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Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Hematopoetic growth factor for RBC

A

Erythropoetin
+epoetin
+ darbopoetin

With anemia due to chronic renal failure

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2
Q

Hematopoetic growth factor (WBC G.CSF)

A

Filgastrin, pegfilgrastin

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3
Q

Hematopoetic growth factor (WBC GM.CSF)

A

Sargramostin, molgramostin

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4
Q

Hematopoetic growth( platelet) for chemo therapy induced thrombocytopenia

A

IL ll

Oprelvekin

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5
Q

Hematopoetic growth( platelet) thrombopoetin analogue

A

Romiplostin

Eltromopag

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6
Q

Anti platelet drug

Cox inhibitors

A

Aspirin

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7
Q 
Antiplatelet drug
PDE inhibitor (phosphodiesterase 3)
A

Dipyridamol

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8
Q

ADP (P2Y12) Inhibitor

A

Reversible= TICAGRELOR, CANGRELOR

Irreversible= TICLOPIDINE, CLOPIDOGREL, PRASUGREL

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9
Q

Gp llb/llla inhibitor

A

ABCIXIMAB, TIROFIBAN, EPTIFIBATIDE

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10
Q

PAR1 Aantagonist

A

ETOPAXAR, VORAPAXER

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11
Q

Adverse effect of Ticlopidine

A

Severe neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

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12
Q

Which haematopoietic growth factor “peptibodies”

A

ROMIPLOSTIM

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13
Q

Oral anticoagulants

A

Vitamin K antagonist
Factor XA antagonist
Direct thrombin inhibitor

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14
Q

Vitamin K antagonist

A

Warfarin
Dicumarol
Phenidione

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15
Q

F-XA Antagonist

A

RIVAROXABAN

APIXABAN

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16
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitor better

A

XIMELAGATRAN
DABIGATRAN
ETEXILATE

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17
Q

Parenteral anticoagulant

A

Hirudin
Lepirudin
Bivalurudin

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18
Q

Indirect thrombin inhibitor ( parental anticoagulants)

A

Unfractionated heparin
Low molecular weight heparin
IDRAPARINUX, FONDAPARINUX

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19
Q

Mechanism of action of warfarin

A

Warfarin blocks VKOR that is vitamin kepoxide reductase

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20
Q

Factor seven of clotting factor has half life of

A

Six hours

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21
Q

Half life of fact or ll of clotting factor

A

60 hours

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22
Q

internationalise normalised ratio is

A

Prothrombin time of patient / prothrombin time of reference

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23
Q

Is heparin safe in pregnancy

A

Yes.it doesn’t cross the placenta

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24
Q

Drug of choice in heparin overdose

A

PROTAMINE SULFATE

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25
Q

Haemorrhage occurring secondary to heparin therapy is treated by

A

Whole blood

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26
Q

Antibiotic that decreases ferrous absorption is

A

Tetracycline

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27
Q

Iron preparation that can be given i.v.

A

Iron dextran

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28
Q

Hydroxy Ethyl starch is a

A

Plasma expander

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29
Q

Drug of choice in iron deficiency anaemia

A

Ferrous sulphate

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30
Q

Drug of choice in anaemia due to chronic kidney disease

A

Erythropoetin

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31
Q

Drug of choice in acute iron poisoning

A

DESFERROXAMINE

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32
Q

Drug of choice in chronic Iron poisoning

A

DEFERPIRONE

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33
Q

Drug of choice in DVT for prophylaxis

A

Warfarin

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34
Q

Drug of choice in DVT for initial therapy

A

Warfarin and low molecular weight heparin

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35
Q

Drug of choice in pulmonary embolism

A

Low molecular weight heparin

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36
Q

Drug of choice in myocardial infarction

A

Aspirin for prophylaxis

Thrombolytic for acute STEMI

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37
Q

Rapidly acting insulin

A

Lispro
Apart
Glulisin

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38
Q

Short acting insulin

A

Regular insulin

Semi lente

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39
Q

Intermediate acting insulin

A

NPH
Isophane
Lente

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40
Q

Long acting Insulin

A

Ultra Lente
Glargine
Degludec
Detimir

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41
Q

Glucagon like peptide

A

Exenatide

Livaglutide

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42
Q

Sulfonyl ureas 1st generation

A

Chlorpropamide

Tolbutamide

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43
Q

Sulfonyl ureas 2nd generation

A

Glibenclamide
Glicazide
Glipizide

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44
Q

Meglitinides

A

Repaglinide

NateGlinide

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45
Q

Biguanides

A

Metformin

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46
Q

Function an adverse affect of metformin

A

It activates Adenosine mono phosphate kinase

A/E Lactic acidosis
Megaloblastic anaemia

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47
Q

Thiazoledinediones

A

Pioglitazone

Rosiglitazone

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48
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

A

Acarbose

Miglitol

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49
Q

D2 agonist

A

Bromocriptine

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50
Q

DPP4 inhibitors ( dipeptidyl peptidase)

A

Sitagliptin
vildagliptin
Saxagliptin

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51
Q

SGLT 2 inhibitors

A

Dapagliflozin

Canagliflozin

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52
Q

Mechanism of action of Metformin

A

Activates AMPK (adenosin mono phosphate kinase)

Induces glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis decrease
Decreased glycogenolysis

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53
Q

Adverse effect of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

Megaloblastic aneamia

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54
Q

Mechanism of action of Thiozolidinediones

A

Activates receptor PPAR Gamma
(Peroxisomes proliferator activated receptor gamma)

Increases cholesterol levels( rosigitazone)

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55
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors mechanism of action

A

Inhibits conversion of complex carbohydrate to simple carbohydrates.
Absorption is inhibited

Adverse effect : flatulence

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56
Q

D2 agonist mechanism of action

A

Alters insulin resistance

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57
Q

DPP4 Inhibitors mechanism of action

A

Inhibit breakdown of GLP

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58
Q

SGLT 2 inhibitors mechanism of action

A

Inhibits glucose absorption

A/E increased UTI

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59
Q

Treatment for acute gout

A
  1. NSAIDS
  2. Steroid
  3. Colchicine (most rapidly acting), (A/E : Diarrhoea, renal impairment)
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60
Q

Treatment for chronic gout

A

Allopurinol (purine)

Febuxostat( non purine)

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61
Q

Drugs that increase excretion of uric acid

A

Probenecid
Sulfinpyrazone
Benzbromarone
Lesinurad

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62
Q

Drugs that increase metabolism of uric acid

A

Rasburicase

Pegloticase

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63
Q

Treatment of parkinsonism

A
  1. Dopa decarboxylase: carbidopa, benserazide
  2. MAO-B inhibitors: selegeline, rasagiline
  3. COMT inhibitors: Entacapone, Tolcapone
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64
Q

Drugs acting on receptors of dopamine for Parkinsonism

A

Ergot derivative: Bromocriptine, pergolide ( stopped because causes gangrene and digital spasm)
Non ergot derivative: pramipexole, Ropimirole

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65
Q

Antitusives

A
  1. Opioid: codiene, pholcodiene
  2. Non opioid: Noscapine, Dextromethorphan
  3. Peripheral acting: prenoxdiazine
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66
Q

Expectorant

A

Guafenesin

KI

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67
Q

Mucolytics

A

Ambroxol

Bromohexine

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68
Q

Drugs for bronchial asthma

A

Anti IgE: Omalizumab
Mast cell stabilisers: Na chromoglycate, nedocromil, ketotifen
LT receptor antagonist: Montelukast, Zafirlukast

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69
Q

5- LOX pathway blocker

A

Zileuton

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70
Q

Bronchodilator (Beta agonist)

A
  1. Short acting: Salbutamol, Terbutaline

2. Long acting: Salmeterol, Formetrol

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71
Q

Bronchodilator ( anti cholinergic)

A

Ipratropium

Tiatropium

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72
Q

Bronchodilator ( Methylxanthine)

A

Caffeine
Theophylin
Amylophylin
Theobromin

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73
Q

Bronchodilator ( Beta agonist A/E)

A 
Hyperglycaemia
Hypokalaemia
Muscle tremors
Palpitations
Tolerance
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74
Q

Drugs of choice for Asthma

A

Acute: salbutamol
Prophylactic: corticosteroids

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75
Q

Drugs for status asthmaticus

A
  1. Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 100mg iv stat followed by 100-200mg 4-8hourly infusion
  2. Nebulised salbutamol + Ipratropium bromide
  3. High flow humidified oxygen inhalation
76
Q

Mepolizumab Reslizumab

A

Against IL-5

77
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids

A

Beclomethasone
Budesonide
Cyclesonide( soft steroid)

78
Q

Systemic antacids

A

Na bicarbonate

79
Q

Local antacids

A

Gelosel/ Digene ( Al and Mg salts)

Simethicone ( Antifoaming agent)

80
Q

Drugs that decrease acid secretion

A

PPI
H2 blocker
Anticholinergic
Competitive K+ blocker

81
Q

PPI

A

Omeprazole
Pantoprazole
Rabeprazole
Lansopeazole

82
Q

PPI are substrate of

A

CYP2C19

CYP3A4 EXCEPT RABEPRAZOLE

83
Q

Active moiety of PPI

A

Sulfenamide(acts for 24to 48hours)

84
Q

Adverse effects of PPI

A

Decrease B12 absorption
Decrease Ca2+absorption
Can cause pnuemonia
Increases amount of Cl. Difficile bacteria

85
Q

Fastest acting PPI

A

Rabeprazole

86
Q

Most potent PPI

A

Lanoprazole

87
Q

H2 receptor blocker

A

Cimetidine

Famotidine (most potent)

88
Q

Adverse effects of cimetidine

A

Can cross BBB
Inhibit metabolism of ESTRADIOL & LACTOSE
Can cause impotence

89
Q

Anticholinergic for increased acid secretion

A

M1 receptor blocker- Pirenzepine, Telenzepine

90
Q

Competetive K+ blocker

A

Vonoprazan

Revaparazan

91
Q

Prostaglandins as anti ulcer drugs

A

Misoprostol (PGE1 analogue for NSAIDS INDUCED PEPTIC ULCER7
Emprostil
Rioprostil

92
Q

Ulcer protective drugs

A

Sucralfate (Active at ph 4)

Colloidal bismuth subcitrate (CBS)

93
Q

Adverse effect of CBS

A

Black tongue

Bismuth toxicity causing encephalopathy

94
Q

Ulcer healing drugs

A

Carbenoloxone

95
Q

Adverse effects of carbenoloxone

A

It displaces aldosterone from proton binding site:
Hypertension
Na & water retention
Hypokalaemia

96
Q

Anti helicobactor pylori drugs

A

C: clarithromycin 500mg
A: amoxicillin 1000mg or METRONIDAZOLE 500mg
P:PPI (LANSOPRAZOLE) 30mg
BD for 14days

97
Q

5HT3 Antagonist for anti emetic

A

Ondasetrone
Palanosetrone
Granicetrone

98
Q

Anti histaminic H1 for antiemetic

A

Promethazine
Diphenhydramine
Doxylamine (in morning sickness)
Meclozine (sea sickness)

99
Q

D2 antagonist for antiemtic

A

Chlorpromazine

Triflupromazine

100
Q

NK1 receptor antagonist for antiemetic

A

Aprepitant

Forapprepitant

101
Q

Cannabinoid receptor antagonist

A

Dronabinol

102
Q

Muscarinic receptor anatagonist for antiemetic

A

Hyosine (scopalamine) for motion sickness

Dicyclomine

103
Q

Prokinetic drugs

A

Act on 5HT4 receptor through Ach.

  1. Metoclopramide
  2. Domperidone
  3. Cisapride
  4. Mosapride
104
Q

DOC for motion sickness

A

Hyosine

Promethazine

105
Q

Drug of choice for morning sickness

A

Doxylamine + vit B6

106
Q

Radiation (CINV)

A

5HT3 Antagonist

107
Q

Severe vomiting with cisplatin

A

Aprepitant if after 2-3 days

5HT3Antagonist for immediate vomiting

108
Q

Drug for post operative

A

5HT3 Antagonist

109
Q

For GERD

A

Metoclopramide

110
Q

Adverse effects of metoclopramide

A

Muscular dystonia

Galactorhoea

111
Q

For ulcerative colitis

A

5ASA derivative (sulfasalazine)

112
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy ( too much NH3 production)

A

Lactulose (decreases NH3 production)

113
Q

Peptic ulcer drug of choice

114
Q

H. Pylori drug of choice

115
Q

ZES drug of choice

116
Q

GERD drug of choice

117
Q

Levadopa induced vomiting

A

Domperidone

118
Q

Migraine associated vomiting

A

Meoclopramide

119
Q

Drug or disease associated vomiting

A

Metocloparmide

120
Q

Chronic use of laxative can cause

A

Hypokalaemia

121
Q

High efficacy diuretics. (They block Na/K/Cl pump in ALH)

A

Furesamide
Bumitanide
Toresamide

122
Q

Medium efficacy diuretics ( They block Na/Cl pump in early distal tubule)

A
  1. Thiazide: hydrocholothiazide, Benzthiazide

2. Thiazide like: Chlorthilodone, Xipamide, Indapamide, Metolazone

123
Q

Weak diuretics

A
  1. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  2. K+ sparing
  3. Osmotic diuretics
124
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

Acetazolamide

125
Q

K+ sparing

A

Aldosterone antagonist: Spironoactone, Epleronone

Renal epithelial Na channel: Amiloride, Triamterene

126
Q

Osmotic diuretic

A

Mannitol
Glycerol
Isosorbide

127
Q

ACE Inhibitors

A

Captopril
Enalapril
Lisinopril

128
Q

Angiotensin receptor blocker

A

Losartan
Candisartan
Valsartan

129
Q

Alpha blocker for hypertension

A

Prazosin

Terazosin

130
Q

Alpha + Beta blocker for hypertension

A

Labetalol

Carvedilol

131
Q

Ca2+ channel blocker

A

Verapamil
Nifidipine
Diazepam

132
Q

Central sympatholytics

A

Chlonidine

Methyldopa

133
Q

Vasodilator dor hypertension

A

Arteriolar: Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Diazoxide

Arteriolar and venous: Na nitropruside

134
Q

Anti anginal drugs

A 
Nitrates 
Beta blockers
Ca2+ channel blocker
K+ channel opener
pFOX Inhibitors (partial fatty acid oxidation-inhibitor)
Na+ channel blocker
135
Q

Nitrates

A

Short acting: GTN

Long acting: isosorbide dinitrate,isosorbide mononitrate

136
Q

K+ channel opener

A

Nicorandil

137
Q

pFOX inhibitor ( partial fatty acid oxidation inhibitor

A

Trimetazidine

138
Q

Na+ channel blocker for anti angina drug

A

Ramolazine

Ivabradine (bradycardic drug)

139
Q

Anti arrhythmic drugs

A

Class 1: Na channel blocker
Class 2: Beta blocker
Class 3: K+ channel blocker (WIDEN THE ACTION POTENTIAL)
Class 4: Ca2+ channel blocker
Class 5: Miscellaneous = ADENOSIN, Mg, DIGOXINE

140
Q

Class 1 drug

A 
1a = moderate decrease in 0 phase eg. Quinidine, procainamide
1b = little decrease in the 0 phase eg. Lidocaine, Mexilitine
1c = marked decrease in 0 phase eg. propafenone, Flicanide, Encanide
141
Q

Class 3 anti arrhythmic drugs (BInDAS)

A 
Bretylium
Ibutilide
Dofetilide
Amiodarone
Sotalol
142
Q

Mechanism of action of DIGOXIN

A

Digitalis blocks Na+/K+ ATPase.

143
Q

Gp41 inhibitor

A

Enfuvirtide

144
Q

CCR5 inhibitor

145
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI nucleoside)

A 
Zidovudine
Stavudine
Lamivudine
Zalcitabine
Didanosine
Abacavir
Emtricitabine
146
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI NUCLEOTIDE)

147
Q

NNRTI

A

Efavirenz
Neviripine
Etravirine

148
Q

Integrase inhibitor

A

Raltagravir
Elvitagravir
Dolutigravir

149
Q

Protease inhi

A

Saquinavir
Ritonavir
Nelfinavir
Indinavir

150
Q

Anti retroviral therapy

A

2NRTI + 1NNRTI

151
Q

All anti tubercular drugs are bactericidal except

A

Ethambutol

152
Q

Isoniazid blocks the enzyme

A

Ketoenolreductase( responsible for mycolic acid production)

Isoniazid is activated by catalase peroxidase

153
Q

Adverse effects of Isoniazid

A
  1. Peripheral neuritis( treatment is pyridoxin 10mg/day)
    If patient has already developed peripheral neuritis 100mg/day
  2. Hepatotoxicity
  3. Acts on extracellular and intracellular bacilli
154
Q

Mechanism of action of RIFAMPIN

A

Blocks the enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase

  • Goes enterohepatic circulation therefore can be given to renal patients
  • Least toxic among all
  • best for bacteria in caseous necrosis
  • acts on both intracellular and extra cellular bacs.
155
Q

Pyrazinamide acts against

A

Intracellular bacterias

156
Q

Mechanism of action of PYRAZINAMIDE

A

Blocks the formation of mycolic acid.

  • most active in areas of inflammation or when pH is low
  • used for 1st 2 or 3 months of therapy
157
Q

Mechanism of action of ETHAMBULTOL

A

Blocks ARABINOCYL TRANSFERASES

158
Q

Adverse effect of ethambutol

A

Optic neuritis( avoided in children below 5years)

159
Q

Ethambutol active against

A

Intracellualr and extracellular bacteria

160
Q

Streptomycin against

A

Extracellular bacteria,
It’s injectable
It’s NOT hepatotoxic

161
Q

Class 1 TB drugs

A

First line oral TB drugs, anti TB

162
Q

Class2 TB drugs

A

Injectable. Amikacin
Streptokinase
Kanamycin

163
Q

Class 3 TB drugs

A

Fluroquinolones. Eg.
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin

164
Q

Class 4 TB drugs

A

Oral bacteriostatic, more adverse effects eg.
PAS
Cycloserine
Ethionamide

165
Q

Class 5 TB drugs

A

Uncertain efficacy eg. Augmentin, clarithromycin

166
Q

Regime for TB

A

Category 1: 2HRZE + 4HR

Category 2 : 2HRZES + 1HRZE

167
Q

Anti leprotic drug

A

DAPSONE
Rifampin
Clofazimine

168
Q

Adverse effect of death Dapsone

A

Gastrointestinal limitation

hemolysis in G6PD deficiency patient

169
Q

Adverse effect of Clofazimine

A

Pigmentation of skin and GI irritation

170
Q

Mechanism of action of clofazimine

A

It interferes with Template function of DNA

171
Q

Regime of multi bacillary leprosy MBL

A

Rifampin 600 MG once a month supervised

Clofazimine 300mg once a month supervised And 50 MG OD

Dapsone 100mg OD.

all for 12 months

172
Q

Pauci bacillary leprosy PBL

A

Rifampin 600 mg once a month Supervised

Dapsone 100mg OD

all for 6 months

173
Q

Drugs acting on cell walls Of fungus

A

Caspofungin

Nikkomycin

174
Q

Drugs acting on cell membrane

A

Polyenes: Amphitericin B, Nystatin
Azoles:
1. Triazoles= FLUCONAZOLE, ITRACONAZOLE, VAROCONAZOLE
2. Imidazoles= .ketoconazoles, miconazole, clotrimazole
Terbinafen

175
Q

Drugs on microtubules (anti fungal)

A

Griseofulvin

176
Q

Drugs that act on nucleic acid (anti-fungal)

A

5 – FLUCYTOSINE

177
Q

5-flucytosine DOC For

A

Candidiasis
Cryptococcosis
Coccidiomycosis

178
Q

Itraconazole used in

A

Blastomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Sporotricosis

179
Q

Which drug has the widest spectrum among azoles

A

Variconazole for invasive aspergillosis

180
Q

Drug for causal prophylaxis

A

Praguanil
Pyrimethamine
Primaquine

181
Q

Drug for erythrocytic shizogony

A

Chloroquin
Quinine
Mepacrine
Artimesimin derivative

182
Q

Drug for radical cure

183
Q

Drugs for gametocyte ( transmission phase)

A

Chloroquin
Quinine
Mepacrine

184
Q

Treatment of uncoplicated Malaria

A

Chloroquine + Primaquine

185
Q

Drug for P falciparum, P malariae

A

Artemesinin derivative + primaquine

neet pg (5 decks)

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