Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
it is common to give lidacain IV to both dogs and cats for certain cardiac arrhythmias
A
false
2
Q
which of the following is an example of a cardiac glycoside?
A
digoxin
3
Q
the doc expresses concern that a patients cardiac output is poor and is considering something to increase the contractility of the heart. What will he want to use
A
positive inotrope
4
Q
which of the following is not a factor of cardiac compensation
A
all are factors
5
Q
which of the following is an example of a sodium channel blocker
A
lidocaine
6
Q
the most common side effect of drugs that cause vasodilation is
A
hypotension
7
Q
digoxin
A
digitalis
8
Q
nitroglycerine
A
nitro-bid
9
Q
acetylsalicylic acid
A
asprin
10
Q
furosemide
A
lasix
11
Q
enalapril
A
enacard
12
Q
pimobendan
A
vetmedin
13
Q
sildenafil
A
viagra
14
Q
cardiac drugs that belong in class IV antiarrhythmics act by
A
blocking calcium channels
15
Q
which of the following can be added to lidocaine to extend the duration of action when used as a local anesthetic, but should never be given IV
A
epinephrine
16
Q
what is the arterial vasodilator used in dogs and cats with hypertension
A
amlodapine
17
Q
which of the following is the drug of choice to stimulate the heart to begin contracting again in cases of cardiac arrest?
A
epinephrine
18
Q
propanolol is a
A
nonselective blocker
19
Q
calcium channel blockers exert most of their effects on the
A
atria
20
Q
which of the following is an example of a calcium channel blocker?
A
diltiazem
21
Q
which of class of antiarrhythmics is most commonly used in Boxer’s with ARVC disease?
A
potassium channel blockers
22
Q
which of the following adrenergic receptors has a greater role in stimulating the resp tract
A
beta-2
23
Q
all of the following are catecholamines except
A
acetylcholine
24
Q
which of the following is an example of a potassium channel blocker
A
sotalol
25
what is the antiplatelet drug that can be safely used in cats
plavix
26
which of the following is a beta-blocker that is used in treating feline patients with HCM long term
atenolol
27
enalapril is an example of an
vasodilator
28
nitroglycerine is administered primarily to achieve which of the following affects
vasodilation
29
which of the following is an example of a beta blocker?
propanolol
30
positive inotropic drugs
increase the force of cardiac contractions
31
the diuretic most commonly used in patients with CHF is
furosemide
32
when applying nitroglycerine ointment it is important to
wear gloves
33
in regards to the parasympathetic nervous system, which neurotransmitter is secreted?
acetylcholine
34
loop diuretics work by preventing the reabsorption of _____from the urine
sodium
35
most drugs that control arrhythmias of teh heart are said to be "negative inotropes". What does that mean?
they decrease the force of contractions
36
drugs that mimic the effects of epinephrine are called
both adrenergic agonists and sympathomimeitcs
37
the class 1 sodium channel blocker is used as an antiarrhythmic, which works by decreasing the rate of Na+ movement into a cell through the sodium fast channel most commonly used is
lidocaine
38
which of the following is an ACE-inhibitor?
enalapril
39
of the four adrenergic receptors which is located primarily in the heart
beta-1
40
which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic
spironalactone
41
what is the function of the ACE inhibitors
interfere with the conversion of angiostensin I to angiotensin II
42
with which of the following conditions would the use of diuretics be contraindicated?
treating a severely dehydrated patient
43
lidocaine is used to treat certain specific cardiac arrhythmias. Of the following choose the statement about lidocaine that is correct
lidocaine functions best as a ventricular antiarrhythmic
44
____blocks b1-receptors on the SA node and AV node and slows the conduction of teh depolarization wave
propranolol
45
what is the name of the sole member of the inodilator class of medications that are used in vet met
pimobendan
46
flurbiprofen is a pain reliver in the class of
NSAID
47
TrizEDTA is an ear flushing agent that can be used safely if the eardrum is not intact
treu
48
which of the following can be used to treat 1st and 2nd degree burns?
silver sulfadiazine
49
assuming it is safe to give, which of the following antibiotics can be mixed
enrofloxacin
50
which of the following drugs can be given long term to patients wiith KCS to help them begin producing ocular lubrication again?
cyclosproine
51
which of the following is used to treat feline acne
clindagel
52
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used for
used for both decreasing the production of aqueous humor and as a preventative in the opposing eye
53
latanoprost is used for decreasing IOP and is classified as
a prostaglandin
54
caution should be used with topical diphenhydramine as it can still casue systemic responses
false
55
ocular fluoroquinolones should be used with caution in which of the following species as retinal neurotoxicity can occur
cats
56
which of the following tools is used to cheeck intraocular pressures in our patients?
tonopen
57
topical ocular NSAIDS can delay wound healing of an ulcer
true
58
griseofulvin is used in cats, dogs, and horses to treat which of the following disorders?
drematophytosis
59
what medication is used as a topical anesthetic for the eye
proparacaine
60
diluted chlorhexidine can be used safely in the ears, but cannot be used in/around the eyes
true
61
ketoconazole, miconazole, and griseofulvin are all efective against
fungi
62
if ear mites were found in a patient we would use a
mitacide
63
topical benzyl peroxide products may be used to treat feline acne
true
64
which of the following ocular tests can be used to determine KCS
schirmer tear test
65
which of the the following can you apply topically to help treat ringworm?
lyme sulfur
66
which of the following ocular tests can be used to determine a patient nasolacramal duct
fluorescein staining
67
atropine ophthalmic preparations can be used for the following situations except
treat glaucoma
68
what drug do you never want to apply into an eye with an ulcer
steroid
69
what insecticide is effective in treating demodectic mange
amitrax
70
which of the following is an example of an ocular fluoroquinolone?
ofloxacin
70
steroids should not be given concurrently with which of teh following drugs
atopica and apoquel
71
before treating ears which of the following should be established
integrity of the tympanic membrane
72
ear mite infections should be treated for at least
30 days
73
medicated shampoos should be left on teh patient for a minimum of _____ prior to being rinsed
10-15 minutes
74
which of the following medications is an ocular antifungal that is approved for use in horses?
natacyn
75
which of the following drugs used to treat dermatitis in dogs is a major immunosuppressant?
atopica
76
when applying topical ophthalmic drugs, _____ constrict the pupils, whereas ____ dilate the pupils
miotics; mydriatics
77
timilol is a beta blocker most commonly used for
as a preventative for second eye glaucoma
78
when applying ocular medications it is important to touch the tip of the container carefully on the eye to ensure proper placement of the medication
false
79
this topical eye treatment is commonly used in patients during anesthesia
paralube
80
which of the following ocular tests should be performed first so false results are avoided
schirmer tear test
81
which chamber of the eye are topical ocular medications readily absorbed into?
anterior chamber
82
which of the following is a concern when using medicated shampoos containing benzyl peroxide?
over-drying the skin
83
neo-poly-bac with dexamethasone is commonly used medication to treat corneal ulcers
false
84
which of the following can be usedful in treating moist dermatitis?
all the options
85
if you have to apply multiple ocular medicatoins to your patient, how long should you wait between drugs?
5 minutes
86
which of the following drugs can be used to treat ear mite infections in a cat?
bravecto and revolution
87
what is the biggest concern when using colloidal oatmeal
inhibiting prostaglandin production
88
fluorescein staining of an eye will be positive if the stain adheres to the
corneal stroma
89
SSD cream can delay wound granulation
true
90
which form of an endocrine disease means that the source of the problem for the disease resides in the organ that produces the final hormone?
primary
91
which of the following statements about radioactive iodine treatment is false?
cats do not need to be isolated while in the hospital
92
what drug is used to test an animal for hypoadrenocorticism?
cortrosyn
93
what would be the effect of using a U-40 syringe instead of a U-100 syringe to pull up a dose of insulin
the dose will likely be incorrect, leading to possible dangerous side effects
94
neurologic damage can be seen with hypernatremia
treu
95
all of teh following drugs may be used to treat hypoglycemia except
percorten-V
96
it is essential the vet tech is able to educate clients expecting to treat their pets with insulin. Which of teh following statements is true
insulin should be given with a meal
97
what drug represents a mineralocorticoid used to treat addison's disease?
percorten-V
98
what drug can be given at home to patients that had a parathyroidectomy?
tums and calcirtol only
99
which of the following can cause blood glucose levels to drop to dangerous levels rapidly
xylitol
100
vetoryl (trilostane) and anipryl (selegiline) would most likely be used to treat an anima with
hyperadrenocorticism
101
which drug has mineralcorticoid and glucorticoid effects?
florinef
102
sepsis can cause blood glucose levels to sgnificantly drop
true
103
vetoryl
trilostane
104
florinef
fludrocortisone
105
anipryl
selegiline
106
cortrosyn
cosyntropin
107
percorten-v
desoxycortiosterone pivalate
108
medications used to treat a hypothyroid dog that is also suffering from diabetes
may lead to decreased glucose levels and a decrease in their insulin dose
109
caution must be taken when dosing steroids to a patient. It is important to remember the prenisone is 7-10 times stronger than dexamethasone SP
false
110
what is the concentration of 50% dextrose?
500mg/ml
111
IV bags that contain dextrose solution should be changed how often?
24-48hours
112
what is the commercial canned food available that is high in complex carbohydrates and is good to use in cases that need high caloric needs and neonates
a/d
113
injectable glucagon is commonly used in vet med to help stimulate glucogenesis
false
114
hyperparathryoidism will initially cause which of teh following problems
hypercalcemia
115
prednisolone should be given to cats rather than prednisone for steroid use
true
116
what is something that owners can give at home to hypoglycemic patients
karo syrup
117
this drug works by blocking the ability of the thyroid gland to combine iodine onto molecule backbones to form thyroid hormones
methimazole
118
an insulinoma will cause an increased amount of blood insulin levels
true
119
thyrotoxicosis can also be referred to as
thyroid storm
120
exogenous drugs are
made outside the body
121
which of the following drugs would require the use of continuous ECG monitoring during administration
calcium gluconate
122
diets that are used to treat hyperthyroidism are limited in what ingredient
iodine
123
which of the following drugs is used to treat diabetes insipidus?
all
124
what type of insuline require a U-100 syringe for administration?
glargine (lantus)
125
which of the following can cause tissue necrosis if given perivascular?
dextrose 50%
126
goiters can occur with deficiencies in which of the following?
Iodine
127
what is the drug of choice for controlling hypertenstion caused by hyperthryroidism
amlodipine
128
the only long-acting insulin used in vet med is ____, and is typically only used in _____
glargine;cats
129
methimazole is used to treat which of the following diseases?
hyperthyroidism
130
which of the following is a lubricating laxative?
laxatone
131
pepto bismol contains
bismuth subsalicylate
132
which of the following antiemetic types would be useful in treating a dog with inner ear vertigo?
all options
133
hydrogen peroxide 3% is used as a local emetic for dogs because it acts
as a GI irritant
134
in what species are Fleet (sodium phosphate) enemas contraindicated?
cats
135
which of the following receptors do phenothiazine derivatives act on?
all options
136
which of the following is a gastrointestinal antibiotic?
flagyl
137
which of the following could be beneficial to promoting gut flora homeostasis?
fortiflora
138
the term _____ refers to the stomach
gastric
139
a ____ drug produces vomiting needed to remove a toxic substance from the GI tract
emetic
140
which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?
omeprazole
141
all the following are contraindication for inducing emesis, except
ingestion of Ibuprofen 15 minutes ago
142
what is the drug of choice to treat both anaerobic bacterial enteritis and giardiasis in companion animals?
metronidazole
143
which of the following is an antihistamine antiemetic
all options
144
the emetic of choice in dogs is
apomorphine
145
if you are going to instruct an owner to induce emesis at home, which of the following is the preferred method?
3% hydrogen peroxide
146
which of the following is most likely to be given to a dog to prevent motion sickness?
acepromazine
147
psyllium is an example of an
bulk laxatives
148
which of the following drugs is usedful in treating feline obstipation?
cisapride
149
which of the following is a narcotic antidiarrheal?
lamotil
150
ondansetron is an antiemetic that belongs in which category?
serotonin antagonist
151
chlorpromazine is occasionally used as an antiemetic. All the following are known side effects except
hypertension
152
why should apomorphine and activated charcoal not be given simultaneously?
the patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal
153
which is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics?
diarrhea
154
the term ____ refers to the colon
colonic
155
the emetic of choice in cats is
xylazine
156
reglan
metoclopramide
157
zofran
ondansetron
158
pepcid
famotadine
159
flagyl
metronidazole
160
benadryl
diphenhydramine
161
immodium
loperamide
162
which of the following patients should not receive an antiemetic
they should all receive antiemetics
163
the following can all occur with the use of misoprostal (cytotec), except?
seizures
164
the ___ cranial nerve carries parasympathetic impulses from the brain to a wide variety of thoracic and abdominal organs
vagus
165
which of the following is a cathartic laxative?
luctulose
166
which of the following drugs can reverse apomorphine?
chlorpromazine
167
emetics must be used after their risk-to-benefit ratio has been calculated. Which of the following is not a consideration in the calculation?
age of patient
168
which of the following drugs is used to decrease gastric acid prodcution by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach?
famotidine
169
maropitant is the active ingredient in
cerenia
170
H2 blockers provde relief to animals with gastric upset by functioning to
prevent histamine receptor activation
171
for metoclompramide all of the following are true, but
it is more effective in cats than dogs
172
maalox (aluminum/magnesium hydroxide) should not be used in animals suffering from
renal disease
173
which drug can be added to synthetic narcotic antidiarrheals to help discourage substance abuse?
atropine
174
apomorphine comes in 2 dosage forms, injectable and
topical
175
the term ____ refers to the small intestine
enteric
176
which of the following is a GI absorbent?
activated charcoal
177
emetics should not be given to which of the following
rabbit
178
a coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is
sucralfate
179
in the emetic center of the brain, cats have more ____ receptors than dogs do
alpha
180
cimetidine and ranitidine are used as
antacids
181
the DVM would like to start a patient on a drug that increases GI motility. He would like to be able to add it to the IV fluids and also send the dog home with an oral dose on discharge. Which drug fulfills this criterial?
metoclopramide
182
reglan works to stop vomiting by blocking the dopamine receptors on the CRTZ. The second effect to crontrol vomiting is
increasing gastric contractility
183
cisapride is an
prokinektic
184
apomorphine can be given by different routes. How are tablets used to induce vomiting?
subconjucntival
185
opiate drugs are noted for causing the GI tract to
decrease gut motility
186
a specialized cluster of receptors called the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CRTZ) are
all options
187
which of the following is a bulk laxative
metamucil
188
which of the following is a neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist?
Cerenia
189
the term ____ refers to the large intestine
colonic
