Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors for PONV

A

Patient:

  • Female
  • non smoker
  • h/o motion sickness

Anaesthesia:

  • inhaled anaesthetic
  • N2O
  • intra and postop opioids

Surgery:

  • duration > 30 min increases risk to 60%
  • types (celioscopy, ENT, Neuro, breast, strabismus, laparotomy/laproscopic, plastic surgery
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2
Q

Risk scores for predicting PONV

A

Modified Apfel score
( 1 point for - female, non-smoker, Hx of PONV/motion sickness, post op opiates)
0 = 10%, 1=40%, 3=60%, 4=80%

POVOC score (paeds)
1 point for - duration >30 mins, age >3, strabismus, Hx PONV
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3
Q

Classes of antiemetics

A
Phenothiazines (Prochlorperazine)
Butyrophenones (Droperidol)
Benzamides (Metoclopramide)
Anticholinergic (hyoscine)
Antihistamine (cyclizine)
5-HT3 receptor antagonists (ondansetron)
Miscellaneous (Dex, aprepitant)
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4
Q

Phenothiazines (example, MoA, SEs)

A
  • Neuroleptics
  • eg chlopromazide, prochlorperazine
  • MoA antagonise dopamine D2, muscarinic and histamine H1 receptors in CTz
  • SE extrapyrimidal (acute dystonias), neuroleptic malignant syndrome (rare)
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5
Q

Butyrophenones (example, MoA, SEs)

A

Butyrophenones (example, MoA, SEs)
Derivates are neuroleptics and antiemetics

  • eg Droperidol
  • MoA: dopamine D2 receptor antagonist at CTZ
  • SE: extrapyrimidal and sedation

Domperidone - peripheral D2 receptor antagonist - doesn’t cross BBB therefore safe in parkinsons disease - SEs hyperprolactinaemia

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6
Q

Benzamides (example, MoA, SEs)

A

antiemetic and prokinetic

eg metoclopramide

Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist at CTZ and peripheral D2 receptor antagonist in stomach

Poor efficacy - equivocal with placebo (NNT ~ 10 and NN to do harm ~ 10)

SEs Extrapyrimidal, more common in young females, NMS (rare)

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7
Q

Anticholinergic antiemetics (example, MOA, SEs)

A

Eg Hyoscine

Centrally acting muscarinic

Transdermal patch

SE: anticholinergic .. dry mouth, tachy, blurred vision

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8
Q

Antihistamine antiemetics (example, MoA, SEs)

A

Cyclizine

H1 receptor antagonist in CTZ and some anticholinergic properties

SE mild anticholinergic SEs

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9
Q

5-HT3 receptor antagonists

A

Ondansetron

central and peripheral 5-HT3 antagonism

SE: headache, flushing, constipation, bradycardia (prolongs QT)

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10
Q

Miscellaneous antiemetics

A

Dexamethasone - unknown MoA, SEs sleep disturbance, raised BM

Aprepitant - Neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist (found in the GI tract), SEs - expensive (used in chemo)

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11
Q

Propofol (physical, Pk, Pd)

A

Propofol is 2,6-disioprophylphenol. It is commonly used throughout anaesthesia and critical care for induction and maintenance of anaesthesia and procedural sedation.

Physical:
It is a white lipid emulsion of soy bean oil and egg phosphatide. It is stable at room temperature and stored in glass vials of 200mg and 500mg.
For induction of anaesthesia dose of 2-3mg/kg for adults and 3-7mg/kg for children

Pk:
It is administered intravenously either as a bolus or continuous infusion.
It is highly lipid soluble and has a large volume of distribution
It is extensively protein bound
It is metabolised in the liver into glucuronide - an inactive metabolite and excreted renally - limited dose adjustment is required in liver/renal failure
It has a context sensitive half life between 30 min and 4 hours (?)

Pd:
CVS: Reduction in cardiac output via decreased HR and reduction in contractility. Decreased SVR causes further decrease in BP

RESP: bronchodilation. Decrease TV but increase in RR (?) - overall increase in PaCO2

CNS - anaesthesia, analgesic, myoclonic movements, decreased IOP/ICP/CMRO/CBF

GIT - antiemetic properties

Paediatrics - PIS - avoided for prolonged infusion in children due to accumulation of triglycerides …

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12
Q

Ketamine (physical, Pk, Pd)

A

Ketamine is a phencyclidine derivative. It is an NMDA antagonist used for sedation, induction of anaesthesia and analgesia. Also has weak agonist at MOP/KOP/DOP receptors plus inhibits re-uptake of serotonin, dopamine and noradrenaline

Physical:
It is a clear colourless liquid at room temperature, stored in glass vials of 10/50/100mg/ml
It is a racemic mixture s-ketamine is the more potent isomer.

Chemical:
Avaliable as racemic and single enantiomer preparations
Weak acid. water soluble solutions - pH 3.5-5.5

Pk
It can be administered IV/IM/PO/PR/intrathecal
Induction dose 1-2mg/kg IV and 5-10mg/kg IM
distribution - bioavaliability 20%, protein binding 20-50%, Vd 3l/kg, T1/2 2.5 hours

Metabolism - liver to norketamine an 30% as potent
Norketamine conjugated to inactive compound
excreted in the urine

Pd
CVS - sympatheticomemetic, increased HR/CO/BP/Cardiac O2 consumption

RESP - bronchodilation, increased RR, no laryngeal suppression

CNS - analgesia, dissociative anaesthesia, hallucinations/amnesia/emergence phenomenon, increased CBF/ICP/CMRO

GIT - nausea/vomiting, salivation

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13
Q

thiopentone (physical, Pk, Pd)

A

Thiopentone is a thiobarbituate used for induction of anaesthesia and a classical RSI

Physical:
Stored as an anhydrous yellow powder in nitrogen enviroment in glass vial with rubber lid. Reconstituted in water to create a solution with pH 10.8

Chemical:
Weak acid - pKa 7.6 - 60% ionised at 7.4
tauterisomerism - proportions of two forms depends on ambient pH

Pk
Administered IV at dose 3-7mg/kg for induction
Distribution - 80% protein bound, Vd 2l/kg
high lipid solubility with rapid emergence due to distribution
metabolism - liver via P450 - largely inactive except phenobarbitone. (P450 inducer). Exhibits zero-order kinetics with infusions

Pd
CVS - slight increase HR otherwise decrease in CO/SV/SVR

RESP - depression/bronchospasm/laryngospasm

CNS - hypnotic/ decreased CMRO/CBF/CSF

Other: severe anaphylaxis/precipitates porphyria

INTRA-ARTERIAL injection -> severe pain and vasospasm due to crystals forming and occluding peripheral arterioles

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14
Q

Etomidate (physical, Pk, Pd)

A

Etomidate is rarely used today for induction of anaesthesia. It is an imidazole hypnotic. It increases the duration of opening of GABA channels

Physical:
clear colourless solution avaliable in 2mg/ml in 10ml vial

Pk
IV administration 0.3mg/kg
75% protein bound
rapid distribution
Vd 3 l/kg
Metabolised by hepatic esterases and plasma esterases and excreted in urine (90%) and bile (10%)

Pd
CVS - most stable. slight decrease SVR. Myocardial O2 requirement stable. CO and BP stable

RESP - depression

CNS - hypnosis, tremor, involuntary movements, EPILEPTIFORM ACTIVITY 25%, decreased ICP/CPP/CMRO/IOP

GI -nausea and vomiting

Other:

  • pain on injection
  • contraindicated in porphyria
  • hypersensitivity and histamine release

STEROID AXIS INHIBITION
- inhibits 11 beta and 17 alpha hydroxylase for 24 hours post dose

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15
Q

Management of intra-arterial injection of thiopentone

A

Aims: “dilute, dilate, analgesia, prevent thrombosis”
Stop injecting
flush with normal saline
IV PAPAVERINE (40-80mg)
IV lidocaine
IV heparin
Consider sympathetic blockage of upper limb

Continue anticoagulation for 10-14 days
Consult vascular surgery

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16
Q

How is nitrous oxide produced?

A

Ammonium nitrate is heated to 250 degrees

It decomposes into water and nitrous oxide

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17
Q

How is nitrous oxide stored?

A

French blue cylinders as a liquid below its critical temperature (36.5 degrees)

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18
Q

Pharmacodynamic effects of nitrous oxide

A

CVS

  • reduces contractility but increases sympathetic outflow so BP unchanged
  • increased pulmonary vascular resistance

RESP

  • Decreased TV but increased RR - MV maintained
  • blunt ventilatory response to hypoxia and hypercapnea

CNS
- Increases CBF, CMRO, ICP (effects more pronounced in patients who have lost autoregulatory ability - ie those with head injuries)

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19
Q

What are the physiochemical properties of nitrous oxide

A

Boiling point -88 degrees

Critical temperature 36.5 degrees

Blood/gas partition co-efficient 0.47

Oil/gas partition co-efficient 1.4

MAC 105% (only under hyperbaric conditions can it induce anaesthesia)

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20
Q

What are the adverse effects of nitrous oxide?

A

Nausea and vomiting

Expansion of N2O into cavities - it is more soluble than nitrogen so it diffuses into air filled cavities more quickly that nitrogen already in the cavity can diffuse into blood. Therefore CI for patient with pneumothorax or middle ear

It oxidises the cobalt ion in vitamin B12 and impairs its ability to act as a co-factor for methionine synthase - leads to bone marrow suppression, megaloblastic anaemia and subacute degeneration of spinal cord

Teratogenicity in rats

Green house gas

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21
Q

Define a partition co-efficient

A

A partition co-efficient is the ratio of the amount of substance in one phase to the amount in another at a stated temperature when the two phases are in equilibrium and of equal volumes and pressures

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22
Q

What is the blood:gas partition co-efficient?

A

The B:G coefficient is a measure of the solubility of a substance in blood and influences onset/offset times.

Onset time depends upon the PARTIAL PRESSURE in blood and not the total amount.

For agents that rapidly dissolve into the blood the alveolar pressure and partial pressure remain low. More molecules are required to saturate the blood and it takes a long time for equilibrium (FA/FI = 1)

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23
Q

Morphine (Physical, chemical, Pk, Pd)

A

Morphine is a naturally occurring phenanthrene derivative

It is used extensively for analgesia, sedation on ITU, palliative care and in heart failure

It acts directly on MOP & KOP G-protein receptors causing:

  • closure of voltage gated Ca channels
  • stimulation of K efflux
  • decreased cAMP production
  • All of which decrease neuronal excitability and reduced the likelihood of neurotransmitter release

It can be administered in many ways - IV/IM/SC/PO/intrathecal/epidural

Pk:
It is a weak acid with pKa of 8.0
It is well absorbed in the alkaline small bowel but undergoes extensive 1st pass metabolism so has a BIOAVALIABILITY of 15-20%
It is lipid soluble with a Vd 3-4L/kg and protein binding 20-40%
Peak effect 10-30 mins and duration 3-4 hours

Pd
CVS - no direct effect but can decrease SVR via histamine release and cause bradycardia by decreasing SNS

RR - dose dependent respiratory depressant (RR>TV), antitussive and decrease sensitivity to pCO2.
- bronchospasm if histamine release occurs

CNS - analgesia, sedation, euphoria, hallucinations, meiosis, (muscle rigidity and seizures at high doses)

GIT - nausea/vomiting, delayed gastric emptying, decreased gastric acid and bile secretion

GU - increased uterine tone

DERM - purititis/rash

ENDO - decreased ACTH and gonadotropic hormones. Increased ADH

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24
Q

What is dependence and addiction?

A

Dependence describes the need to repeatedly administer the drug to avoid withdrawal symptoms

Addiction describes the behaviour of a person resulting from their dependence - crave/need, have no control over their drugs use, use it compulsively and continue to use despite harm it causes

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25
Q

Fentanyl (Physical, chemical, Pk, Pd)

A

Fentanyl is a synthetic phenylpiperidine derivative

It is used extensively in anaesthesia and critical care for analgesia and sedation

It is a potent MOP agonist

It can be administered IV/PO/patches/intrathecally

Chemical: it is a weak base with pKa 8.4 so is largely ionised in the stomach.

Pk
Absorbed from the small bowel and has an oral bioavaliability of 33%
It is 80-95% protein bound and has a Vd 1-4 L/kg
It is very lipid soluble - 600x more than morphine so is rapidly distributed and therefore has a short duration of action
It is metabolised into norfentanyl which is inactive and excreted in the urine

Pd 
Similar to morphine but is more potent 
Causes less histamine release 
Associate with Bradycardia 
Chest wall rigidity at high doses
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26
Q

MOP receptors (location, action)

A

Brain especially periaqueductal grey and substantia gelatinosa of spinal cord

Mue 1 - analgesia and physical dependence
Mue 2 - respiratory depression, reduced peristalsis, euphoria, meiosis

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27
Q

DOP receptor (location and action)

A

Brian

Analgesia, antidepressant, physical dependence

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28
Q

KOP receptors (location, action)

A

Brain and spinal cord

Spinal analgesia
Sedation
Meiosis

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29
Q

NOP receptors (location and action)

A

Brain and spinal cord

Anxiety, depression, affects memory, involved in tolerance, natural ligand may set body’s natural pain threshold

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30
Q

What is tolerance?

A

Tolerance describes the scenario that despite maintaining constant plasma concentrations of a drug more is required to exert the same effect

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31
Q

Diamorphine (Physical, chemical, Pk, Pd)

A

Diamorphine is a diacetylated morphine derivative and is a prodrug

It is used for analgesia, sedation, palliative care, CCF and as a drug of abuse

Its metabolites act at MOP & KOP receptors

Pk
Administered IV/SC/PO/intrathecally
Well absorbed but undergoes extensive 1st pass metabolism so has a low oral bioavaliability
Protein bound 40%
Half life 3 mins
Metabolised by plasma enzymes and RBCs (probably esterases) to 6-O-acetylmorphine
6-O-acetylmorphine glucurronidated to morphine
50-60% excreted in urine as morphine derivative

Pd
As for morphine
Less nausea/vomiting/constipation

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32
Q

Alfentanil (Physical, chemical, Pk, Pd)

A

Alfentanil is a synthetic phenylpiperidine derivative

It is short acting opioid used for analgesia, obtunding hypertensive response to airway manipulation and sedation

It is highly MOP receptor specific

It is only administered IV at dose of 5-25 microgram/kg

Pk
It’s notable feature is a pKa of 6.5 so 87% of it is UNIONISED at pH 7.4
This more of it is around to exert its effect and despite being less lipid soluble than fentanyl it has a more rapid onset time
85-92% protein bound
Vd 0.6 L/kg - this is low for opioids and means that despite of its low clearance its half life is shorter
It is metabolised in the liver to noralfetanil and excreted in the urine

Pd
As for morphine but more potent
Causes a vagary mediated bradycardia

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33
Q

Remifentanil (physical, Pk, Pd)

A

Remifentanil is a pure MOP agonist. It is used for intra-operative analgesia and sedation

Pk
It is only administered IV and has a half life of 2 hours
But its effects last only 10 minutes after end of infusion - its metabolism whereby it undergoes rapid ester hydrolysis by non-specific esterases to carboxylic acid derivatives - means that it has a context-INSENSITIVE half-life
It is excreted in the urine

Pd
As more morphine but more potent
Bradycardia
Rigid chest at high dose

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34
Q

How are local anaesthetics classified?

A

There are 2 types of local anaesthetic

  1. AMIDES - eg lidocaine
  2. ESTERS - eg (CAPE) - cocaine, amethocaine, procaine = esters
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35
Q

How do local anaesthetics work?

A

The are intracellular sodium channel blockers and therefore prevent propagation of action potentials along a neurone

Unionised drug is lipid soluble so it can cross the neuronal cell membrane. The axoplasm has a pH of 7.1 so more of the drug becomes ionised and its this portion that “block” sodium channels from the inside. It binds to receptors that are either open or inactivated so its more likely to affect nerves that have a rapid firing rate. This is called “state dependent blockade”

The membrane expansion theory postulates that in-ionised local anaesthetic dissolves in the neuronal membrane causing swelling and subsequent physical inactivation of the neuronal sodium channels

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36
Q

What determines local anaesthetic potency?

A

Lipid solubility

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37
Q

What determines local anaesthetic duration of action?

A

Protein binding

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38
Q

What factors affect local anaesthetic speed of onset?

A

This is primarily effected by pH and pKa and subsequent degree of ionisation

Local anaesthetics with a pKa closer to body pH (7.4) will have a higher proportion of unionised drug which can cross the neuronal cell membrane and exert an effect.

This explains why local anaesthetics work poorly in infected tissue which has a lower pH and therefore the unionised portion is decreased further

Bicarbonate is occasionally added to artificially increased the pH and increased the unionised portion

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39
Q

Detail the differences in systemic absorption of local anaesthetic for different locations

A

Intercostal space>Caudal>epidural>brachial plexus>femoral>subcutaneous

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40
Q

Tell me about lidocaine

A

Amide local anaesthetic
PKa 7.9 so has fast onset
70% protein bound so medium duration of action
3mg/kg alone or 7mg/kg with adrenaline

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41
Q

Tell me about bupivicaine

A
Amide local anaesthetic 
Racemic mixture of R and S enantiomers 
95% protein bound so has a long duration of action 
Max dose 2mg/kg 
Cardiotoxic at high doses
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42
Q

Tell me about levobupivicaine

A
An amide local anaesthetic 
PKa 8.1
Just the s-enantiomer of bupivicaine 
Again 95% protein bound 
Less cardiotoxic that bupivicaine 
2mg/kg max dose
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43
Q

Tell me about ropivacaine

A

Amide local anaesthetic
94% protein bound so long duration of action
PKa 8.1
More selective sensory neuronal blockage and less motor
Less cardiotoxic than bupivicaine
Max dose 3.5mg/kg

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44
Q

Tell me about prilocaine

A

Amide local anaesthetic
pKa 7.9 so fast onset
56% protein bound so medium duration
Contained in EMLA cream (lignocaine and prilocaine)
Methaemaglobinaemia can occur at high doses due to breakdown product O-toluidine
Less toxic that lignocaine
Used for IV local anaesthetic - Biers block
Max dose 6mg/kg

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45
Q

Tell me about the local anaesthetic properties of cocaine

A

Ester local anaesthetic
Short duration of action
Causes profound vasoconstriction
Blocks neuronal uptake and stimulates the CNS
Side effects include - IHD, HTN, seizures, hallucinations
Max dose 3mg/kg

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46
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A

NSAIDS are cyclo-oxygenase inhibitors. They act on the arachnadonic acid pathway. They inhibit the production of prostanoids including thromboxane (vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator), prostacyclin (vasodilator and prevents platelet plug forming) and prostaglandins . Prostaglandins would otherwise cause inflammation and decrease stimulus required to cause pain

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47
Q

What are the contraindications for NSAIDs?

A

Relative:

  • renal failure, heart failure, history of GI bleeding, HTN, coagulopathy
  • Enhances effects of warfarin

Absolute

  • hypersensitivity
  • Asthmatic in whom it precipitates exacerbations (10-20%)
  • Avoid in children (except, I think, Kawasaki syndrome)
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48
Q

What are the side effects of NSAIDs?

A
Asthma exacerbation (blocking COX leads to increased leukotriennes) 
AKI 
Platelet dysfunction - reduced thromboxane production 
GI bleeding - prostaglandins required to gastric mucosal integrity (COX 1> COX2)
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49
Q

Tell me about paracetamol

A

Paracetamol is commonly used for simple analgesia and as an antipyretic

It has central action via COX 3 inhibition leading to decreased brain PGE2 and also modulates cannabinoid system

Pk
It is administered PO/PR/IV
It’s absorbed in the small bowel and has an oral bioavaliability of 80% with protein binding 10%

It’s metabolism is important - particularly in overdose cases:
The majority of it is metabolised to glucuronide and sulphate metabolites (30%) but approximately 10% is metabolised to N-acetyl-p-amino-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI). This is a toxic metabolite.

In normal doses and with normal genetic polymorphism it is rapidly conjugated by glutathione but when this system is saturated NAPQI accumulates causing liver failure.

Pd
CVS - IV can cause bradycardia and hypotension
CNS - analgesia and antipyretic
Other - rash, ITP, nephropathy

50
Q

Tell me about aspirin

A

Aspirin is a salicylic acid derivative

It is used for analgesia, as an antipyretic and an anti platelet

It is a prodrug that causes irreversible COX 1 inhibition and modified COX 2 activity. It also selectively inhibits thromboxane A2 in platelets and therefore inhibits their aggregation

Pk
It is a weak acid with a pKa of 3.0 therefore it is poorly ionised in the stomach and is not readily absorbed until it reaches the small bowel
85% protein bound
Metabolised in the liver and intestine by ester hydrolysis to salicylic acid
Exhibits 1st order kinetics at low dose but zero order at high dose
Renal excretion

Pd
CVS - decreased platelet aggregation and vasodilation is cardio protective
RESP - bronchospasm in 10-20% asthmatics
GI - risk of GIB, can cause hepatic transaminitis
RENAL - local hypoxia and decreased RBF

Drug interactions:

  • warfarin - as NSAIDs are highly protein bound this can displace warfarin and increase its action
  • Lithium - may increase levels
51
Q

Tell me about diclofenac

A

Diclofenac is a phenylacetic acid derivative

It’s used for analgesia and as an antipyretic
It inhibits COX1&2 equally

Administered PO/PR/IV

Pk
Well absorbed 
Bioavaliability of 60%
PB 99.5% so can displace oral anticoagulants 
Low Vd 0.12-17 L/kg 
Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion 

Pd
Caution in asthmatics
GIB
Decreased renal perfusion due to decreased prostaglandins
Reversible inhibition of platelet function
Reduces renin and aldosterone concentration by 70%
Increased risk of thrombosis

52
Q

What is the Vaughn-Williams classification? Give examples

A

The VW classification classifies antiarrhythmics according to electrolyte they act on.

Group 1 act on fast acting sodium channels
1a - Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide - increased refractory period
1b - lignocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine - shortens refractory period
1c - Flecainide, propfenone - no effect on refractory period

Group 2 - beta blockers

Group 3 - K channel blockers (amiodarone, sortalol)

Group 4r - Ca channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem)

53
Q

How do class I antiarrhythmics work?

A

They act on fast sodium channels in the cardiac myocyte

This increases the time it takes to reach threshold potential, decreases the slope of phase 0 and the cardiac conduction velocity.

These sodium channels are not present in the SAN so can be used for abolishing re-entrant arrhythmias

Further classified according to their effect on the refractory period - this is usually mediated by the drugs effect on K channels responsible for repolarisation in phase 3

54
Q

How to class II antiarrhythmics work?

A

Beta-blockers work by inhibiting beta adrenergic receptors and therefore reducing sympathetic tone on the heart. This reduces the slope on phase 4 of the SAN action potential

B-receptors are coupled via G-proteins to calcium channels that open when the receptor is activated. By blocking them less Ca enters the cell and the rate of depolarisation of phase 4 is slower and therefore chronotropy and (due to reduced intracellular calcium presumably) inotropy

Also inhibit action of light chain kinase and so decrease the hearts relaxation rate

55
Q

How do class III anti-arrhythmics exert their effects?

A

K channel blockers prevent K efflux out of the cell at the SAN during depolarisation. This decreases the slope of phase 3 of the SAN action potential. This increases the refractory period and reduces arrhythmogenicity

56
Q

How do class IV antiarrythmics exert their effect?

A

Calcium channel blockers block L-type calcium channel blockers (they do not effect T/N/P calcium channels)

Blocking them reduces the phase 0 slope of the SAN action potential, decreasing heart rate.

They are also found in cardiac myocytes and blood vessels. By decreasing Ca flux reduces cardiac conduction velocity and contractility

57
Q

Tell me about Quinidine

A

Class 1a antiarrythmic that blocks fast Na channels, increases refractory period and vagal tone

Used for termination of SVTs and ventricular arrhythmias

Pk - bioavaliability 75%, 90% protein bound and T1/2 5-9 hours, hepatic metabolism and renal excretion

Pd
CVS - can cause other arrhythmias & hypotension
ECG - prolonged PR, wide QRS, long QT
CNS - tinnitus, blurred vision, hearing loss, headache, confusion

CAUTION!!:
- displaces digoxin from binding sites so can cause toxicity

58
Q

Tell me about lignocaine

A

Lignocaine is a amide local anaesthetic and a class Ib anti arrhythmic

It is a sodium channel blocker which decreases phase 0 of cardiac action potential and decreases refractory period

Pk 33% ionised, pKa 7.9, Vd 0.7-1.5 l/kg, hepatic metabolism and renal excretion

59
Q

Local anaesthetic toxicity (lidocaine) signs

A

> 4micrograms/ml = perioral tingling, dizziness, tinnitus, parasthesia

> 5 micrograms/ml = altered consciousness, coma, seizures

> 10micrograms/ml = AV block, refractory hypotension, cardiac arrest

60
Q

Tell me about flecainide

A

Flecainide is a class Ic anti arrhythmic used for the management of SVT/AF/WPW

It blocks fast Na channels prolonging phase 0 of action potential

Pk Well absorbed with oral bioavaliability of 90% and protein binding 50%, hepatic metabolism with active metabolites and unchanged drug excreted in the urine

Pd
CVS - can precipitate conduction disorders, use with caution in patients with AV node disease, negative inotrope so can precipitate heart failure
OTHER - headache, dizziness, parasthesia

61
Q

Tell me about amiodarone

A

Amiodarine is a class III anti arrhythmic but also has properties of class I, II and IV. It is used for a wide number of arrhythmias including SVT/VT/WPW

Can be given IV or PO

Pk - poorly absorbed. Protein binding of 95%, Vd 2-70 L/kg, T1/2 20-100 days!!, hepatic metabolism, expressed in bile, tears and via skin

Pd
CVS - prolonged QT, hypotension, bradycardia
RESP - pneumonitis and fibrosis
CNS - peripheral neuropathy and myopathy. Corneal microdeposits
GI - metallic taste, hepatitis, cirrhosis
SKIN - grey skin, hypersensitive skin
ENDO - hypo and hyperthyroidism

DRUG INTERACTIONS:

  • Highly protein bound so can displace other drugs from protein binding
  • Avoid with other QT prolonging medications
  • Can cause heart block with other AV node blockers
62
Q

Tell me about digoxin

A

Digoxin is a glycoside extracted from foxgloves

It inhibits the Na/K- ATPase pump meaning there’s less intracellular potassium and more intracellular sodium. There is therefore less Calcium extrusion by the Na/Ca exchange pump because this relies on the concentration gradient.

The higher intracellular calcium leads to increased inotropy and the decreased intracellular potassium decreases conduction in the SA and AV nodes slowing heart rate

Pk
Administered IV or oral (Bioavaliability >70%)
Protein binding 25%
Vd 5-10 l/kg
Half life 35 hours (increased in renal failure)
Minimal hepatic metabolism
Excreted largely unchanged in the urine

Pd
CXS - arrhythmias
ECG - toxic = long PR, inverted tick; normal = flattened T wave, short QT
OTHER:
- Anorexia, nausea, diarrhoea, headache, lethargy, visual disturbance, rashes, eosinophilia, gynaecomastia

TOXICITY

  • Treat bradycardia with atropine and pacing
  • Treat ventricular arrhythmia with phenytoin
  • “Digibind” - IgG antibody fragments against digoxin. Expensive - used if >20micrograms/l
  • note Digibind can cause anaphylaxis
63
Q

Tell me about verapamil

A

A calcium channel antagonist used for the management of SVT/AF/prophylaxis of angina and hypertension

It is a class 4 antiarrhythmic that blocks L-type calcium channels so reduces the slop of nodal action potential. It also decreases contractility and causes coronary dilation

Pk
Well absorbed 90% but undergoes extensive 1st pass metabolism so 25% bioavaliability
90% protein bound
Vd 3-5 l/kg
Half life 3-7 hours
Hepatic metabolism but subject to zero order kinetics
Active and unchanged metabolites excreted in urine

Pd
CVS - can precipitate VF/VT in WPW, CCF in patients with poor LV
Caution with b-blockers/digoxin/halothane - can cause severe bradycardia
Hypotension
Cerebral vasodilation

64
Q

Tell me about beta blockers

A

Beta-blockers block beta adrenergic receptors. Some also have some sympathomimetic activity. There activity is largely governed by their affinity for different Beta receptors (B1 cardioselective)

Wide range of uses:
HTN, angina, tachycardia, obtund hypertensive reflex, phaeochromocytoma, HOCUM, anxiety, glaucoma, migraine

PK
Different agents have varying lipid solubility. Atenolol is poorly lipid soluble so poorly absorbed from the gut. But those with high lipid solubility (eg metoprolol) are well absorbed but cross the BBB so cause more CNS side effects.

CVS

  • negative inotrope - increase time in diastole, decreases cardiac O2 demand
  • Hypotension

RESP
- bronchospasm

CNS
- those that cross the BBB causes hallucinations, nightmares, depression, fatigue and decrease IOP

GI - dry mouth and GI upset

Metabolic - rise in resting BMs, mask signs of hypoglycaemia

65
Q

Tell me about adenosine

A

Adenosine is a naturally occurring purine nucleoside

It is used to differentiate between SVT and VT. If the rhythm is re-entrant it may terminate it.

MoA - binds to adenosine (A1) receptors coupled to K channels that open causing hyperpolarised membrane. They are only found in SAN and AVN so adenosine selectively decreased conduction velocity in the nodes. Also decreases cAMP mediated catecholamine stimulation of ventricles

Rapid offset

Pd
RESP - increased PVR, SoB, flushing, bronchospasm, impending doom

66
Q

Can you classify anti hypertensive drugs?

A

Antihypertensive drugs can be classified according to their location of action: Central vs peripheral

Centrally acting - clonidine, methyldopa and reserpine (?)

Peripherally acting can be subclassified to heart, vascular and renal

67
Q

Tell me about benzodiazepines

A

Benzodiazepines are a class of psychotropic drug that have hypnotic, sedative, amnesic and muscle relaxant properties.

They act to propagate the effects of GABA A receptors increasing chloride uptake and hyperpolarising the cell membrane. Benzodiazepine receptors are coupled to GABA receptors. These receptors are found widely in the CNS.

They can be classified according to their duration of action - short <12 hours (midazolam), medium 12-24 lorazepam and long >24 diazepam

68
Q

Tell me about inotropes

A

Inotropes describes a range of different drugs that all increase the contractility of the heart. They can be classified in 3 subgroups:
1. Drugs that increase intracellular calcium
I. Calcium ions
II. Drugs that increase intracellular calcium - adrenergic receptor agonists, PDE inhibitors and glucagon
III. Drugs effecting the sodium/potassium ATPase
2. Calcium sensitising drugs - Levo
3. Act via metabolic pathways - T3

69
Q

Classify adrenergic receptor agonists used as inotropes

A

They can be naturally occurring or synthetic

Naturally occurring include - adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine

Synthetic inotropes include - dobutamine, dopexamine, isoprenaline and salbutamol

70
Q

How does digoxin act as an inotrope?

A

Digoxin inhibits the Na/K-ATPase pump on the sarcolemnal membrane and causes an increase in intracellular sodium. Sodium would normally be pumped into the cell by a sodium-calcium exchange pump but this relies on a the concentration gradient of sodium.

By increasing intracellular sodium digoxin reduces this gradient meaning less sodium enters the cell and more calcium remains inside.

Intracellular calcium causes the positive inotropic effect. This is slightly offset by digoxins other effect to activate the parasympathetic nervous system

71
Q

What is the mechanism of action of adrenaline

A

Adrenaline is a naturally occurring catecholamine. It is produced in the adrenal medulla and acts on alpha 1, Beta 1 and Beta 2 adrenoreceptors.

Adrenoreceptors are G-protein coupled receptors that act to increase influx of calcium.

- Alpha receptors are linked to a Gq protein that stimulates phospholipase C to produce IP3 and DAG 
- Beta receptors are liked to Gs protein that stimulates adenyl cyclase to produce cAMP. this activate protein kinase A (?) 

Low dose activates beta receptors -> smooth muscle relaxation, glycogenolysis
Mid range -> Beta 1 receptors -> inotropy/chronotropy/increased renin release
High dose -> alpha receptors -> generalised vaso and veno constriction increasing SVR. Increased after load and preload.

72
Q

Tell me about dopamine

A

Dopamine is a naturally occurring catecholamine and neurotransmitter.

At low dose it acts on D1 and D2 receptor and at higher doses it stimulates beta and then alpha receptors.

Previously it had been hoped that low dose dopamine would achieve both an increased inotropy and increased renal blood flow due to the distribution of dopamine receptors. This has not been demonstrated in clinical trials and its use now is fairly limited occasionally used in the paediatric population.

Dopamine is a precursor of noradrenaline. It has a half life of minutes and is metabolised by COMT

Pd
CVS
- <5 micrograms/min - low dose D1 receptors - decreased renal vessel resistance
- 5 - 10 micrograms/min - Beta 1 - increased HR/contractility/CO/CA blood flow
- >10 - alpha - increased SVR
RESP - decreased response to hypoxia
CNS - modulates extrapyramidal movements, nausea and vomiting
RENAL - diuretic effect

73
Q

Tell me about milrinone

A

Milrinone is a selective phosphodiesterase III inhibitor

It is used in cases of low cardiac output

By inhibiting PDE III it reduces the degradation of cAMP in cardiac and smooth muscle

- Increased intracellular calcium leads to increased biventricular contractility 
- It alters Ca flux into smooth muscles causing relaxation of vessels (including pulmonary) 

Pk IV administration, 70% protein bound, T 1/2 2.5 hours, hepatic metabolism and renal excreation (85% unchanged)

Pd
CVS - increased SV/contractility/No increased cardiac oxygen consumption/Decreased SVR
RESP - pulmonary vasodilation

74
Q

How is adrenaline synthesised

A

Adrenaline is synthesised from tyrosine via a sequence of steps.

Tyrosine: from diet or hydroxylation of phenylalanine in liver

Tyrosine -> L-DOPA -> Dopamine -> noradrenaline -> adrenaline

Enzymes:

  1. Tyrosine hydroxylase
  2. DOPA decarboxylase
  3. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
  4. PNMT (only in adrenal medulla)
75
Q

Tell me about levosimendan

A

Levosimendan acts as a calcium sensitiser - it binds to troponin C and stabilises the cross bridges between it and actin-myosin cross bridges. It increases contractility and vasodilation without increase in calcium concentration or oxygen demand

Administered as bolus and infusion 
98% protein bound
T1/2 1 hour 
hepatic metabolism 
Renal excretion (85% unchanged) 

Caution - contra-indicated in severe hepatic/renal failure, ventricular outflow obstruction, severe hypotension/tachycardia, history of torsades de pointes

76
Q

Tell me about oxytocin

A

Synthetic produced analogue of oxytocin

Used for induction of labour, following c-section or abortion

MoA: It stimulates uterine contraction by binding to sites on muscle cells. Agonist at oxytocin G-protein coupled receptors

Effects
GU - uterine contraction, can cause hyper stimulation, mild anti-diuretic effect when prolonged 
CVS - increased SVR, BP, tachycardia 
GI - nausea/vomiting
Rash, anaphylaxis
77
Q

Tell me about ergometrine

A

Ergometrine is an ergot alkaloid derivative.

It stimulates uterine and vascular smooth muscle by binding to 5-HT3 receptors but also agonises dopamine 2 receptors causing emesis

Used as second line uterotonic following C-section or uterine tone

Effects:
GU - uterine contraction (1 min IV and 5 min IM)
CVS - increased SVR and BP (CI in pre-eclampsia), bradycardia and arrhythmias
CNS - tinnitus, headache, dizziness
GI - severe vomiting and nausea

78
Q

Tell me about carboprost

A

Carboprost is a prostaglandin analogue that stimulates uterine contraction and is used in post-Parton haemorrhage

Given IM

Effects:

  • GU - uterine contraction
  • RESP - bronchospasm (CI in asthmatics)
  • CVS - cardiovascular collapse, pulmonary oedema
  • CNS - headache, dizziness
  • GI - nausea and vomiting
79
Q

Classify the major categories of antihypertensive drugs

A

Antihypertensive drugs can be classified by their location of action

  1. Cardiac
    I - Beta blockers (cardioselective/non-cardioselective/labetalol)
  2. Blood vessels
    I - Direct acting - produce NO which act is of G protein coupled receptors to upregulate guanylate Cyclades and increasing intracellular cGMP -> vasodilation
    examples - sodium niroprusside and hydralazine (arterial and venous dilation) & GTN/ISMN (predominantly venous dilation)II - Indirect - reduce SVR and preload by various mechanisms
    CCBs - antagonist at L-type calcium channels in vascular smooth muscles
    Alpha blockers - prazosin
    Potassium channel activators - (nicorandil) activators of ATP-sensitive K channels within arterioles causing hyperpolarisation and reduced intracellular calcium -> arteriolar vasodilation.
    Magnesium
  3. Renal
    • Diuretics
    • RAAS
  4. CNS
    • centrally acting drugs (eg clonidine and methyldopa)
    • Ganglion blockers - competitive antagonists at nACh receptors located in parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia
80
Q

What are the different types of heparin?

A

There are three different forms of heparin:

  1. Naturally occurring heparin
  2. Unfractionated heparin - binds to and potentiates antithrombin
  3. Low molecular weight heparin - directly inhibit factor Xa
81
Q

What are the side effects of heparin therapy?

A
  1. Haemorrhage
  2. Non-immune thrombocytopaenia
  3. HIT
    • IgG antibodies made against heparin after it binds to platelet factor 4 (PF4)
    • Antibodies consequently bind to and activate platelets causing thrombi and the platelets count to fall
  4. Hypotension
  5. Osteoporosis
82
Q

What can potentiate the effects of warfarin?

A

Warfarin is vulnerable to potentiation owing to its high protein binding and metabolism

Drugs that potentiate warfarin include:

NSAIDs and simvastatin - drugs with high protein binding compete with warfarin and can displace it and increase its anticoagulant effects
Similarly states with low plasma protein such as sepsis and pregnancy can do the same

Drugs that decrease warfarins metabolism (metronidazole, macrolides and alcohol) will increase the effect
Some antibiotics affect the vitamin K producing bacteria in the gut flora and so increase the effect of warfarin

Diet - foods such as St. John’s wort, ginger and ginseng can increase the effect

Thyroid status also has an impact - hypothyroidism reduces its effect

83
Q

What are the different classes/types of anticoagulant?

A
  1. Antiplatelet
  2. Heparins
  3. Oral anticoagulants
  4. Fibrinolytics
84
Q

Name the different platelet inhibitors and their MoA

A

Aspirin - COX inhibitor - prevents platelet thromboxane release

Dipyridamole - platelet phosphodiesterase inhibitor - inhibits platelet adhesion to damaged vessel walls (inhibits adenosine uptake), potentiates the effect of prostaglandins and, at high doses, inhibits phosphodiesterase causing lower intra-platelet calcium

Clopidogrel - ADP binding inhibitor - Irreversibly binds to P2Y12 receptor (ADP receptor) and prevents the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor from transforming into its active form
(prasugrel and ticagrelor also ADP binding inhibitors)

Tirofiban/Abciximab/Eptifinatide - glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists so block the final common pathway of platelet aggregation

85
Q

Tell me about unfractionated heparin

A

Anionic, mucopolysaccaride, organic acid containing many sulphate residues

5000-25000 daltons

Binds to antithrombin III forming thrombin-antithrombin complex. At low dose Factor Xa inhibited. (As dose increases factors 9,11,12 also inhibited)

Given IV/IM/SC

Given negative charge it is highly protein bound and has low lipid solubility
Metabolised by hepatic heparinases and excreted in the urine

86
Q

Complications of heparin use

A

Haemorrhage

Thrombocytopaenia (Type 1 and 2)

Hypotension

Osteoporosis

87
Q

Tell me about LMWH (including advantages)

A

Formed from the depolymerisation of heparin

2000-8000 Da

Inhibit factor Xa but have little effect at forming thrombin-antithrombin complex

Advantages:
Once daily dosing 
Less impact on platelets 
Reduced need for monitoring 
Reduced affinity for VWF
88
Q

Tell me about protamine

A

Positively charged molecule that neutralises the anticoagulant effect of heparin

Given intravenously at a dose of 1mg for every 100 units of heparin

89
Q

Tell me about warfarin

A

Warfarin is a coumarin derivative that inhibits the reduction of vitamin K which is required to generate active clotting factors 2,7,9,10

Takes ~ 72 hours to take effect

Side effects

  • haemorrhage
  • teratogenicity
  • Drug interactions - Drugs that impair coagulation, displace off protein binding and impair metabolism

Absorption from gut
Highly protein bound
hepatic metabolism

90
Q

Tell me about the fibrinolytic drugs

A

Fibrinolytics are used to break down clots usually in cases of acute occlusion where there is appropriate risk-benefit

They work on the plasminogen - plasmin reaction to upregulate the clot break down effect of plasmin

The commonly used include streptokinase, alteplase and urokinase

Streptokinase - from group C beta-haemolytic strep - forms a complex with plasminogen which facilitates its conversion to active plasmin

Complications - haemorrhage, CVS ( arrhythmias post reperfusion) & allergic

Alteplase - a glycoprotein that becomes activated only when it binds to fibrin inducing the conversion from plasminogen to plasmin - means that systemic fibrinolysis occurs to a lesser extent.

91
Q

Oral anticoagulants (except warfain)

A

Dabigatran - direct thrombin inhibitor - a prodrug that is converted to active metabolites and then NOT metabolised further - renal excretion therefore caution must be taken in renal failure. Caution with use with phenytoin, ketoconazole, carbamazepine and rifampicin

Rivaroxaban - direct factor Xa inhibitor- oral bioavailability of 80-100%, 70% hepatic metabolism so renal function less important. Caution with CYP3A4 inducers (but less so than dabigatran)

Apixaban - same MoA as rivaroxaban - 50% bioavailability, onset over few hours

92
Q

Reversal of oral anticoagulants

A

Warfarin - vitamin K, prothrombin complex concentrate

Dabigatran - idarucizumab or dialysis

Rivaroxaban/apixaban - andexanet alfa

93
Q

AAGBI recommendations for neuraxial block and oral anticoagulants

A

Warfarin - INR <1.4
Dabigatran - 48-96 hours
Rivaroxaban - 48 hours
Apixaban - 24-48 hours

Heparin
Unfractionated - 4 hours or normal APTT
Prophylactic LMWH - 12 hours
Treatment dose LMWH - 24 hours

94
Q

Fondaparinux

A

Fondaparinux is a synthetic pentasaccharide factor Xa inhibitor. Fondaparinux binds antithrombin and accelerates its inhibition of factor Xa.

95
Q

Anticoagulation post HIT

A

Danaparoid and lepirudin which available for use in the UK, whereas argatroban is used in North America

96
Q

Annoying numbers for Halothane

A
MW  197
BP 50.2 
SVP 32.3
MAC 0.75
B:G 2.4
O:G 224
97
Q

Annoying numbers for Isoflurane

A
MW 184
BP 48.5
SVP 33.2
MAC 1.17
B:G 1.4
O:G 98
98
Q

Annoying numbers for Enflurane

A
MW 184
BP 56.5
SVP 23.3 
MAC 1.68
B:G 1.8
O:G 98
99
Q

Annoying numbers for Desflurane

A
MW 168
BP 23.5
SVP 89
MAC 6.6
B:G 0.42
O:G 29
100
Q

Annoying numbers for Sevoflurane

A
MW 200
BP 58.5
SVP 22.7
MAC 1.8
B:G 0.7
O:G 80
101
Q

Annoying numbers for N2O

A
MW 44
BP -88
SVP 5200
MAC 105
B:G 0.47
O:G 1.4
102
Q

Annoying numbers for Xenon

A
MW 131 
BP -108
SVP x
MAC 71
B:G 0.14
O:G 1.9
103
Q

Factors that increase MAC

A

Infancy

Hyperthermia
hyperthyroidism
Catecholamines and sympathomimetics

Chronic opioid
Chronic alcohol use
Acute amphetamines
Hypernatraemia

104
Q

Factors that decrease MAC

A

Old age and neonates

Pregnancy 
Hypotension 
Hypothermia 
Hypothyroidms 
Alpha 2 agonists 
Sedatives 
Acute alcohol and opioid
Chronic amphetamines 
Lithium
105
Q

Pharmacodynamics of sevoflurane

A

CVS - decreased contractility, SVR and BP

RESP - increased RR, decreased TV and increased PaCO2

CNS - Increased CBF, decreased CMRO, EEG burst suppression

106
Q

Pharmacodynamics of desflurane

A

CVS - Increased HR, Decreases SVR and BP (no effect on contractility)

RESP - Increased RR and decreased TV - PaCO2 increased

CNS Increased CBF, decreased CMRO2,

107
Q

Pharmacodynamics of enflurane

A

CVS - decreased contractility and SVR, increased HR, decrease BP

RESP Increased RR and decreased TV increased PaCo2

CNS Increased CBF, decreased CMRO, epileptiform activity

108
Q

Pharmacodynamics of isoflurane

A

CVS decreased contractility and SVR, increased HR, decreased BP. POSSIBLE CORONARY STEAL

RESP decreased TV, increased RR, decreased PaCO2

CNS Increased CBF, decreased CMRO

109
Q

Pharmacodynamics of halothane

A

CVS decreased contractility, HR, SVR and BP. Increased sensitisation to catecholamines

RESP increased RR and decreased TV. Unchanged PaCO2

CNS Increased CBF, decreased CMRO

110
Q

How do drugs exert their effect?

A

Many different mechanisms

  1. physiochemical interaction (antacids/sugamadex)
  2. Enzymatic interaction (ACEI)
  3. Voltage gated ion channels (LA)
  4. Receptros (extra vs intracellular)
111
Q

Types of receptor

A

Receptor linked ion channel

Producers of intermediate messengers

Regulators of gene transcription

112
Q

What is a receptor

A

A protein containing a region to which a ligand binds specifically to elicit an effect

Usually protein or glycoprote - found at cell membrane, within intracellular organelles or within the nucleus

113
Q

Examples of receptor linked ion channels

A

Pentameric:

GABA-A and nACh

Inotropic glutamate:

NMDA (2subunits NR1 and NR)

  • stimulation increases calcium permeability and causes CNS excitation
  • N2O, Xenon, ketamine inhibit
114
Q

Receptors with intermediate messengers

A

G-PROTEIN COUPLED RECEPTORS

  • Transmembrane proteins
  • Binding of ligand on extracellular side leads to a conformation changes that activates the G-protein
  • Galpha-GDP -> Galpha-GTP which dissociates and activates or inactivates effector protein. The alpha-subunit then breaks down the GTP to regenerate the alpha-GDP subunit and rejoins the beta-gamma complex
  • Gi (opioid) - inactivates adenylyl cyclase
  • Gs (adrenoreceptors) - activates adenylyl cyclase
  • Gq - Activate PHOSPHOLIPASE C to form inositol triphosphate and diacylglyercol - causing calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum and activation of protein kinase C
Tyrosine kinase (insulin and growth factors)
- ligands bind to alpha subunits and cause phosphorylation of intracellular tyrosine kinase on beta subunits with subsequent intracellular effects 

Guanylyl Cyclase

  • Receptors with intrinsic guanylyl cyclase activity
  • Stimulation causes increase in intracellular cGMP which phosphorylates intracellular enzymes
115
Q

Gq receptor sequence

A

Gq - Activate PHOSPHOLIPASE C to form inositol triphosphate and diacylglyercol - causing calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum and activation of protein kinase C

116
Q

What drugs regulate gene transcription

A

Steroids

Thyroxine

117
Q

Halothane hepatitis protein

A

TFAA

Trifluroacetic acid

hapten complex

118
Q

How do drugs work?

A
Receptors 
Ion channels 
Enzymes 
Neurotransmitters 
Hormones 
transport systems
Physiochemical
119
Q

Classify drug interactions

A

Physiochemical
- chelation and neutralisation

Pharmacokinetic
- Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

Pharmacodynamic

  • Summation
  • Synergyism
  • Potentiation
  • Antagonism
120
Q

Drugs that undergo extensive 1st pass metabolism

A
Aspirin
Morphine 
Codeine 
Diltiazem 
Propanolol
Verapamil 
Hydralazine