pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Antimetabolite (mycophenolate or azathioprine)

A

Synthetic derivative of mycophenolic acid
noncompetitive reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase ◦ inhibits DNA replication
◦ suppress B- and T-cell proliferation.
Adverse effects
◦ GIT: nausea & diarrhea
◦ Haematologic: cytopenias

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2
Q

Calcineurin inhibitor (tacrolimus or cyclosporine)

A

Calcineurin inhibitors
major mode of action is inhibition of the production of cytokines involved in the regulation of T-cell activation. In particular, cyclosporine inhibits the transcription of interleukin 2.

Uses
◦ Steroid resistant/dependent nephrotic syndrome (Steroid sparing)
◦ Transplantation
Toxicity
◦ Nephrotoxicity
◦ Hypertension, hyperlipidaemia
◦ Hirsuitism,Gingivalhyperplasia(seenmorewithciclosporin) ◦ Neurotoxicity, tremor
◦ Electrolyte disturbances: hypomagnesaemia
◦ Insulinresistance
Drug interactions
◦ Cytochrome p450

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3
Q

Furosemide

A

potent loop diuretic. It inhibits sodium and chloride absorption in the ascending limb of Henle’s loop and in both the proximal and distal tubules. The high degree of efficacy is due to this unique site of action. The action on the distal tubule is independent of any inhibitory effect on carbonic anhydrase or aldosterone.
Furosemide (frusemide) may promote diuresis in cases which have previously proved resistant to other diuretics.
Furosemide (frusemide) has no significant pharmacological effects other than on renal function.

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4
Q

Thiazide diuretic

A

hydrochlorpthiazide
indications: Hypertension.
May be used alone or in combination with other antihypertensive drugs.
Oedema.mAssociated with congestive heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, acute glomerulonephritis, chronic renal failure, premenstrual tension, and drug induced oedema.
MOA: Dithiazide interferes with the distal renal tubular mechanism of electrolyte reabsorption (Na/Cl from distal tubule so water follows Na). This compound increases the excretion of sodium and chloride in approximately equivalent amounts. Natriuresis may be accompanied by some loss of potassium, magnesium and bicarbonate. Urinary calcium excretion may be decreased.
Thiazide: hypocalciuric Smaller natriuretic effect
effect on HTN is unknown but it works

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5
Q

DDAVP/ADH

A

cranial diabetes insipidus;
primary nocturnal enuresis in patients from 6 years of age with normal ability to concentrate urine, who are refractory to an enuresis alarm or in whom an enuresis alarm is contraindicated or inappropriate.
MOA: By mimicking the actions of endogenous ADH, desmopressin acts as a selective agonist of V2 receptors expressed in the renal collecting duct (CD) to increase water re-absorption and reduce urine production.

=ADH
•Synthesised in hypothalamus•Stored posterior pituitary
•Short T ½ in circulation (15-20 min)
•Stimulated by
•hypovolemia(carotid baroreceptors)& •hyperosmolality(Na+ osmoreceptors)•Many others…stress, nausea, pain, drugs (carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, cyclophosphamide, vincristine), opioids, AngioII

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6
Q

Aldosterone

A

mineralocorticoid: Acting on the nuclear mineralocorticoid receptors (MR) within the principal cells of the distal tubule and the collecting duct of the kidney nephron, it upregulates and activates the basolateral Na+/K+ pumps, which pumps three sodium ions out of the cell, into the interstitial fluid and two potassium ions into the cell from the interstitial fluid. This creates a concentration gradient which results in reabsorption of sodium (Na+) ions and water (which follows sodium) into the blood, and secreting potassium (K+) ions into the urine (lumen of collecting duct).
Aldosterone upregulates epithelial sodium channels (ENaCs) in the collecting duct and the colon, increasing apical membrane permeability for Na+ and thus absorption.
Cl− is reabsorbed in conjunction with sodium cations to maintain the system’s electrochemical balance.
Aldosterone stimulates the secretion of K+ into the tubular lumen.[11]
Aldosterone stimulates Na+ and water reabsorption from the gut, salivary and sweat glands in exchange for K+.
Aldosterone stimulates secretion of H+ via the H+/ATPase in the intercalated cells of the cortical collecting tubules
Aldosterone upregulates expression of NCC in the distal convoluted tubule chronically and its activity acutely.[12]

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7
Q

prostaglandin 2

A

Prostaglandins (PGs) with best-defined renal functions are PGE2 and prostacyclin (PGI2). These vasodilatory PGs increase renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate under conditions associated with decreased actual or effective circulating volume, resulting in greater tubular flow and secretion of potassium. Under conditions of decreased renal perfusion, the production of renal PGs serves as an important compensatory mechanism. PGI2 (and possibly PGE2) increases potassium secretion mainly by stimulating secretion of renin and activating the renin-angiotensin system, which leads to increased secretion of aldosterone.

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8
Q

ACE inhibitor

A

Renin catalytically cleaves these circulating angiotensinogen and forms angiotensin I. Angiotensin-converting enzymes then convert angiotensin I to its physiologically active form, angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes contraction of the muscles surrounding blood vessels, effectively narrowing vessels and increasing blood pressure. It also stimulates the release of aldosterone, which stimulates water and sodium reabsorption, thereby, increasing blood volume and blood pressure.

ACE inhibitors stimulate the dilation of blood vessels by inhibiting the production of angiotensin II.

ACE inhibitor lisinopril effectively reduces blood pressure and proteinuria in renal disease. The latter effect is not only the result of a lower blood pressure, but is probably also due to a fall in intraglomerular capillary pressure.

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9
Q

Amiloride

A

Amiloride: inhibits ENaC, which means Na can’t get into the collecting tubule lumen and the water stays outside with it. K+ sparing

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10
Q

spironolactone

A

Spironolactone: Competes with ALDO-R. K+ sparing
Aldosterone takes Na–> water out of the collecting tubule and into the blood, so the water stays in the urine, but the k is still being pumped actively into the blood.

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11
Q

Eculizumab

A

Eculizumab is an anti-C5 antibody that inhibits complement activation. Eculizumab is used to treat atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS) and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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12
Q

Methotrexate

A

Mechanism of immunomodulatory effects in autoimmune diseases is unclear and may differ from its action as a folic acid antagonist in cancer treatment; it suppresses inflammation and immune responses.
– Most commonly used for JIA and uveitis
– S/E: nausea, GI upset, LFT ↑, haem abn
– Folic acid supplementation to alleviate GI S/E
– Monitor FBP and LFTs at least 3 monthly
– Previous recommendation to avoid live vaccines* – Ok to stop temporarily if fevers
– Teratogenic

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13
Q

Anakinra

A

mode of action: Recombinant form of human interleukin‑1 (IL‑1) receptor antagonist; it neutralises the activity of IL‑1, which is involved in acute inflammatory response.

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14
Q

Abatacept

A

Co-stimulation modulator; binds to CD80 and CD86 on antigen-presenting cells, which prevents full activation of CD28 T lymphocytes, thus reducing cytokine production and inflammation.

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15
Q

Tocilizumab

A

Binds to and inhibits the activity of interleukin‑6 (IL‑6), a cytokine involved in the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) and giant cell arteritis (GCA).
precautions: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) <2x109/L—starting tocilizumab is not recommended as it can cause neutropenia; do not use when <0.5x109/L.

Platelets <100x109/L—use tocilizumab cautiously as it can cause thrombocytopenia; do not use when <50x109/L.

Previous TNF-alpha antagonist treatment—may be at greater risk of infections and neutropenia with tocilizumab.

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16
Q

Adalimumab

A

Bind to TNF alpha and inhibit its activity. TNF alpha is a cytokine involved in inflammatory and immune responses and in the pathogenesis of diseases such as psoriasis, rheumatoid and psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease.

Precautions: disease activity.

Heart failure—contraindicated in moderate or severe heart failure (NYHA class III–IV) and left ventricular ejection fraction <50%; use cautiously in mild disease as TNF-alpha antagonists may worsen heart failure.

Treatment with other immunosuppressants—increases risk of infection; use with another cytokine modulator is not recommended. TNF-alpha antagonists are contraindicated with anakinra; golimumab is contraindicated with abatacept.

History of blood dyscrasias—rare cases of serious blood dyscrasias (some fatal) have been reported; monitor complete blood count regularly.

Respiratory disease—may be at increased risk of interstitial lung disease with TNF-alpha antagonists.

Antibodies against double-stranded DNA (eg lupus)—TNF-alpha antagonists are associated with the formation of autoantibodies. They may worsen or induce a lupus-like syndrome.

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17
Q

Etanercept

A

Bind to TNF alpha and inhibit its activity. TNF alpha is a cytokine involved in inflammatory and immune responses and in the pathogenesis of diseases such as psoriasis, rheumatoid and psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease.

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18
Q

Infliximab

A

Bind to TNF alpha and inhibit its activity. TNF alpha is a cytokine involved in inflammatory and immune responses and in the pathogenesis of diseases such as psoriasis, rheumatoid and psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease.

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19
Q

Biologics side effects

A

Localized injection site pain, rash, swelling
• Minor: transient fever, abdominal pain, nausea, headache
• Abnormal FBP, UEC, LFT
• Infections: lower threshold for treating infections
• Serious adverse effects are rare – malignancy, serious infections

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20
Q

what is V and how is it calculated?

A
V= volume of drug in th ebody (vol distribution)
V= Vplasma x [v tissue x (conc. tissue x conc plasma)]
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21
Q

what is k and what does it mean?

A

k is the extraction constant ans means the time in hours for the drug to leave the body. k = 0.2hr-1 means 20% per hour

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22
Q

What is Cl how is it calculared?

A

Cl = blood flow x extraction (q x e) is clearance from the body

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23
Q

t1/2

A

time for half the original dose to leave the body. t1/2 = 0.693/k

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24
Q

What is AUC?

A

the amount of drug in the body x infinity

CL = F. D(ose) / AUV

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25
Q

what is bioavailability and how is it calculated?

A

the amount of a drug that will make it to the central compartment (plasma)
F= AUCev/AUCiv x Doseiv/Doseev

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26
Q

what is the hepatic extraction ratio?

A

Eh = fu (fraction unbound) x Clint (intrinsic clearance)/ Q (blood flow) x (fu x clint)
so if Eh is high,

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27
Q

What are the most common side effects of SSRIs in children?

A
  1. behavioural activation (silliness, hypomania)
  2. GI symptoms
  3. restlessness
  4. diaphoresis and tremr
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28
Q

IL-1 inhibitor

A

Anakinra
- RA and neonatal onset multisystem inflammatory disease

Rikonacept
cryopyrin assoc. periodic syndrome

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29
Q

IL-2 Inhibitor

A

Basiliximab
anti CD-25 antibody
immunosuppression in kidney transplants

Daclizumab
anti CD-25 antibody
relapsing forms of MS

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30
Q

IL-6 inhibitor

A

Tocilizumab - Il-6 receptor antagonist used to treat cytokine release syndrome, SJA, Giant Cell arteritis and RA

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31
Q

Canakinumab

A

An interleukin-1β blocker used to treat Periodic Fever Syndromes such as Cryopyrin-Associated Periodic Syndromes (CAPS) and Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF), and also to treat active Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (SJIA).

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32
Q

Ustekinumab

A

a targeted antibody therapy used to manage inflammatory conditions such as plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, Crohn’s Disease, and ulcerative colitis.

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33
Q

Rilonacept

A

IL1 beta, IL1 alpha,

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34
Q

Infliximab

A

anti TNF-alpha

Bind to TNF alpha and inhibit its activity. TNF alpha is a cytokine involved in inflammatory and immune responses and in the pathogenesis of diseases such as psoriasis, rheumatoid and psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis and inflammatory bowel disease.

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35
Q

Thiopentane

A

Potentiates action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA at multiple sites in the CNS, resulting in sedative, hypnotic, anaesthetic and anticonvulsant effects. It also depresses the actions of excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS. Redistribution of cerebral blood flow to injured areas may also be involved in its neuroprotective effect.

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36
Q

Meningitis treatment

A

Iv Cefriaxone and or Vanc

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37
Q

How do you treat dystonic reactions?

A

Benztropine

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38
Q

Antidote for TCA OD?

A

Sodium bicarbonate infusion

OD can cause QT prolongation and VT
Cholinergic (dry

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39
Q

Migraine medications

A
  1. simple analgesia, with or without metoclopramide to hasten absorption (increase gastric motility)
  2. Ergotamine (5HT1D receptor partial antagonist)
  3. Sumatriptan, zolmitriptan
Prophylaxis
B blockade (propanalol, metoprolol)
pizotifen (5HT2 receptor antagonist)
cryptoheptadine (antihistamin)
clonidine or tricyclic ad, verapamil
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40
Q

CYP450 inhibitors

A
Fluvoxamine (2C19)
Fluconazole (2C9)
Intraconazole, Clarithromycin, Ritonavir (3A4/5)
Amiodarone (1A2)
Quinidine, piroxitine (2D6)
Disulfan (2E1)
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41
Q

Common CYP450 Inducers

A

Rifampicin and Carbamazepine (non specific an many)
Omeprazole (3A4/5)
Ethanol (2E1)

42
Q

Substrates most common affected by the common inducers and inhibitors?

A

Amiodaone, Citalopram, diazepam, omeprazole, Naproxen, Warfarin, phenytoinm nifedipine, erythromycin, cyclosporin, caffeine, theophylline, despirimine, paroxetine, Flecanaide, Chlorzazone, ethanol, halothene, Elfaviririaz

43
Q

Omalizumab

A

monoclonal antibody targeting circulating IgE

44
Q

Methylphenidate MoA

A

( Ritalin ) inhibits the Noradrenaline ET and Dopamine AT (uptake) transporters on the neuronal plasma membrane. Unlike the amphetamines, methylphenidate is not a substrate for these transporters and thus does not enter the nerve terminals to facilitate noradrenaline (NA) and dopamine (DA) release

45
Q

Modafanil

A

Inhibition of DA and NA iptake

46
Q

Amphetamine and Dexamphetamine

A

Release of DA and NA

Inhibition of DA and NA uptake

47
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Muscarinic agonist

used in glaucoma

48
Q

Timolol

A

B-adrenoceptor antagonist

49
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic ANTAGONIST
Non-selective antagonist
Well absorbed orally
CNS stimulant
Atropine causes tachycardia through block of cardiac mAChRs. The tachycardia is modest, up to 80–90 beats/min in humans, since it has no effect on the sympathetic system, but only inhibition of tonic parasympathetic tone. Arterial blood pressure and the response of the heart to exercise are unaffected.
Bronchial, biliary and urinary tract smooth muscle are all relaxed by atropine. Reflex bronchoconstriction (e.g. during anaesthesia) is prevented by atropine

50
Q

oxybutynin

A

Muscarinic antagonist works on smooth muscle and relaxes bladder

51
Q

Suxamethonium

A

neuromuscular junction block

52
Q

Pancuronium
Atracurium
Vecuronium

A

NMJ transmission block

53
Q

catcholamines

A

noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
adrenaline (epinephrine) secreted by chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla
Dopamine (metabolic precurser of noradrenaline and adrenaline)
isoprenaline (synthetics derivative of noradrenaline

54
Q

selective alpha 1 adrenergic agonists

A

phenylephrine

mexthoamine

55
Q

selective alpha 2 agonists

A

clonidine

56
Q

selective beta 1 agonists

A

dobutamine

57
Q

selective beta 2 agonists

A

salbutamol, terbutaline, salmeterol, formeterol

58
Q

selevtice alpha1 antagonist

A

prazosin, doxazocin

59
Q

selective beta 1 antagonist

A

atenelol, metoprolol

60
Q

propanalol

A

non selective b antagonist
used for: hypertension, dysrythmias, anxietym tremor, glaucoma, infantile haemangioma
unwanted effects: broncoconstriction, cardiac failure, fatigue, hypoglucaemia

61
Q

infantile haemangioma

A

propanalol probable importance of β-adrenoceptor-mediated trophic actions, at the least in this paediatric endothelial tumour.

62
Q

atomoxetine

A

indirectly acting sympathetomimetic agents - CNS stimulant, ADHD treamtnet (along with methylphenidate)

63
Q

what is the normal daily requirement of ireon?

A

15mg per day

64
Q

where is folic acid absorbed?

A

in the terminal ileum

65
Q

what does Vitamin b12 do?

A

corrects pernicious anaemia
- required for the conversion of methyl-FH4 (inactive formylFH4, which after polyglutamation, is a cofactor in the synthesis of purines and pyrimadines
- isomerisation of methylmalonylCoA to succinyl-CoA
deficiency occurs most often in pernicious anaemia.

66
Q

what is the first line treatment for sever croup in the short term?
moderate croup in the medium to long term?

A

The administration of nebulised adrenaline to patients with moderate to severe croup often results in rapid improvement of upper airway obstruction. Adrenaline constricts precapillary arterioles in the upper airway mucosa and decreases capillary hydrostatic pressure, leading to fluid resorption and improvement in airway oedema. Even a modest increase in airway diameter can lead to significant clinical improvement. Croup symptoms are generally significantly improved at 20 to 30 minutes. However, by two hours, croup scores returned to baseline or near baseline. Adrenaline does not alter the natural history of croup in the short (>2 hours) or longer term (24 to 36 hours).

provide long-lasting and effective treatment of mild, moderate, and severe croup. The anti-inflammatory actions of corticosteroids are thought to decrease oedema in the laryngeal mucosa of children with croup. Improvement is usually evident within six hours of administration but seldom is dramatic.

67
Q

What are the most likely drug causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

valproic acid, l -asparaginase, 6-mercaptopurine, and azathioprine

68
Q

Atomoxetine (Straterra)

A

Second line for ADHD
○ NA reuptake inhibitor ○ Like a tricyclic antidepressant . significant anxiety and parental concerns OR severe Tourette’s syndrome ○ S/E : NO appetite suppression

69
Q

Methylphenidate

A

○ Dopamine reuptake inhibitor, some affect of NA

○ Short, medium, long acting

70
Q

dexamphetamine

A

Dopamine reuptake inhibitor, some affect of NA

71
Q

Risperidone

A

MOA: decrease dopaminergic and serotonergic pathway activity in the brain
Side effects: weight gain, prolactin, metabolic syndrome, activating (akisthesia/restlessnes), sedation, angiodema. Assess for metabolic syndrome. extrapyrimidal side effects.

72
Q

olanzipine

A

second generation of antipsychotics: It works on dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway as an antagonist, blocking dopamine from potential action at the post-synaptic receptor.

73
Q

Aripiprazole

A

Lowering dopaminergic neurotransmission in the mesolimbic pathway. Enhancing dopaminergic activity in the mesocortical pathway.
less weight gain

74
Q

SSRI

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitory

75
Q

What ADHD medication is most likely to cause suicidal ideation?

A

Atomoxetine

76
Q

side effects of clonidine?

A

Alpha-adrenergic agonist
- used for ADHD management and in paediatrics but not typically first line. cuses sedation and somnolence so used for sleep initiation

77
Q

Guanfacine

A

Alpha2-adrenergy agonist. ADHD management, not typically first line. optimal for tics and tourettes syndrome comorbidities. stimulant diversion or misuse is a concern. may be used as monotherapy or as an adjunctive with ongoing stimulant

78
Q

Which anti-epileptic is associated with the highest risk of congenital malformations?

A

sodium valproate and the carbamazipine

the safest are keppra and topiramate

79
Q

what are the beta lactams?

A

1) penicillins
2) cephalosporins
3) carbapenems
4) monobactams

80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of beta lactams

A
  • Blactam ring
  • Bacterial cell walls = peptidoglycan polymer chains with D-ala D-ala portion
  • B lactam ring resembles D-ala D-ala - inserts + prevents normal synthesis
  • Act on rapidly dividing cells
81
Q

What are the mechanisms of resistance for beta lactams

A

1) beta-lactamase: Staph, E.Coli, H.influenzae, N. gonorrhoae, klebsiella)  open b lactam ring
1 a - Flucloxacillin resistant to blactamase (prevent binding)
1 b- lactamase inhibitors (clavulanate) bind  lactamase 1st
2) Altered penicillin-binding proteins (pneumococcus, MRSA)
• reduced outer membrane permeability (enterobacter, pseudomonas)

82
Q

what are the narrow spectum penicillins?

A
Narrow spectrum
•	Benzathine penicillin (IM 4 weekly)
•	Procaine penicillin (IM daily)
•	Benzylpenicillin G (IV)
•	Penicillin V (PO qid)
83
Q

What do the narrow spectum penicillins cover?

Ben Pen/Belzylpen/ Penicillin V

A

lots of gram pos cover +++
All Strep
Staph saprophyticus
Enterococcus (penicillin G)

NOT
b lactamases (Staph)

Grem neg
Meningococcus

84
Q

what are the anti-staphylococcal penicillins

A
Anti-staphylococcal penicillins
•	B lactamase unable to bind
•	Flucloxacillin
	GI upset, cholestatic jaundice
•	Dicloxacillin
	Phlebitis, interstitial nephritis
•	Methacillin
	Active but toxic
85
Q

What do the anti staphylococcal penicillins cover?

fluclox/methycillin

A

PUS
Staph
Strep pyogenes only

NOT
Enterococcus
Listeria
Strep pneumoniae
Strep viridans
Group B Strep 
MRSA
86
Q

What are the moderate spectrum penicillins?

A
Moderate spectrum penicillins
•	Hydrophilic- pass through pores in G-
•	Amoxycillin
-	high oral absorption
•	Ampicillin (IV)
87
Q

What do the moderate spectrum penicillins cover?

-amox/

A

gram pos: Strep all
Staph saprophyticus
Enterococcus
Listeria

NOT
B lactamases

gram neg
Meningococcus
Haemophilus
E. Coli

88
Q

Broad spectrum penicillins

A
  • Piperacillin

* Ticarcillin

89
Q

What do the broad spectum penicillins cover (Pipeacillin/Ticarcillin)

A
gram pos
Strep
Staph saprophyticus
Enterococcus
Listeria
gram neg
Most G- (including pseudomonas)
NOT
Meningococcus
Gonococcus
Camplyobacter
Moraxella
90
Q

what antibiotic is most likely to cause biliary sludge?

A

ceftriazone

- bikiary lithiasis, increased bilirubin, gallstones, gallbladder sludge

91
Q

side effects of clindamycin?

A

jaudice, raised LFTs, hepatotoxicity

92
Q

side effects of erythromycin?

A

risk of hepatic impairment, jaundice, QT prolongation and assoc with pyloric stenosis if given within the first 2 weeks of life

93
Q

side effects of metronidazole?

A

dark urine, metallic taste, glossitis, furry tongue, optic neuritis, CNS toxicity, peripheral neuropathy.

94
Q

side effects of cotrimoxazole

A

Hepatotoxicity (including hepatitis, cholestasis, and hepatic necrosis), hyperbilirubinemia, transaminases increased, hemolysis with G6PD deficiency, risk of crystalluria in patients with renal impairment

95
Q

how does botulism neurotoxin work?

A

Botulism neurotoxin binds to the synaptotagmin II receptor on the presynaptic side of peripheral cholinergic synapses at ganglia and neuromuscular junctions. The light chain of the toxin translocates into the cell via receptor mediated endocytosis. Results in disruption of stimulation induced acetylcholine release by that presynaptic nerve.

96
Q

Carbimazole mechanism of action?

A

Carbimazole is metabolised to methimazole which is responsible for its antithyroid action. It blocks the production of thyroid hormones by inhibiting thyroid peroxidase.
Absorption: Rapid from the GIT (oral); peak plasma concentrations after 1-2 hrs.
Distribution: High concentrations in the thyroid gland; crosses the placenta; enters breast milk.
Metabolism: Hepatic; converted to methimazole.
Excretion: Urine (<12% unchanged drug); 3-6 hrs (elimination half-life).

97
Q

which are the Time-Dependent Killing antibiotics?

A

AUC is most important for penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams), clindamycin, macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin), oxazolidinones (linezolid), can be effective because of the extensive amount of time the antibiotic binds to the microorganism. The inhibitory effect can be effective because their concentration exceeds the MIC for the microorganism.

98
Q

what are the concentration dependent killing antibiotics

A

Other classes of antibiotics, such as aminoglycosides and quinolones, have high concentrations at the binding site which eradicates the microorganism and, hence, these drugs are considered to have a different kind of bacterial killing, named concentration-dependent killing. For concentration-dependent agents, the pharmacodynamic parameter can be simplified as a peak/MIC ratio

99
Q

Ivakaftor

A

holds the gate open G551D gating mutation

type 3, restoring channel conductance (no function, but in the right place)

100
Q

Lumakaftor

A
Orkambi - lumakaftor/ivakaftor for DeltaF508
no traffic (incorrect folding)
101
Q

Tezakaftor

A

deltaF508 helps hold the protein form the right shape, traffic to teh cell surface and stay there longer (less side effects)

102
Q

triple therapy (trikafta)

A

Ivkaftor/Tezakaftor and Elexakaftor