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NS Self Ass. by D (amerikai test book) > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following best describes the main mechanism of propofol sedation?
a. Cyclo-oxygenase inhibition
b. Depolarizing neuromuscular blockade
c. Endocannabinoid activation
d. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade
e. Potentiates GABA-A receptor activity

A

e. Potentiates GABA-A receptor activity

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2
Q

Which one of the following combinations of
clotting factors are affected by warfarin?
a. II, IX, X, Protein C
b. II, VII, IX, X
c. II, VII, IX, X, Protein C, Protein S
d. II, VII, X, Protein C
e. II, VII, X, XII

A

c. II, VII, IX, X, Protein C, Protein S

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3
Q

Which one of the following blood tests would you perform to monitor the effect of low molecular weight heparin?
a. Factor VII
b. Factor VIII
c. Factor Xa activity
d. Prothrombin time
e. Von Willebran Factor

A

c. Factor Xa activity

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4
Q

A 75-year-old patient presents with GCS E3V4M5 and due to ICH. INR is 5.0 on warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Assuming you have access to all of the following therapies, which one of the following is the most appropriate next treatment?
a. Fresh frozen plasma
b. Protamine
c. Prothrombin complex concentrate
d. Recombinant factor VIIa
e. Vitamin K

A

c—Prothrombin complex concentrate

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5
Q

A patient with a right extradural hematoma
fixes and dilates his right pupil on the way to
theater. The anesthetist administers 100 ml
of 20% mannitol and his pupil normalizes
after 2 min. Which one of the following best
explains the immediate effect of mannitol?
a. Autoregulatory vasoconstriction
b. Diuretic effect
c. Increased cerebral blood volume
d. Osmotic effect reducing interstitial
brain fluid
e. Local effect on pupillary constrictors

A

a—Autoregulatory vasoconstriction

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6
Q

Which one of the following best describes
the mechanism of dexamethasone action in
reducing cerebral edema?
a. Reduces cytotoxic edema through nitric
oxide inhibition
b. Reduces cytotoxic edema through VEGF
inhibition
c. Reduces vasogenic edema through VEGF
inhibition
d. Reduces vasogenic edema through upregulation of aquaporins
e. Reduces vasogenic edema through nitric
oxide signaling

A

c—Reduces vasogenic edema through
VEGF inhibition

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7
Q

A 75-year-old patient presents with GCS E3V4M5 and due to ICH. INR is 5.0 on war- farin for atrial fibrillation. Assuming you have access to all of the following therapies, which one of the following is the most appropriate next treatment?
a. Fresh frozen plasma
b. Protamine
c. Prothrombin complex concentrate
d. Recombinant factor VIIa
e. Vitamin K

A

c. Prothrombin complex concentrate

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8
Q

Propofol-related infusion syndrome is usually characterized by which one of the following?
a. Acute refractory bradycardia with metabolic alkalosis
b. Acute refractory bradycardia with metabolic acidosis
c. Acute refractory bradycardia with respiratory alkalosis
d. Acute refractory bradycardia with respiratory acidosis
e. Acute refractory bradycardia with normal
acid-base balance

A

b—Acute refractory bradycardia with metabolic acidosis

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9
Q

A patient with a right extradural hematoma fixes and dilates his right pupil on the way to theater. The anesthetist administers 100 ml of 20% mannitol and his pupil normalizes after 2 min. Which one of the following best explains the immediate effect of mannitol?
a. Autoregulatory vasoconstriction
b. Diuretic effect
c. Increased cerebral blood volume
d. Osmotic effect reducing interstitial
brain fluid
e. Local effect on pupillary constrictors

A

a. Autoregulatory vasoconstriction

Mannitol has hemodynamic, osmotic, and diuretic effects. Following a bolus of hyperosmolar manni- tol, body water is drawn (including from RBC) in to plasma causing expansion and reduction in blood viscosity (reduction in volume, rigidity, and cohesiveness of RBC). Altered blood rheology reduces cerebral vascular resistance, increases cerebral blood flow and CPP. Autoregulatory vasoconstriction then reduces CBV (to restore normal CPP) and reduces ICP. These immediate rheological effects may also explain why ICP reduction with mannitol occurs in situations where the BBB is not intact. The osmotic effect of mannitol in causing brain shrinkage by drawing water out requires an intact BBB (across which an osmotic gradient can be set up) and can take up to 30 min to develop. Adverse effects of mannitol include hypotension, renal failure (especially if serum osmolality >320) and rebound rise in ICP (penetration of osmotically active solutes into edematous brain reversing osmotic gradient).

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10
Q

Red man syndrome is seen with which one of
the following medications?
a. Levodopa
b. Procyclidine
c. Propofol
d. Rifampicin
e. Vancomycin

A

e—Vancomycin

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11
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the initial
    treatment for a dystonic reaction to
    levodopa?
    a. Adenosine
    b. Bromocriptine
    c. Cyclizine
    d. Procyclidine
    e. Topiramate
A

d—Procyclidine

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12
Q

Which one of the following best describes the mechanism of dexamethasone action in reducing cerebral edema?
a. Reduces cytotoxic edema through nitric oxide inhibition
b. Reduces cytotoxic edema through VEGF inhibition
c. Reduces vasogenic edema through VEGF inhibition
d. Reduces vasogenic edema through upre- gulation of aquaporins
e. Reduces vasogenic edema through nitric oxide signaling

A

c. Reduces vasogenic edema through VEGF inhibition

Tumor-related disruption in the blood-brain bar- rier resulting in vasogenic edema is caused by local factors increasing the permeability of vessels (VEGF, glutamate, leukotrienes) and absence of normal tight endothelial junctions in tumor
3. c—Factor Xa activity.
4. c—Prothrombin complex concentrate
5. a—Autoregulatory vasoconstriction
Mannitol has hemodynamic, osmotic, and diuretic effects. Following a bolus of hyperosmolar manni- tol, body water is drawn (including from RBC) in to plasma causing expansion and reduction in
124 PART I BASIC SCIENCE
vessels as they grow in response to VEGF and bFGF. In large part, VEGF is responsible for the loss of integrity of the blood-brain barrier in brain tumors. Gliomas, meningiomas, and metastatic tumors all have upregulation of VEGF. VEGF is secreted by tumor cells as well as host stromal cells and binds to its receptors VEGFR1 and VEGFR2, which are located pri- marily on the surface of endothelial cells. VEGF stimulates the formation of gaps in the endothe- lium, a process that leads to fluid leakage into the brain parenchyma, thereby resulting in vasogenic edema. Most patients with brain tumors and peri- tumoral edema can be adequately managed with glucocorticoids. Reduction of intracranial pres- sure and improvement in neurologic symptoms usually begins within hours. A decrease in capil- lary permeability (i.e. improvement in blood- brain barrier function) can be identified within 6 h and changes of diffusion-weighted MRI indi- cating decreased edema are identifiable within 48-72 h. However, adequate reduction in ele- vated ICP resulting from peritumoral edema may take several days with glucocorticoid therapy alone. Dexamethasone is the standard agent, because its relative lack of mineralocorticoid activity reduces the potential for fluid retention. In addition, dexamethasone may be associated with a lower risk of infection and cognitive impairment compared to other glucocorticoids. The mechanism of action of glucocorticoids for control of vasogenic edema is not fully understood. Dexamethasone has recently been shown to upre- gulate Ang-1, a strong BBB-stabilizing factor, whereas it downregulates VEGF, a strong permea- bilizing factor, in astrocytes and pericytes. Gluco- corticoids may also increase the clearance of peritumoral edema by facilitating the transport of fluid into the ventricular system, from which it is cleared by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) bulk flow.

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13
Q

Which one of the following would you monitor during infusion of an intravenous loading dose of phenytoin?
a. Capillary blood glucose
b. Cardiac monitoring
c. Nystagmus
d. Peak flow rate
e. Urine output

A

b—Cardiac monitoring

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14
Q

Anticonvulsants:
a. Acetazolamide
b. Carbamazepine
c. Ethosuxamide
d. Gabapentin
e. Lacosamide
f. Lamotrigine
g. Levetiracetam
h. Perampanel
i. Phenytoin
j. Pregabalin
k. Sodium Valproate
l. Topiramate
m. Vigabatrin
n. Zonisamide

For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Risk of thrombocytopenia and increased
warfarin effect
2. Affect T-type calcium current and used in
absence seizures
3. Associated with weight loss

A

1—k, Valproate;
2—c, Ethosuxamide;
3—l, Topiramate

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15
Q
  1. Chemotherapy:
    a. Bevacizumab
    b. Carmustine (BNCU)
    c. Cisplatin
    d. Erlotinib
    e. Everolimus
    f. Lomustine (CCNI)
    g. Methotrexate
    h. Procarbazine
    i. Tamoxifen
    j. Temozolomide
    k. Vincristine

For each of the descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Microtubule inhibitor
2. VEGF inhibitor
3. SEGA treatment
4. Chemotherapy wafer for GBM

A

1—k, Vincristine;
2—a, Bevacizumab;
3—e, Everolimus;
4—b, Carmustine

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16
Q

Bleeding:
a. Abciximab/epitifibatide/tirofiban
b. Aspirin
c. Clopidogrel/prasugrel
d. Dalteparin
e. Desmopressin
f. Dipyridamole
g. Enoxaparin
h. Fondaparinux
i. Protamine
j. Rivaroxiban
k. Tranexamic acid
l. Warfarin

For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. ADP receptor antagonist
2. Glycoprotein IIa/IIIb antagonist
3. Used preoperatively in factor VIII
dysfunction
4. Irreversible cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor
5. Adenosine reuptake inhibitor

A

1—c, Clopidogrel; 2—a, Abciximab; 3—e,
Desmopressin; 4—b, Aspirin; 5—f,
Dipyridamole

17
Q

Anticoagulants:
a. Antithrombin protein
b. Batroxobin
c. Citrate
d. Dabigatran
e. EDTA
f. Fondaparinux
g. Hirudin
h. Low molecular weight heparin
i. Rivaroxiban
j. Unfractionated heparin
k. Warfarin

For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Synthetic pentasaccharide factor Xa inhibitor
2. Direct inhibitor of factor Xa
3. Direct thrombin inhibitor

A

1—f, Fondaparinux; 2—i, Rivaroxiban; 3—d,
Dabigatran

18
Q

Anesthetic drugs:
a. Atracurium
b. Clonidine
c. Desmopressin
d. Dobutamine
e. Fludrocortisone
f. Glycopyronium
g. Ketamine
h. Labetalol
i. Mannitol
j. Midazolam
k. Noradrenaline
l. Propofol
m. Remifentanil
n. Thiopentone
o. Vasopressin

For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Associated with Ondine’s curse
2. Associated with a low serum potassium
despite normal total body potassium when
chronic infusion used
3. Associated with raised intracranial pressure

A

1—m, Remifentanil; 2—n, Thiopentone;
3—g, Ketamine

19
Q

Reversal of clotting abnormalities:
a. Desmopressin
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VIII
d. Fresh frozen plasma
e. Platelets
f. Protamine
g. Prothrombin complex concentrate
h. Recombinant factor VIIa
i. Tranexamic acid
j. Tranexamic acid
k. Vitamin K

For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Preoperatively in patients with mild
hemophilia A
2. Major hemorrhage in warfarinized patient

A

1—a, Desmopressin; 2—g, Prothrombin
complex concentrate

20
Q

Risk of thrombocytopenia and increased warfarin effect
a. Acetazolamide
b. Carbamazepine c. Ethosuxamide d. Gabapentin
e. Lacosamide
f. Lamotrigine g. Levetiracetam h. Perampanel
i. Phenytoin
j. Pregabalin
k. Sodium Valproate
l. Topiramate m. Vigabatrin
n. Zonisamide

A

k. Sodium Valproate

21
Q

Affect T-type calcium current and used in absence seizures
a. Acetazolamide
b. Carbamazepine
c. Ethosuxamide
d. Gabapentin
e. Lacosamide
f. Lamotrigine
g. Levetiracetam
h. Perampanel
i. Phenytoin
j. Pregabalin
k. Sodium Valproate
l. Topiramate m. Vigabatrin
n. Zonisamide

A

c. Ethosuxamide

22
Q

Associated with weight loss
a. Acetazolamide
b. Carbamazepine
c. Ethosuxamide
d. Gabapentin
e. Lacosamide
f. Lamotrigine
g. Levetiracetam
h. Perampanel
i. Phenytoin
j. Pregabalin
k. Sodium Valproate
l. Topiramate
m. Vigabatrin
n. Zonisamide

A

l. Topiramate

23
Q

Microtubule inhibitor
a. Bevacizumab
b. Carmustine (BNCU)
c. Cisplatin
d. Erlotinib
e. Everolimus
f. Lomustine (CCNI)
g. Methotrexate
h. Procarbazine
i. Tamoxifen
j. Temozolomide
k. Vincristine

A

k. Vincristine

24
Q

VEGF inhibitor
a. Bevacizumab
b. Carmustine (BNCU)
c. Cisplatin
d. Erlotinib
e. Everolimus
f. Lomustine (CCNI)
g. Methotrexate
h. Procarbazine
i. Tamoxifen
j. Temozolomide
k. Vincristine

A

a. Bevacizumab

25
Q

SEGA treatment
a. Bevacizumab
b. Carmustine (BNCU)
c. Cisplatin
d. Erlotinib
e. Everolimus
f. Lomustine (CCNI)
g. Methotrexate
h. Procarbazine
i. Tamoxifen
j. Temozolomide
k. Vincristine

A

e. Everolimus

26
Q

Chemotherapy wafer for GBM
a. Bevacizumab
b. Carmustine (BNCU)
c. Cisplatin
d. Erlotinib
e. Everolimus
f. Lomustine (CCNI)
g. Methotrexate
h. Procarbazine
i. Tamoxifen
j. Temozolomide
k. Vincristine

A

b. Carmustine (BNCU)

27
Q

ADP receptor antagonist
Bleeding:
a. Abciximab/epitifibatide/tirofiban
b. Aspirin
c. Clopidogrel/prasugrel
d. Dalteparin
e. Desmopressin
f. Dipyridamole
g. Enoxaparin
h. Fondaparinux
i. Protamine
j. Rivaroxiban
k. Tranexamic acid
l. Warfarin

A

c. Clopidogrel/prasugrel

28
Q

Glycoprotein IIa/IIIb antagonist
Bleeding:
a. Abciximab/epitifibatide/tirofiban
b. Aspirin
c. Clopidogrel/prasugrel
d. Dalteparin
e. Desmopressin
f. Dipyridamole
g. Enoxaparin
h. Fondaparinux
i. Protamine
j. Rivaroxiban
k. Tranexamic acid
l. Warfarin

A

a. Abciximab/epitifibatide/tirofiban

29
Q

Used preoperatively in factor VIII
dysfunction
Bleeding:
a. Abciximab/epitifibatide/tirofiban
b. Aspirin
c. Clopidogrel/prasugrel
d. Dalteparin
e. Desmopressin
f. Dipyridamole
g. Enoxaparin
h. Fondaparinux
i. Protamine
j. Rivaroxiban
k. Tranexamic acid
l. Warfarin

A

e. Desmopressin

30
Q

Irreversible cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor
Bleeding:
a. Abciximab/epitifibatide/tirofiban
b. Aspirin
c. Clopidogrel/prasugrel
d. Dalteparin
e. Desmopressin
f. Dipyridamole
g. Enoxaparin
h. Fondaparinux
i. Protamine
j. Rivaroxiban
k. Tranexamic acid
l. Warfarin

A

b. Aspirin

31
Q

Adenosine reuptake inhibitor
Bleeding:
a. Abciximab/epitifibatide/tirofiban
b. Aspirin
c. Clopidogrel/prasugrel
d. Dalteparin
e. Desmopressin
f. Dipyridamole
g. Enoxaparin
h. Fondaparinux
i. Protamine
j. Rivaroxiban
k. Tranexamic acid
l. Warfarin

A

f. Dipyridamole

32
Q

Synthetic pentasaccharide factor Xa inhibitor
Anticoagulants:
a. Antithrombin protein
b. Batroxobin
c. Citrate
d. Dabigatran
e. EDTA
f. Fondaparinux
g. Hirudin
h. Low molecular weight heparin
i. Rivaroxiban
j. Unfractionated heparin
k. Warfarin

A

f. Fondaparinux

33
Q

Direct inhibitor of factor Xa
Anticoagulants:
a. Antithrombin protein
b. Batroxobin
c. Citrate
d. Dabigatran
e. EDTA
f. Fondaparinux
g. Hirudin
h. Low molecular weight heparin
i. Rivaroxiban
j. Unfractionated heparin
k. Warfarin

A

i. Rivaroxiban

34
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitor
Anticoagulants:
a. Antithrombin protein
b. Batroxobin
c. Citrate
d. Dabigatran
e. EDTA
f. Fondaparinux
g. Hirudin
h. Low molecular weight heparin
i. Rivaroxiban
j. Unfractionated heparin
k. Warfarin

A

d. Dabigatran

35
Q

Associated with Ondine’s curse
Anesthetic drugs:
a. Atracurium
b. Clonidine
c. Desmopressin
d. Dobutamine
e. Fludrocortisone
f. Glycopyronium
g. Ketamine
h. Labetalol
i. Mannitol
j. Midazolam
k. Noradrenaline
l. Propofol
m. Remifentanil
n. Thiopentone
o. Vasopressin

A

m. Remifentanil

36
Q

Associated with a low serum potassium despite normal total body potassium when chronic infusion used
Anesthetic drugs:
a. Atracurium
b. Clonidine
c. Desmopressin
d. Dobutamine
e. Fludrocortisone
f. Glycopyronium
g. Ketamine
h. Labetalol
i. Mannitol
j. Midazolam
k. Noradrenaline
l. Propofol
m. Remifentanil
n. Thiopentone
o. Vasopressin

A

n. Thiopentone

37
Q

Associated with raised intracranial pressure
Anesthetic drugs:
a. Atracurium
b. Clonidine
c. Desmopressin
d. Dobutamine
e. Fludrocortisone
f. Glycopyronium
g. Ketamine
h. Labetalol
i. Mannitol
j. Midazolam
k. Noradrenaline
l. Propofol
m. Remifentanil
n. Thiopentone
o. Vasopressin

A

g. Ketamine

38
Q

Preoperatively in patients with mild hemophilia A
Reversal of clotting abnormalities:
a. Desmopressin
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VIII
d. Fresh frozen plasma
e. Platelets
f. Protamine
g. Prothrombin complex concentrate h. Recombinant factor VIIa
i. Tranexamic acid
j. Tranexamic acid
k. Vitamin K

A

a. Desmopressin

39
Q

Major hemorrhage in warfarinized patient
Reversal of clotting abnormalities:
a. Desmopressin
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VIII
d. Fresh frozen plasma
e. Platelets
f. Protamine
g. Prothrombin complex concentrate
h. Recombinant factor VIIa
i. Tranexamic acid
j. Tranexamic acid
k. Vitamin K

A

g. Prothrombin complex concentrate

NS Self Ass. by D (amerikai test book) (45 decks)

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