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Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Parasympathetic

A

Rest/digest
Bronchoconstriction/miosis
SLUD (salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation)

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2
Q

What does the pre and post-ganglion of the parasympathetic nervous system release?

A

ACH

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3
Q

What receptors are found on parasympathetic?

A

M1, M2, M3

M3 is mostly likely to be found

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4
Q

What breaks down ACH?

A

acetylcholinesterase

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5
Q

What is released at the pre and post ganglionic of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Pre - ACH

Post - Epi and norepi (same as adrenaline) Think adrenergic

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6
Q

What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?`

A
  1. flight/fight
  2. bronchodilation/mydriasis -
    peripheral vasoconstrict
  3. dry
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7
Q

What is the purpose of MAOI?

A

increase epi and norepinephrine

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8
Q

What is an example of MAOI (Monoaminoxidase inhibitor)?

A

Phenylephrine

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9
Q

What does tropicamide do?

A

Stops ACH - sympathetic goes uninhibited

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9
Q

What does tropicamide do?

A

Stops ACH - sympathetic goes uninhibited

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10
Q

What are the receptors of the sympathetic system?

A

a1,a2,b1,b2

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11
Q

How does phenylephrine work?

A

a1 agonist

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12
Q

Pilocarpine

A

cholinergic agonist - increase salivation in sjogrens

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13
Q

What 3 drugs increase outflow?

A

Pilocarpine
Prostaglandins
Alpha 2 agonist

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14
Q

What is the only drug that increases corneoscleral outflow?

A

pilocarpine by binding to the ciliary muscle - the anchor is the scleral spur > pulls to the ciliary muscle > and opens the TM

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15
Q

What are the side effects for pilocarpine?

A

myopic shift, brow ache, HAs, RD - turning on the accommodation system like crazy

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16
Q

Cholinergic Agonist

A
  1. Direct
    • Pilocarpine
  2. Indirect ( increase ACH)
    • Neostigmine (tx MG)
    • Pyridostigmine (tx MG)
    • Edrophonium (Ed diagnoses)
    • Echothiophate (irreversible SE)
    • Donepezil
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17
Q

What is pilocarpine used for?

A

Angle closure attack, ADies .125%

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18
Q

What happens in ADies tonic pupil?

A

EW (preganglion para - starts in midbrain) –> CG (post para) –> SM

Ciliary ganglion lesion - iris is starved which is why we give .125% pilo

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19
Q

2 major ocular sx of MG

A
  1. ptosis

2. diplopia at the end of the day

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20
Q

Drug that exacerbate ocular effects of MG worse

A

B-blockers

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21
Q

Cholinergic Antagonist MOA?

A

stops ach

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22
Q

Longest to the shortest duration of cycloplegic/mydriatic effect?

A

ASH CT

Atropine > scopolamine > homatropine > cyclopentolate > tropicamide

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23
Q

Which cholinergic agonist penetrates the BBB best?

A

scopolamine (THINK CNS) - hallucination, amnesia, confusion

Also used for motion sickness

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24
Q

Atropine should be avoided in which patients?

A

Down syndrome

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25
Q

Which cholinergic antagonist is the safest drug?

A

Tropicamide - 25 min

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26
Q

What is it called when you put atropine in the good eye?

A

penalization

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27
Q

Homatropine

A
  • keeps iris mobile
  • paralyze sphincter and ciliary muscle to reduce pain
  • stabilize BAB
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28
Q

Tight junctions in which 3 spots?

A
  1. NPCE
  2. Iris stroma (minor circle)
  3. schlemms canal
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29
Q

List the drugs in cholinergic antagonist

A

STOP ACH

ANTI, ANTI, ANTI (antidepressants, antipsychotics, antihistamines)

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30
Q

Which receptors can cause glaucoma a1, a2, b1, b2

Examples of B2 agonist - can cause glaucoma

A

a1 and b2

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31
Q

List drugs for adrenergic agonist

A

a1 - phenyl
a2 - apraclonidine, brimonidine
Nonspecific - naphazoline, tetrahydrozoline (visine)

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32
Q

2 MOA for a2

A

increase uveoscleral outflow

decrease aqueous production

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33
Q

What is the MOA for tetrahydrozoline (visine)

A

ocular decongestant/vasoconstrictor - acts on a1 (dilates pupil)

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34
Q

Phenylephrine acts on which receptors?

A
  • a1, cant do a fixed dilated pupil
  • crappy dilation
  • pupil widening acts on Mueller muscle (2-3 mm)
  • phenyl 10% breaks posterior synechiae (USE EXTREME CAUTION increase BP)
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35
Q

When is 10% phenyl contraindicated?

A
  1. Phenelzine
  2. TCA
  3. Graves Dz

B/c it can increase sympathetic activity

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36
Q

TCA has 3 MOA

A
  1. increase NE and epi
  2. increase anticholinergic activity
  3. Increase serotonin
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37
Q

Apraclonidine

A
  • weak alpha 1 - no dilation
  • used in Horner’s syndrome - which dilates pupil
  • think ACUTE - acts within an hour and awesome reduction in IOP - great in acute situations
  • NOT good long term b/c of tachyphylaxis side effect **
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38
Q

Brimonidine

A

works on a2

  • alphagan (0.2%)
  • alphagan P (0.1%) - purite preservative
  • causes follicular conjunctivitis inferior palpebral conj
  • cause miosis**
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39
Q

A2 acts as what?

A

sympathetic off switch - when bind to a2 receptor = shut down sympathetic affects

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40
Q

Epiphenephrine vs norepinephrine

A

Epi - think epi pen, opens lungs, acts on all 4 receptors

NE - does NOT act on B2

B2 - lungs
B1 - heart

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41
Q

Adrenergic antagonist

A

Alpha blockers & B- blockers

Timolol
Carteolol 
Metipranolol
Betaxolol
Levobunolol

MOA: Knocks out B1 & B2 receptors

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42
Q

Which b-blocker only blocks B1

A

betaxolol (spare the lungs)

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43
Q

Which beta-blocker is the least efficatious?

A

betaxolol

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44
Q

What other drugs contain timolol?

A

Consopt & combigan

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45
Q

Carteolol

A

has ISA activity, sympathomimetic activity

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46
Q

Which drugs have neuroprotective properties

A

Brimonidine & Betaxolol

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47
Q

Which drug causes impotence?

A

B-blockers

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48
Q

Side effects of B-blocker

A

bradycardia and bronchoconstriction

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49
Q

Average IOP reduction of timolol

A

25%

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50
Q

Which type of drugs are “unstable”

A

b-blockers

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51
Q

Which drug has a cross over effect?

A

timolol

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52
Q

Name CAI drugs

A

Topical

  • brinzolamide
  • dorzolamide

Orals

  • acetazolamide
  • drozolamide
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53
Q

Side effects of oral CAI

A

acetazolamide & methazolamide

- tingling of hands and feet
metabolic acidosis ** (also occur in diabetics) 
- metallic taste 
- myopic shift 
- aplastic anemia **
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54
Q

Which eye drop causes aplastic anemia

A

chloramphenicol

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55
Q

Drugs that causes myopic shifts

A
  • topamax (bilateral angle closure)
  • Acetazolamide
  • cataracts
  • pilocarpine
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56
Q

3 major prostaglandins

A
  • Travatan (more effective in AA)
  • Zalatan
  • Lumigan
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57
Q

MOA for prostaglandins

A

Acts on the ciliary muscle & phospholipase C (incr eyelash growth)

Permanent side effects - iris heterochromia **

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58
Q

Which layer does CME happen in?

A

OPL

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59
Q

Type 1 involves which antibody?

A

IgE = Allergy

- hayfever, anaphylaxis, allergic conjunctivitis

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60
Q

Emedastine

A

H1 receptor blocker

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61
Q

Antihistamine & mast cell stabilizer combos

A

BEZPOP

B: Bepotastine (bepreve) 
E: Epinastine (Elestat) 
Z: Ketotifen (Zaditor) 
P: Olopatadine (Patanol) 
O: azelastine (Optivar) 
P: Olopatadine (Pataday)
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62
Q

Mast cell stabilizers

A

Cromolyn sodium
Alocril
Alomide
Almast

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63
Q

Which cells have histamine?

A

Basophils & mast cell

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64
Q

Which region does the antibody bind?

A

Fab portion (have heavy & light chains) > ca2+ enters cell > histamine releases

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65
Q

Mast cell stabilizers MOA

A

stabilize calcium gated voltage channels

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66
Q

ACTH is released and acts on ___

A

adrenal gland (to release steroids)

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67
Q

ACTH is released from what?

A

anterior pituitary

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68
Q

ocular side effects of steroids

A
  • PSC cataracts
  • secondary infections (herpes simplex) b/c immune response is decreased
  • glaucoma (corneoscleral meshwork damaged)
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69
Q

list 6 top steroids

A

Strong steroids

  • Pred acetate
  • Rimexolone
  • Diflurprednate
  • Dexamethasone

Weak steroids

  • Fluorometholone
  • Loteprednol
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70
Q

How would you dose pred acetate vs durezol in a pt with uveitis?

A

Pred acetate - dose q1hr

Diflurprednate (Durezol) - dose q2hrs (very strong steroid)

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71
Q

Which steroid is the safest & why?

A

Loteprednol = ester base

the rest is ketone base

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72
Q

MOA of steroids

A

knocks out phospholipase A2

  • hydroxychloroquine and chloroquine can also inhibit phospholipase A2 & increase heme & RBC
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73
Q

MOA of NSAIDs

A

Block COX 1 and COX 2

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74
Q

Rosebengal staining simplex vs zoster

A

Simplex - stain borders

Zoster - stain entire thing

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75
Q

Muro 128

A

Hyperosmotic

- ions needs to be higher than the tear s

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76
Q

what is the osmolarity of the tears?

77
Q

Which ions are higher in tears compared to blood?

78
Q

Examples of hyperosmotic agents?

A
  1. Glycerin
  2. Muro 128
  3. Isosorbide
79
Q

MOA of Restasis

A

inhibit interleukin 2 - takes 3 months to work (always pair with FML)

Targets T cells - STOPS new T cells from being born

80
Q

Preservatives

81
Q

EDTA

A

think chelated calcium

82
Q

Thimerosal

A

mercury - used in virioptic (9x for herpetic dendrite

83
Q

NSAID = NSAD.. why?

A

beat up cornea

84
Q

What can cause corneal melting?

A
  • diclofenac sodium (voltaren) major side effect

- proparacaine (10-20 seconds to work and 10-20 mins in duration)

85
Q

MOA for anesthetics

A

block sodium channels

86
Q

NSAID drugs end with what ?

A

-fenac, -rolac, -flurbiprofen

87
Q

MOA for diclofenac

A
  • block COX 1 and COX 2
88
Q

MOA celecoxib

A

selective COX inhibitor for COX 2

89
Q

What causes CME?

A
  • cataract surgery (irvine gass syndrome)

- prostaglandins

90
Q

Another name for OPL

A

Henle’s layer - axons of photoreceptors

91
Q

6 layers of the fovea

A

RPE OHI

R: RPE 
P: Photoreceptors
E: ELM
O: ONL 
H: Henles layer 
I: ILM
92
Q

Drugs that work on the 30 S subunit

A

Azithromycin

Tetracylines

93
Q

Drugs that work on the 30 S subunit

A 
Azithromycin 
- tobramycin (fortified Ab) 
- gentamycin 
Tetracylines
- doxycyclines
- minocyclines
94
Q

Drugs that work on the 50S subunit

A

Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin/azithromycin/clarithromycin
Lincomycin/clindamycin

95
Q

Avoid tetracyclines in which population?

A

Children & Pregnant women

  • teeth discoloration
  • bone growth
  • pseudotumor cerebri
96
Q

Aminoglycosides causes what?

A

SPK - delayed corneal healing

97
Q

Drugs that causes pseudotumor cerebri

A

CATS

  • Contraceptives
  • Accutane
  • Tetracyclines
  • Synthroid
98
Q

What drugs should you avoid in pregnancy?

A

FAT

  • Fluroquinolones (tedonitis/bones)
  • AmiNOglycoside (nephro/ototoxicity)
  • Tetracyclines
99
Q

What drugs are safe for pregnancy?

A

PAC

  • Penicillin
  • Azithromycin
  • Cephalosporins
100
Q

Doxycycline

A
  • tx chlamydia

- can be taken with food

101
Q

What drugs should you take on an empty stomach?

A

PAT

  • Penicillin
  • Azithromycin
  • Tetracyclines (EXCEPT doxycycline)
102
Q

Side effects of minocycline

A

Not a minnow but a blue shark

  • blue sclera
  • Pigment
103
Q

What eye drop causes aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol

104
Q

Which drug is used for ophthalmia neonatorum (chlamydia)?

A

erythromycin

105
Q

What is azithromycin used for?

A

Azasite - tx blepharitis and bacterial conjunctivitis

Oral - needs to be taken on an empty stomach,

106
Q

What is clarithromycin use for?

A

respiratory infection

107
Q

Drugs used for MRSA

A

“Bacteria Can’t Decide”
Bactrim
Clindamycin
Doxycycline

108
Q

Logs of bacteria

A

peptidoglycan or mucopeptide

109
Q

glue of bacteria

A

transpeptidase

110
Q

What inhibits the transfer of peptidoglycan?

A

Bacitracin

111
Q

What inhibits transpeptidase?

A

penicillin and cephalosporin

112
Q

Severe reaction that can occur with penicillin

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction - anaphylaxis & urticaria

113
Q

Which drug is NOT resistant to penicillinase?

A

amoxicillin ( broadspectrum

114
Q

Augmentin is a combination of which 2 drugs?

A

clavulanic acid and amoxicillin

115
Q

Cephalexin

A
  • 1st generation cephalosporins

- aka keflex (hordelum, preseptal cellulitis)

116
Q

Higher generation of cephalosporins provides what type of coverage?

A

Ceftriaxone (3rd generation) - gram (-) - tx gonorrhea

117
Q

Which drugs inhibit synthesis of dihydrofolic acid by competing with PABA?

A
  • Sulfamethoxazole

- sufladiazine

118
Q

Which drugs binds to dihydrofolate reductase & inhibits reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid?

A
  • trimethoprim
119
Q

bactrim is made up of which 2 drugs?

A

sulfamethoxazole & trimethoprim

120
Q

How would you treat toxoplasmosis?

A

sulfadiazole & pyrimethamine

121
Q

2nd & 3rd gen fluoroquinolones provide which coverage?

A

(-)

increases as you increase to 4th generation

122
Q

Caseous necrosis & phlyctenules is seen in which systemic disease?

123
Q

Drugs use to treat TB?

A

RIPE

  • Rifampin
  • Isoniazid
  • P
  • Ethambutol
124
Q

SE of rifampin?

A

Rifles the liver & pink/orange tears

125
Q

TB is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction = T lymphocyte involved

126
Q

(+) PPD test and (-) TB

A

latent TB - use only one drug (rifampin or isoniazid)

“isoniazid used in isolation”
“ ison - myson = MYCOLIC acid MOA” = inhibits mycolic acid

127
Q

isoniazid MOA

A

“isoniazid used in isolation”

  • ” ison - myson = MYCOLIC acid MOA” = inhibits mycolic acid
  • can cause optic neuritis (rare SE)
128
Q

How do you tx active TB?

A

Use all 3 medication - rifampin, isoniazid, ethambutol

129
Q

Ethambutol SE

A

Retrobulbar optic neuritis

130
Q

MOA for zidovudine (retrovir)

A

reverse transcriptase inhibitor

  • tx pt with AIDs
131
Q

Oseltamivir (tamiflu) is used to treat what?

132
Q

MOA of herpes drug

A

inhibits DNA polymerase

133
Q

how often should you dose viroptic?

134
Q

how often you dose zirgan?

135
Q

BAK is perservative found in which herpes drug?

136
Q

Thimerosol is a perservative found in which herpes drug?

137
Q

Foscarnet

A

“safety net” - used if gancyclovir therapy is not effective

138
Q

List the oral antivirals

A

Valcyclovir
Acyclovir
Famcyclovir

reduces risk of disciform by 50% … AVOID in kidney or liver dz.. othewise it is a safe drug

139
Q

Antifungal drugs =

A

ergosterol = -azole

140
Q

Number one cause of fungal ulcer

A
  1. tree branch
  2. immune suppression
  3. chronically beat up cornea (chronic dry eye)
141
Q

Griseofulvin MOA

A

interfere with microtubules

  • exception that does not effect ergosterol
142
Q

natamycin & amphotericin B MOA

A

bind and punches holes in ergosterol

143
Q

-azole drugs

A

= INHIBIT ERGOSTEROL SYNTHESIS

144
Q

Chloroquine

A
  • increase heme (toxic to RBC & cause it to burst in pts with malaria)
  • SE: bulls-eye maculopathy & whorl keratophaty
  • MOA: inhibits phospholipase A2
  • TX RA/Lupus/Malaria
  • Binds to melanin and effects RPE = bulls eye maculopathy
  • 200mg ( <135lbs) vs 400mg (>135 lbs) - for hydroxy
  • pay attention to renal/liver function
  • macular degeneration can increase risk for bulls eye maculopathy
145
Q

Topical steroids SE

A
  1. PSC
  2. glaucoma
  3. increased risk of 2ndary infections (herpes)
146
Q

List the strong steroids

A
  1. pred acetate
  2. rimexolone
  3. diflurprednate
  4. dexamethosone
147
Q

List the weak steroids

A
  1. loteprednol

2. fluorometholone

148
Q

endings for steroids

A
  • lone, -sone, pred
149
Q

Systemic steroids

A
  1. Fluticasone
  2. Triamcinolone (inject into chalazion - but never do it on pt with DARK skin)
  3. Hydrocortisol
150
Q

Drugs that are insulin sensitizer

A
  1. Rosiglitazone
  2. Pioglitazone

** remember steroids are insulin resistant - make liver less sensitive to insulin b.c they release sugar **

151
Q

Steroid users

A

** DM - 65 yo male who is overweight **

  1. BS
  2. insulin resistance
  3. peptic ulcers
  4. fibroblast fxn
  5. osteoporosis
  6. HTN
152
Q

Topical NSAIDs

A
  1. Diclofenac sodium (generic –> cause corneal melting)
  2. Nepofenac (tx CME)
  3. Bromfenac (tx CME)
  4. Keterolac (tx CME)
  5. Flurbiprofen
153
Q

Systemic NSAIDs

A
  1. Misoprostol (missing prostaglandins - synthetic prostaglandins)
  2. Celecoxib (selective COX 2 inhibitor)

*COX 1 protects the stomach

154
Q

NSAID

A
  • Naproxen
  • Naproxen sodium
  • AspIRin (Irreversible)
  • Indomethacin (thinking pigmentary retinopathy, whorl keratopathy)
  • Ibuprofen
155
Q

MOA of NSAIDS

A

Block COX 1 and COX 2

156
Q

What 3 drugs causes pigmentary retinopathy

A
  1. chlorpromazine
  2. thioridazine
  3. Indomethacin (rx for gout)
157
Q

MOA for steroids

A

Phospholipase inhibitor:

stops everything from the top of the pathway

158
Q

Bucket 1

A

Cholinergic Agonist

  1. Direct & indirect
Direct - pilocarpine
Indirect - increase acetylcholine 
- neostigmine
- pyridostigmine 
- echothiphate
- edrophonium (tensilon test) 
- donepizil
159
Q

Bucket 2

A

STOP ACH

ANTI, ANTI, ANTI

Antiaxiety - Diazepam
Antipsychotics - Chlorpromazine, thioridazine
Antidepressants - amitriptyline, imipramien, phenelzine (HTN)
Antihistamines - promethazine, bropheniramine, chlorpheniramine, diphenydramine

160
Q

SE of bucket 2

A
  1. dry eye
  2. increase IOP
  3. Mydriasis (angle closure)
161
Q

Bucket 3

A

Adrenergic agonist - a1, a2, b1, b2

a1 - phenylephrine

B2 (BUTTS)- albuterol, levabuterol, terbutaline, metoproterenol, isoproterenol

Dopamine agonist - methylphenidate/dextroamphetamine, bromocriptine, amantadine

162
Q

Which receptors causes glaucoma?

163
Q

Adrenergic Antagonist

A

Alpha blockers - prazosin, terasozin, tamsulosin = floppy iris syndrome, acts on a1

Beta blockers - propranolol, labetalol, atenolol, metoprolol
= bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, impotence, erectile dysfunction, exacerbate MG

164
Q

Beta blockers that are B1 selective - which beta blocker effects IOP the least?

A

BEAM of B1 blockers

  • Betaxolol
  • Atenolol
  • Metoprolol
165
Q

Antihistamines

A

Topical - emedastine (always used in combo never by itself), alo, alo, ala crom, BEZPOP

1st - pro

2nd - cetirizine, fexofenadine, loratidine

166
Q

Which drugs stabilize voltage gated ca channels?

A

Mast cell stabilizers - alocril, alomide, alomast, cromolyn sodium

“ALOMASK”

167
Q

What cause thiamine deficiency?

A

chronic alcholism resulting in acute presentation of wernickes encephtalopathy
- withdrawal is life threatening

168
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

ophthalmoplegia confusion ataxia due to alcoholism

169
Q

Korsafkoff syndrome

A

associated with alcoholism
- amensia confabulation

170
Q

Opiods/Morphine withdrawal sx

A

mydriasis, anxiety, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, sweating, tremor, nausea/vomiting
- withdrawal is non-life threatening
- increases heart rate/BP

171
Q

Cocaine

A

blocks dopamine/NE uptake in reward centers of the brain
- increase sympathetic
- can cause mydriasis, elevation in mood, tremors, chest pain, heart palp
- withdrawal is non-life threatening

172
Q

“zosin” drugs

A

alpha 1 blockers = relax smooth muscle bladder & prostate to decrease urinary outflow obstruction
- Prazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin
- bucket #4
SE: orthostatic hypotension, FES

173
Q

PDE-5 Inhibitors

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil
- relaxes smooth muscle in the penis during an erection
- SE flushing, HAs, priapism, NAION, cyanopsia, blurred vision, photosensitivity

174
Q

levothyroxine

A
  • synthetic T4 hormone for hypothyroidism, Hashimotos thyroiditis
  • SE = hypothyroidism sx, psueduotumor cerebri in children
175
Q

Drugs that treat CHF

A

ABCD + hydralazine

A = ACE INHIBITORS & ARBS
B = beta blockers
C = Calcium channel blockers
D = Diuretics/Digoxin/
vasoDilators

ALL DROP BLOOD PRESSURE EXCEPT DIGOXIN

176
Q

ACE inhibitors think AAA

A
  • pril

A = Antihypertensive (lowers BP)
A = Avoid pregnancy
A = Adds potassium “ hyperkalemia

177
Q

Beta blockers

MOA and SE

A
  • lol, block beta receptors

L = LOWERS HR
L = LOWERS BP

decreases resistance, workload, and cardiac output = AVOID IN PTS WITH CARDIAC PROBLEMS

Dyspnea, wheezing, syncope, arrhythmias, impotence, erectile dysfunction, fatigue, disorientation

think BBBB (Avoid in pts)
B = bradycardia
B = breathing problems
B = Bad for heart failure pts
B = blood sugar masking

178
Q

Calcium Channel blockers

A

Lowers HR and BP
- Nifedipine, cardizem, verapamil
- stops effects of angiotensin II

  • low tension glaucoma, HAs
179
Q

Digoxin

A

Lowers HR
- cardiac glycoside
D = DEEP contraction, helps w/ forceful contraction or pts with low systolic pressure

  • vision changes, nausea, dizziness,

THIS IS A TOXIN:
- retrobulbar ON
- color defects b/y
- entoptic phenomenon

180
Q

Vasodilators

A

Nitroglycerin, Hydralazine, Isosorbide

  • lowers BP and relaxes the heart
  • also given for chest pains
181
Q

Diuretics

A

D = decrease BP
D = Drain fluid (pee)
D = Dehydrates (dries body)

182
Q

K+ wasting diuretic

A

-IDE
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide

NOT isosorbide (VASODILATOR)

183
Q

Potassium sparing

A

Spironolactone, spares K+

AVOID GREEN LEAFS
Potassium pumps muscles

184
Q

What do we look for in a kidney lab?

A

BUN and Creatinine

185
Q

Mannitol

A

Osmotic diuretics, used for acute angle closure glc

186
Q

Warfarin

A

anticoagulant

  • Inhibits clotting factor 2, 7, 9, 10, protein C and S
  • inhibit vit K-dependent gamma-carboxylation of these molecules
  • without this carboxylation, these factors are unable to bind to endothelial surface of blood vessels to contribute to clotting
187
Q

Valacyclovir

A
  • pro drug of acyclovir
  • high bioavailability and requires less frequent dosing
  • 1 gram TID for 7-14 days
  • pregnancy category B drug
188
Q

What causes bulls eye maculopathy?

A

chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine

189
Q

What drug causes salt and pepper pigmentary changes in the midperipheral retina

A

Thioridazine

190
Q

What causes crystalline maculopathies?

A

Tamoxifen and canthaxanthin

191
Q

What can Pilocarpine be used for?

A

Direct cholinergic agonist (directly binds to ach receptors)
- tx dry eye and dry mouth (sjogren’s)
- 0.125% can be used to dx Adies tonic pupil
- dysphotopia post cataract sx

KMK (18 decks)

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