treat glaucoma

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68
Q

what drug do you never want to apply into an eye with an ulcer

A

steroid

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69
Q

what insecticide is effective in treating demodectic mange

A

amitrax

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70
Q

which of the following is an example of an ocular fluoroquinolone?

A

ofloxacin

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70
Q

steroids should not be given concurrently with which of teh following drugs

A

atopica and apoquel

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71
Q

before treating ears which of the following should be established

A

integrity of the tympanic membrane

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72
Q

ear mite infections should be treated for at least

A

30 days

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73
Q

medicated shampoos should be left on teh patient for a minimum of _____ prior to being rinsed

A

10-15 minutes

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74
Q

which of the following medications is an ocular antifungal that is approved for use in horses?

A

natacyn

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75
Q

which of the following drugs used to treat dermatitis in dogs is a major immunosuppressant?

A

atopica

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76
Q

when applying topical ophthalmic drugs, _____ constrict the pupils, whereas ____ dilate the pupils

A

miotics; mydriatics

77
Q

timilol is a beta blocker most commonly used for

A

as a preventative for second eye glaucoma

78
Q

when applying ocular medications it is important to touch the tip of the container carefully on the eye to ensure proper placement of the medication

A

false

79
Q

this topical eye treatment is commonly used in patients during anesthesia

A

paralube

80
Q

which of the following ocular tests should be performed first so false results are avoided

A

schirmer tear test

81
Q

which chamber of the eye are topical ocular medications readily absorbed into?

A

anterior chamber

82
Q

which of the following is a concern when using medicated shampoos containing benzyl peroxide?

A

over-drying the skin

83
Q

neo-poly-bac with dexamethasone is commonly used medication to treat corneal ulcers

A

false

84
Q

which of the following can be usedful in treating moist dermatitis?

A

all the options

85
Q

if you have to apply multiple ocular medicatoins to your patient, how long should you wait between drugs?

A

5 minutes

86
Q

which of the following drugs can be used to treat ear mite infections in a cat?

A

bravecto and revolution

87
Q

what is the biggest concern when using colloidal oatmeal

A

inhibiting prostaglandin production

88
Q

fluorescein staining of an eye will be positive if the stain adheres to the

A

corneal stroma

89
Q

SSD cream can delay wound granulation

A

true

90
Q

which form of an endocrine disease means that the source of the problem for the disease resides in the organ that produces the final hormone?

A

primary

91
Q

which of the following statements about radioactive iodine treatment is false?

A

cats do not need to be isolated while in the hospital

92
Q

what drug is used to test an animal for hypoadrenocorticism?

A

cortrosyn

93
Q

what would be the effect of using a U-40 syringe instead of a U-100 syringe to pull up a dose of insulin

A

the dose will likely be incorrect, leading to possible dangerous side effects

94
Q

neurologic damage can be seen with hypernatremia

A

treu

95
Q

all of teh following drugs may be used to treat hypoglycemia except

A

percorten-V

96
Q

it is essential the vet tech is able to educate clients expecting to treat their pets with insulin. Which of teh following statements is true

A

insulin should be given with a meal

97
Q

what drug represents a mineralocorticoid used to treat addison’s disease?

A

percorten-V

98
Q

what drug can be given at home to patients that had a parathyroidectomy?

A

tums and calcirtol only

99
Q

which of the following can cause blood glucose levels to drop to dangerous levels rapidly

A

xylitol

100
Q

vetoryl (trilostane) and anipryl (selegiline) would most likely be used to treat an anima with

A

hyperadrenocorticism

101
Q

which drug has mineralcorticoid and glucorticoid effects?

A

florinef

102
Q

sepsis can cause blood glucose levels to sgnificantly drop

A

true

103
Q

vetoryl

A

trilostane

104
Q

florinef

A

fludrocortisone

105
Q

anipryl

A

selegiline

106
Q

cortrosyn

A

cosyntropin

107
Q

percorten-v

A

desoxycortiosterone pivalate

108
Q

medications used to treat a hypothyroid dog that is also suffering from diabetes

A

may lead to decreased glucose levels and a decrease in their insulin dose

109
Q

caution must be taken when dosing steroids to a patient. It is important to remember the prenisone is 7-10 times stronger than dexamethasone SP

A

false

110
Q

what is the concentration of 50% dextrose?

A

500mg/ml

111
Q

IV bags that contain dextrose solution should be changed how often?

A

24-48hours

112
Q

what is the commercial canned food available that is high in complex carbohydrates and is good to use in cases that need high caloric needs and neonates

A

a/d

113
Q

injectable glucagon is commonly used in vet med to help stimulate glucogenesis

A

false

114
Q

hyperparathryoidism will initially cause which of teh following problems

A

hypercalcemia

115
Q

prednisolone should be given to cats rather than prednisone for steroid use

A

true

116
Q

what is something that owners can give at home to hypoglycemic patients

A

karo syrup

117
Q

this drug works by blocking the ability of the thyroid gland to combine iodine onto molecule backbones to form thyroid hormones

A

methimazole

118
Q

an insulinoma will cause an increased amount of blood insulin levels

A

true

119
Q

thyrotoxicosis can also be referred to as

A

thyroid storm

120
Q

exogenous drugs are

A

made outside the body

121
Q

which of the following drugs would require the use of continuous ECG monitoring during administration

A

calcium gluconate

122
Q

diets that are used to treat hyperthyroidism are limited in what ingredient

A

iodine

123
Q

which of the following drugs is used to treat diabetes insipidus?

A

all

124
Q

what type of insuline require a U-100 syringe for administration?

A

glargine (lantus)

125
Q

which of the following can cause tissue necrosis if given perivascular?

A

dextrose 50%

126
Q

goiters can occur with deficiencies in which of the following?

A

Iodine

127
Q

what is the drug of choice for controlling hypertenstion caused by hyperthryroidism

A

amlodipine

128
Q

the only long-acting insulin used in vet med is ____, and is typically only used in _____

A

glargine;cats

129
Q

methimazole is used to treat which of the following diseases?

A

hyperthyroidism

130
Q

which of the following is a lubricating laxative?

A

laxatone

131
Q

pepto bismol contains

A

bismuth subsalicylate

132
Q

which of the following antiemetic types would be useful in treating a dog with inner ear vertigo?

A

all options

133
Q

hydrogen peroxide 3% is used as a local emetic for dogs because it acts

A

as a GI irritant

134
Q

in what species are Fleet (sodium phosphate) enemas contraindicated?

A

cats

135
Q

which of the following receptors do phenothiazine derivatives act on?

A

all options

136
Q

which of the following is a gastrointestinal antibiotic?

A

flagyl

137
Q

which of the following could be beneficial to promoting gut flora homeostasis?

A

fortiflora

138
Q

the term _____ refers to the stomach

A

gastric

139
Q

a ____ drug produces vomiting needed to remove a toxic substance from the GI tract

A

emetic

140
Q

which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

A

omeprazole

141
Q

all the following are contraindication for inducing emesis, except

A

ingestion of Ibuprofen 15 minutes ago

142
Q

what is the drug of choice to treat both anaerobic bacterial enteritis and giardiasis in companion animals?

A

metronidazole

143
Q

which of the following is an antihistamine antiemetic

A

all options

144
Q

the emetic of choice in dogs is

A

apomorphine

145
Q

if you are going to instruct an owner to induce emesis at home, which of the following is the preferred method?

A

3% hydrogen peroxide

146
Q

which of the following is most likely to be given to a dog to prevent motion sickness?

A

acepromazine

147
Q

psyllium is an example of an

A

bulk laxatives

148
Q

which of the following drugs is usedful in treating feline obstipation?

A

cisapride

149
Q

which of the following is a narcotic antidiarrheal?

A

lamotil

150
Q

ondansetron is an antiemetic that belongs in which category?

A

serotonin antagonist

151
Q

chlorpromazine is occasionally used as an antiemetic. All the following are known side effects except

A

hypertension

152
Q

why should apomorphine and activated charcoal not be given simultaneously?

A

the patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal

153
Q

which is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

diarrhea

154
Q

the term ____ refers to the colon

A

colonic

155
Q

the emetic of choice in cats is

A

xylazine

156
Q

reglan

A

metoclopramide

157
Q

zofran

A

ondansetron

158
Q

pepcid

A

famotadine

159
Q

flagyl

A

metronidazole

160
Q

benadryl

A

diphenhydramine

161
Q

immodium

A

loperamide

162
Q

which of the following patients should not receive an antiemetic

A

they should all receive antiemetics

163
Q

the following can all occur with the use of misoprostal (cytotec), except?

A

seizures

164
Q

the ___ cranial nerve carries parasympathetic impulses from the brain to a wide variety of thoracic and abdominal organs

A

vagus

165
Q

which of the following is a cathartic laxative?

A

luctulose

166
Q

which of the following drugs can reverse apomorphine?

A

chlorpromazine

167
Q

emetics must be used after their risk-to-benefit ratio has been calculated. Which of the following is not a consideration in the calculation?

A

age of patient

168
Q

which of the following drugs is used to decrease gastric acid prodcution by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach?

A

famotidine

169
Q

maropitant is the active ingredient in

A

cerenia

170
Q

H2 blockers provde relief to animals with gastric upset by functioning to

A

prevent histamine receptor activation

171
Q

for metoclompramide all of the following are true, but

A

it is more effective in cats than dogs

172
Q

maalox (aluminum/magnesium hydroxide) should not be used in animals suffering from

A

renal disease

173
Q

which drug can be added to synthetic narcotic antidiarrheals to help discourage substance abuse?

A

atropine

174
Q

apomorphine comes in 2 dosage forms, injectable and

A

topical

175
Q

the term ____ refers to the small intestine

A

enteric

176
Q

which of the following is a GI absorbent?

A

activated charcoal

177
Q

emetics should not be given to which of the following

A

rabbit

178
Q

a coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is

A

sucralfate

179
Q

in the emetic center of the brain, cats have more ____ receptors than dogs do

A

alpha

180
Q

cimetidine and ranitidine are used as

A

antacids

181
Q

the DVM would like to start a patient on a drug that increases GI motility. He would like to be able to add it to the IV fluids and also send the dog home with an oral dose on discharge. Which drug fulfills this criterial?

A

metoclopramide

182
Q

reglan works to stop vomiting by blocking the dopamine receptors on the CRTZ. The second effect to crontrol vomiting is

A

increasing gastric contractility

183
Q

cisapride is an

A

prokinektic

184
Q

apomorphine can be given by different routes. How are tablets used to induce vomiting?

A

subconjucntival

185
Q

opiate drugs are noted for causing the GI tract to

A

decrease gut motility

186
Q

a specialized cluster of receptors called the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CRTZ) are

A

all options

187
Q

which of the following is a bulk laxative

A

metamucil

188
Q

which of the following is a neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist?

A

Cerenia

189
Q

the term ____ refers to the large intestine

A

colonic

Mod 5 finals (2 decks)

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