PHARMACOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

During his last few months of life the patient was prescribed morphine. Describe how morphine works

A
  • Morphine attaches to opioid receptors (Mu receptors)
  • Morphine reduces membrane excitability and hence action potential firing frequency
  • Opioids act on the dorsal horn as well as the peripheral terminals of nociceptive afferents neurons
  • Thus preventing pain signals travelling up the spinal column
  • Morphine also increases release of enkephalins and 5-HT (serotonin) onto dorsal horn neurons via stimulation of the periaqueductal grey matter (PAG) and the raphe nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe how paracetamol helps to reduce fever

A
  • Paracetamol is a COX enzyme inhibitor
  • It is thought to be selective for COX-3
  • COX enzymes stimulate the production of prostaglandins
  • In fever, the temperature set point is elevated by the production of PGE2
  • Bacteria/viruses act on the immune system and stimulate production of cytokines (IL-1. TNF-alpha) which stimulates PGE2 synthesis
  • Paracetamol helps to prevent PGE2 synthesis which is the main compound that alters the homeostatic temperature set point in the hypothalamic neurons that regulate body temperature
  • By blocking PGE2 synthesis, paracetamol brings down the temperature set point to normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where are glucocorticoids secreted from?

A
  • from the cortex within adrenal glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 3 main types of opioid receptors and their functions?

A
  • Mu (for morphine): analgesia, euphoria (but also constipation, respiratory depression)
  • Kappa (for ketcyclazocine): analgesic at periphery (but also dysphoria, hallucinations)
  • Delta for vas Deferens: analgesic effects at spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the effects and side effects of morphine?

A

EFFECTS:
- analgesia, euphoria, sedation, pupil constriction

SIDE EFFECTS:
- nausea and vomiting (chemoreceptor trigger zone in medulla)
- constipation (from reduced motility and muscle tightening)

  • respiratory depression (inhibits respiratory centres in brainstem)
  • suppressed cough reflex
  • tolerance with recurrent use: desensitisation of Mu receptors, dose has to be increased
  • dependence: physical (restless, aggression, runny nose, shivering) and psychological (cravings may persist for months and years)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where are opioids metabolised and excreted?

A
  • metabolised in liver
  • excreted in urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are some considerations to take into account when prescribing morphine?

A
  • most morphine derivatives have a short half-life so have to be given several times a day
  • IV/IM morphine: choose lower dose as compared to oral
  • synthetic opioid patches go on releasing the drug for days and days so check and remove if toxicity is suspected, or if change in drug/dose is needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what should you do if patient has toxicity to opioids?

A
  • Naloxone is most important drug (opioid receptor antagonist)
  • reverses opioid actions on mu receptor
  • given IV/sc in acute opioid toxicity (eg. drowsy patient with small pupils and poor respiration)
  • however, can trigger acute physical withdrawal (patient can become aggressive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what pathways do NSAIDs and aspirin block?

A
  • cyclooxygenase (COX enzymes)
  • COX 1, COX 2, COX 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what pathways do corticosteroids block?

A
  • they block the conversion of phospholipids to arachidonic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why can NSAIDs cause GI problems?

A
  • NSAIDs block COX enzymes
  • one of the multiple things produced from COX enzymes are prostaglandins
  • prostaglandins provide GI mucosal protection which prevents acid from dissolving your stomach
  • NSAIDs also directly erode the gastric lining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why do NSAIDs have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic effects?

A
  • Anti-inflammatory: decreases lvls of prostaglandin E2 and prostacyclin
  • Analgesic: decreases lvls of prostaglandins which makes nerves less sensitive to inflammatory mediators (eg. bradykinin)
  • Anti-pyretic: decreases lvls of IL-1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what drugs can be given to reduce the risk of GI problems?

A
  • Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) or H2 antagonist: to reduce gastric acid
  • Misoprostol: prostaglandin analogue that increases gastric mucus to protect stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what pathway does methotrexate target?

A
  • folate pathway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what drug should be taken with methotrexate, when should you not give methotrexate, and what drug should you not give methotrexate with?

A
  • folic acid should be given (on another day) to reduce toxicity
  • avoid if patient has liver problems
  • do not give methotrexate and trimethoprim together
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how much and when should methotrexate be prescribed, and folic acid?

A
  • methotrexate 7.5mg once a week (oral or subcutaneous injection)
  • folic acid 5mg once a week (on a different day to methotrexate)
  • do FBC, renal, and liver function tests regularly
17
Q

what are the main anti-TNF biologics?

A
  • Infliximab
  • Entanercept
  • Adalimumab
18
Q

when should anti-TNF biologics be prescribed according to NICE guidance?

A
  • patient has active RA disease activity
  • tried at least 2 DMARDs (including methotrexate) for >6 months
  • anti-TNFs should usually be used together with methotrexate
  • problem with anti-TNFs: expensive, have to be given by injection or infusion
19
Q

what should be prescribed if anti-TNF biologics do not work?

A
  • Rituximab: targets CD20
  • Tocilizumab: targets IL-6
20
Q

which corticosteroids are given in what forms?

A
  • local injection: triamcinolone, methylprednisolone
  • oral tablets: prednisolone (eg. 30mg daily for 2 weeks in acute flares)
  • IV: hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone (eg. 1g a day for 3 days)
21
Q

what are the side effects of too much steroids/overdose (Cushing’s disease)

A
  • osteoporosis
  • obesity
  • hypertension
  • hyperglycaemia
  • myopathy
22
Q

what are the side effects of too little steroids/withdrawal (Addison’s disease)?

A
  • nausea
  • headache
  • joint pain
  • fever
  • hypogylcaemia
  • hypotension
23
Q

what drugs are prescribed for acute gout flare-ups?

A
  • NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen)
  • colchicine
  • corticosteroid (local injection or oral)
24
Q

what drugs are prescribed for chronic gout (prevention)?

A
  • allopurinol
  • (or febuxostat)
25
Q

what drugs are prescribed for osteoporosis?

A
  • bisphosphonates
  • denosumab
26
Q

what is the mechanism by which colchicine works?

A
  • inhibtis granulocyte migration
  • this causes depolarisation of microtubules
  • this causes inhibtion of lymphocyte migration and division
  • results in decrease in inflammation
27
Q

what are the side effects of colchicine?

A
  • nausea and diarrhoea very common
  • bone marrow suppression and renal failuer over longer term
28
Q

when should corticosteroids be given in gout?

A
  • local injection should be given if only single joint affected
  • (this is better than patient taking naproxen for eg. for 2 weeks)
28
Q

when should corticosteroids be given in gout?

A
  • local injection should be given if only single joint affected
  • (this is better than patient taking naproxen for eg. for 2 weeks)
29
Q

what is the mechanism of action for allupurinol?

A
  • Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
  • reduces uric acid production
  • less likely for urate crystals to form in joints
30
Q

what is the mechanism by which bisphosphonates work?

A
  • pyrophopshate analogue
  • attach to bone crystals and inhibit osteoclast breakdown of bone
31
Q

what is the main side effect of bisphosphonates?

A
  • GI problems
32
Q

how does Denosumab work?

A
  • monoclonal antibody: RANK ligand inhibitor
  • reduces osteoclast activation, differentiation, and survival
  • used if patients cannot have bisphosphonates, 1 injection every 6 months
33
Q

What enzyme is required to generate arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids and what drug class can stop this reaction?

A

Phospholipase A2 and steroids

34
Q

What enzymes are required to generate Prostaglandins from Arachidonic acid and name 2 drugs which can block these enzymes?

A
  • Cyclooxygenase 1+2 (COX 1+2)
  • Aspirin/Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs