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Mod 5 finals > Diseases > Flashcards

Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What disease is zoonotic in the GI tract?

A

Leptospirosis

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2
Q

Painful straining at defecation is termed

A

tenesmus

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3
Q

what is there not a vaccination for? (GI)

A

salmonella

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4
Q

what is most common chronic enteropathy?

A

IBD

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5
Q

What is the passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, or esophagus?

A

regurgitation

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6
Q

the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is defined as

A

ascities

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7
Q

a vascular abnormality in which the hepatic portal vein empties directly into the caudal vena cava is

A

portosystemic shunt

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8
Q

what is not a typical sign of inflammatory bowel disease in cats?

A

weight gain

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9
Q

the pancreas produces all of the following substances except?

A

albumin

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10
Q

an animal presents with anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea. Your DVM states that he felt a “sausage like mass” in the cranial abdomen during his physical exam. This animal is most likely suffering from?

A

intussusception

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11
Q

A dog presents to your clinic with a suspected intestinal foreign body. During the laparotomy the DVM removes the object and notes that a section of the intestines is necrotic. What is the name of the procedure to remove the necrotic area and rejoin the healthy intestines?

A

resection and anastomosis

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12
Q

which of the following drugs is associated with liver disease caused by long-term use?

A

all options

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13
Q

what arrhythmia is commonly associated with GDV?

A

ventricular premature contractoins

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14
Q

what is the most common intestinal neoplasm of the cat?

A

lymphoma

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15
Q

an overweight cat presents to your clinic with a one week history of anorexia. They state the cat stopped eating after they went out of town. The cat is icteric, and biopsy of the liver reveled vacuolated hepatocytes. What is the cat most likely siffering from?

A

hepatic lipidosis

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16
Q

a semiperminent feeding tube may be placed in all the following wasy except

A

orogastric tube

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17
Q

acute diarrhea is often the result of which of the following

A

all

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18
Q

jaundice may develop as diseases progress in which of the following organs?

A

liver

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19
Q

what is the most common disease of the salivary glands in the canine?

A

mucocele

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20
Q

what is the most common intestinal neoplasm of the dog?

A

adenocarcinoma

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21
Q

what is the most common oral malignant neoplasm of the cat?

A

squamous cell carcninoma

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22
Q

what is the most common oral malignant neoplasm of the dog?

A

malignant melanoma

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23
Q

patients with myasthenia gravis may also suffer from megaesophagus. These patients are at an increases risk for which of the following?

A

aspiration

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24
Q

if the patient is vomiting fresh or digested blood, this is termed

A

hematemesis

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25
Q

feline obstipation occurs with which of the following diseases?

A

megacolon

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26
Q

clinical signs that a patient may present with that would indicate small intestine diarrhea include

A

increased stool volume

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27
Q

what does high-frequency diarrhea with straining and mucus indicate?

A

involvement of the large intestine

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28
Q

patients with pancreatitis should avoid food that are

A

high in fat

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29
Q

what disease commonly involves german shepard dogs and requires sprinkling a pancreatic enzyme supplement on their food?

A

EPA

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30
Q

for which of the following problems would you see plication on rads?

A

linear foreign body

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31
Q

canine adenovirus 1 causes ____

A

infectious hepatitis

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32
Q

an exam of a patient with diarrhea should always include

A

fecal exam

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33
Q

acute diarrhea is usually caused by

A

acute food change

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34
Q

the blood supply from the gastrointestinal tract passes through this organ

A

liver

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35
Q

which of the following is a common side effect of NSAID administration in dogs and cats?

A

gastric ulceration

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36
Q

periotonitis refers to

A

inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity

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37
Q

which of the following statements about leptospirosis is true

A

it is known to cause liver and kidney failure

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38
Q

which part of the GI system is associated with melena?

A

involvement with the jejunum or ileum

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39
Q

which of the following statements about megacolon is false?

A

it is a common disease of middle to old-aged dogs

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40
Q

if a client calls to report that her dog has started vomiting while taking the NSAID carprofen, what is the best course of action?

A

tell client to stop using the carprofen and have a vet see the pet

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41
Q

patients with heart disease may experience syncope. What is another description for syncope?

A

fainting

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42
Q

which of the following dog breeds should not receive ivermectin as a heartoworm preventative?

A

bearded collie

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43
Q

which of the following is the msot concerning toxin seen with reperfusion injury?

A

potassium

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44
Q

PRAA can cause entrapment of the

A

esophagus

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45
Q

which tachyarrhythmias would we expect to see in patients with DCM?

A

premature ventricular contractions

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46
Q

a common clinical sign of a saddle thrombus in the cat is

A

acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis

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47
Q

the heart is an organ that is commonly affected by age. Chronic valvular disease results from thickening of the heart valves, and this disease mainly affects

A

older, small breed dogs

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48
Q

animals with septal defects will not show signs of disease until 12 months of age

A

false

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49
Q

which of the following is the intermediate host and vector of heartworms?

A

mosquito

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50
Q

A puppy having a “machinery-like” murmur that is best heard on the left side of the thorax would be suggestive of what cardiovascular defect?

A

patent ductus arteriosus

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51
Q

what is the prepatent period for heartworms?

A

6 months

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52
Q

CHF is an abbreviation for

A

congestive heart failure

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53
Q

where do microfilaria go to mature into adults?

A

pulmonary artery

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54
Q

what is the connection between the right and left atria in the fetus that closes after birth?

A

foramen ovale

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55
Q

which of the following diseases is treated medically by routine phlebotomy?

A

tetralogy of fallot

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56
Q

You have a Maltese puppy that frequently regurgitates his food, weight loss despite having a healthy appetite, and has had aspiration pneumonia several times - what is the cardiovascular diseases he could have?

A

persistent right aortic arch

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57
Q

this congenital heart defect can cause CHF by the time the animal is 8 weeks of age

A

atrial and septal defects

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58
Q

which of the following is not a diagnose done to evaluate the cardio system

A

palpation

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59
Q

which of the following conditions is NOT considered to be a congenital defect?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

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60
Q

right sides heart failure leads to pulmonary edema

A

false

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61
Q

what dietary changes may a DVM suggest ot an owner whose pet has cardiav disease?

A

low salt

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62
Q

the term for accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is

A

ascites

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63
Q

a thromboembolism may be seen on a cardiac ultrasound in which of the following locations on a patient with HCM?

A

left atrium

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64
Q

most congenital cardiovascular diseases are found on the animal first trip to the vet

A

true

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65
Q

which of the following acutely secribes the term polycythemia

A

increased numbers of RBC

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66
Q

what diagnostic tool is used to evaluate overlal function of the heart as well as diagnosing valvular disease?

A

echocardiogram

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67
Q

which of the following is the most commonly seen cardiovascular disease of the dog?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

68
Q

which of the following is the appropriate treatment when a patient experiences sever heartworm infestation and caval syndrome?

A

surgical removal

69
Q

a atypical heart sound associated with a cuntional or structural valve abnormality is known as

A

murmur

70
Q

atrial fibrillation is most commonly treated with ____, while ventricular fibrillation is treated with _____

A

drugs; defibrillation

71
Q

heartworm diseae may be dianosed in all of the following except

A

CBC

72
Q

heartworm antigen test kits are testing for the antigen found on which of the following?

A

adult female heartworm

73
Q

the name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is

A

foramen ovale

74
Q

when is the foramen ovale suppose to close?

A

within the first 12-24hours

75
Q

using anatomy of the animal’s chest to evaluate the actual size of the heart is called what

A

vertebral heart score

76
Q

which of the following treatments is a microfilaricide used to treat a heartworm positive dogs after adulticide treatment?

A

ivermectin

77
Q

which of the following species can have atrial fibrillation without other heart problems

A

equine

78
Q

which of the following cardiovascular diseases can result in a “valentines” appearance on a DV film?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

79
Q

if a cat is diagnosed with DCM, it is most likely due to a deficiency

A

taurine

80
Q

which of the following is the antibiotic used to kill Wolbachia

A

doxycycline

81
Q

what is the test that can be done to help determine a right-to-left heart shunt?

A

bubble study

82
Q

which of the following statements is not true

A

an adult HW is also known as microfilaria

83
Q

a holter monitor can be used to evaluate an EKG on patient for 24 hours or more

A

true

84
Q

a patient with left isded congesetive heart failure would most likely develop

A

pulmonary edema

85
Q

in HCM the heart muscle becomes _____ over time. In DCM the heart becomes ____ over time. Both can lead to heart failure

A

thicker; thinner

86
Q

aldosterone

A

is a mineralcorticoid that causes sodium ions to be reabsorbed by the kidney back into the bloodstream in exchange for potassium and hydrogen ions

87
Q

most endocrine issues are controlled with

A

medcial management

88
Q

ketonuria is most commonly associated with which of the following disease

A

diabetes mellitus

89
Q

the test used in dogs and cats that provides an indication of the average glucose concentrations over the previous 1-2 weeks is

A

serum fructose/fructosamine

90
Q

which of the following endocrine disease results in WT gain, bradycardia, exercise intolerance, and lethargy in teh dog?

A

hyperadrenocorticism

91
Q

which of the following diets can be useful in treating hyperthyroidism?

A

y/d

92
Q

A middle-aged female Labrador Retriever presents with clinical signs of: weight gain with no change in diet, bilaterally symmetrical alopecia, “rat tail,” and cold intolerance. What is she most likely suffering from?

A

hypothyroidism

93
Q

in what endocrine disorder is PU/PD not commonly seen?

A

hyperadrenocorticism

94
Q

which of the following is a sign of insulin overdose in treated diabetic patients?

A

seizures

95
Q

what test is commonly performed to diagnose cushing’s disease?

A

low-dose desamethasone suppresiona

96
Q

all the following are symptoms of hyperthryoidism except

A

weight gain

97
Q

which type of diabetes does not require insulin therapy

A

type 2

98
Q

IV dextrose administraiton is contraindicated in patients with

A

insulinoma

99
Q

almost 100% of dogs with diabetes have type 1 diabetes, also known as

A

insulin-dependent

100
Q

which of the following diseases involves the adrenal glands?

A

addisons

101
Q

which of the following statements is false?

A

signs of DM include weakness, incoordination, seizures, and potentially a coma

102
Q

all of the following are ketoacids except

A

acetic acid

103
Q

a patients blood work suffering from an insulinoma would most likely show

A

hypoglycemia

104
Q

insulinomas are tumors of teh ____ cells of the pancreas and commonly affect ____

A

beta; ferrets

105
Q

which of the following endocrine diseases results in WT gain, muscle weakness, polyuria, polydipsia, skin and hair coat abnormalities, and a pot-bellied appearance in a dog?

A

hyperadrenocorticism

106
Q

what endocrine disease involves radioactive I-131 treatment as the treatment of choice?

A

hyperthyroidism

107
Q

A 12-year-old cat presents to your clinic with a history of increased appetite with concurrent weight loss and “bumping” into things while walking around the house. Physical exam reveals tachycardia, hypertension, and a small mass palpated over the trachea that slips easily between your fingers. Based on these findings, the cat is most likely suffering from:

A

hyperthyroidism

108
Q

a Keeshond presents to your clinic with signs og PU/PD. Bloodwork reveals hypercalcemia and mild azotemia. This patient most likely has

A

hyperparathyroidism

109
Q

beta cells of the pancreas produce ____ and alpha cells produce ____

A

insulin; glucagon

110
Q

which of the following endocrine diseases results in hyponatremia and hyperkalemia in a dog?

A

hypoadrenocorticism

111
Q

most insulin is given via what route?

A

SQ

112
Q

addisons disease is also known as what?

A

hypoadrenocorticism

113
Q

serum calcium levels of > 12mg/dL (hypercalcemia) indicate disease of the

A

parathyroid gland

114
Q

puerperal tetany is also known as

A

eclampsia

115
Q

an ACTH stimulation test is used to diagnose

A

hypoadrenocorticism

116
Q

when does gestational eclampisa generally occur?

A

late pregnancy or post partum

117
Q

which of the following dog breeds is more likely to get pancreatitis in its lifetime

A

schnauzer

118
Q

which of the following ear cleaners is safe to use if the eardrum is not intact?

A

TrizEDTA

119
Q

which of the following isn ot common cause for blepharitis

A

ectropian

120
Q

what test can be done to isolate drematophyte infections?

A

DTM

121
Q

when removing cuterebra larva from a patient

A

anaphylaxis can occur

122
Q

all of the following are important in treating flea infestation except

A

yeast tablets given orally to the patient

123
Q

feline acne is commonly found

A

on the rostral mandible

124
Q

superficial dermatomycosis is commonly called

A

ringworm

125
Q

diagnosis of entropion should be done while the patient is sedated

A

false

126
Q

“red mange” is caused by demodex canis

A

true

127
Q

myiasis is the condition caused by

A

maggots

128
Q

which is not a common clinical feature in mycotic infections?

A

ulcerated, bleeding wounds

129
Q

patients having mast cell tumors surgically removed are often premedicated with ____ to block histamine released by tumor manimpulation

A

diphenhydramine

130
Q

the most common sing in dogs and cats with allergic dermatitis or disease is

A

pruritus

131
Q

when staining an eye chekcing for an ulcer a positive result will glow ____ undre a cobalt-blue light

A

green

132
Q

which of the following owuld be a normal IOP for a dog?

A

20

133
Q

A 9 month old puppy is presented with 1cm round alopecia lesion on his left lateral muzzle. An FNA revealed round cells with few mitotic figures and few granules. This mass is most likely a:

A

histiocytoma

134
Q

fleas are known to cause significant anemia up to and including causing death

A

true

135
Q

fibrosarcomas are usually easily surgically removed since they are contained within a capsule

A

false

136
Q

which of the following is a zoonotic diseas that is spread by fleas?

A

yersinia pestis

137
Q

which is not included in the treatment of skin fold pyodermas?

A

angioplasty

138
Q

demodex mange is usually found to be very pruritic

A

false

139
Q

which of the following may contribute to ringowrm in companion animals

A

microsporum canis, microsporium gypseum, trichophyton mentagrophytes (all answers)

140
Q

otodectes cyanotis feeds on

A

skin debris

141
Q

the overproduction of tears is often caused by

A

ocular pain or irritation

142
Q

treatment for ear mites should be no less than

A

30 days

143
Q

myiasis commonly occurs

A

all

144
Q

in regsards to a mast cell tumor on a dog, you should not peform a/an ____ unless you pre-treat with ____

A

FNA; diphenhydramine

145
Q

what does TECA stand for?

A

total ear canal ablation

146
Q

which of the following meciations should be avoided in patients with a corneal ulcer

A

neo/poly/dex

147
Q

what is a cause for flea allergy dermatitis?

A

ctenocephalides infestation

148
Q

the most common type of tick would fall into this category?

A

ixoidae

149
Q

the best treatment for feline fibrosarcoma is

A

leg amputation

150
Q

conjunctivitis is generally of infectious causes in cats

A

true

151
Q

what is considered to be a disease of neglect?

A

lice

152
Q

what is the initiated cause of flea bite dermatitis?

A

allergic reaction to flea saliva

153
Q

increased IO pressure, caused by more aqueous fluid being produced than leaving the eye, might result in

A

glaucoma

154
Q

what common disease can lead to cataract formation

A

diabetes

155
Q

which of the following is a heartworm preventative that is also approved to kill ear mites?

A

revolution

156
Q

what is the normal IOP for a dog?

A

20

157
Q

glaucoma can present with which of the following symptoms?

A

painful eye, episcleral injection, dilated pupil, decreased PLR, history of uveitis or hemorrhage in the eye and increased IOP

158
Q

external parasites are responsible for many skin problems seen in small animal medicine. All can be treated with shamppos and dips except

A

ear mites

159
Q

IOP is measured using

A

tonometer

160
Q

a cat has a large rapidy growing tumor on her left thigh. It has been diagnosed as a bribrosarcoma. What is the most likely cause?

A

feline leukemia vaccine administraiton

161
Q

which of the following diseases can be the result of severe otitis externa, especially if the middle ear canal is affected?

A

vestibular disease

162
Q

what test can be done to isolate dermatophyte infections?

A

DTM

163
Q

what is a normal IOP for a cat?

A

25

164
Q

opaque pupillary opening and pregressive vision loss may be seen in patients with

A

cataractsa

165
Q

anterior uveitis can cause IOP to drop as low as 4-8 mmHg

A

true

166
Q

flea shampoos have a short residula action of roughly 12 hours after product use

A

false

167
Q

hair from the ear canal can safely be plucked from the patient

A

false

Mod 5 finals (2 decks)

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