Pharmacogenetics Flashcards

0
Q

Define pharmacogenomics

A

The genomic approach to pharmacogenetics, concerned with the assessment of common genetic variants in the aggregate for their impact on the outcome of drug therapy. Tests large sets of alleles across the genome to distinguish patients who have adverse affects to drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Define pharmacogenetics

A

The study of the differences in drug response due to allelic variation in genes affecting drug metabolism, efficacy, and toxicity. Typically involves the study of very few genes which are selected based on a priori knowledge of their roles in drug metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

The rate at which the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes or excretes drugs or their metabolites (ADME). (ie, whether and how much of a drug reaches its target). Includes Cytochrome P450, glucoronyltransferase, thyopurine methyltransferase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

The response of the drug binding to its target and downstream targets such as receptors, enzymes, or metabolic pathways. (ie, what happens when the drug successfully reaches its target). Includes glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, vitamin K epoxide complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name and describe the two phases of pharmacokinetics

A

Phase I: attach a polar group onto the compound to make it more soluble, usually hydroxylation
Phase II: attach a sugar/acetyl group to the drug to detoxify it and make it easier to excrete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the primary families of CYP450 genes, where are they expressed, and what in phase do they function?

A

CYP1, CYP2, CYP3
Expressed mainly in the liver and intestinal epithelium.
Function in Phase I metabolism of drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name one drug and CYP enzyme that are involved in an activation pathway instead of a metabolizing pathway.

A

Codeine (inactive) is modified by CYP2D6 to produce morphine (active).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Three major phenotypes of drug sensitivity due to mutations of individual CYP genes.

A

Poor
Normal
Ultra fast/ultra rapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Types of mutations that would result in poor drug processing phenotype.

A

Frame shift (no activity)
Nonsense (no activity)
Missense (typically reduced activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type of mutation that would result in ultrarapid/ultrafast drug processing phenotype.

A

Copy number repeats (more than two copies of the gene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What affect would drinking grapefruit juice have on a patient taking felodipine for hypertension and by what mechanism?

A

It could lead to severe hypotension. Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A activity in the intestinal epithelium for 24-48 hours. CYP3A is the principle metabolizer of felodipine, thus inhibiting its activity slows the metabolism and excretion of felodipine, allowing it to exhibit side effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In a renal transplant patient who develops a fungal infection, what changes must be made to cyclosporine levels due to administration of ketoconazole and why?

A

Cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant, must be reduced by 75% due to ketoconazole (an antifungal) inhibition of CYP3A. Reduced CYP3A metabolism leads to slowed clearing of cyclosporine, which can be nephrotoxic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In a renal transplant patient who develops tuberculosis, what changes must be made to cyclosporine levels due to administration of rifampin and why?

A

Cyclosporine levels would need to be increased because rifampin is a CYP3A inducer. Higher rates of CYP3A metabolism would decrease cyclosporine levels which could lead to increased immune response and possible organ rejection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are adverse drug reactions and where do they rank as a national cause of death?

A

ADRs are negative reactions that occur in a patient who has received the proper amount of the correct drug for a condition the patient has. They are due to an individual response, and not to medical error. They are the 4th-6th leading cause of death in the US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name three broad categories of pharmacological effects of a drug.

A

Efficacy
No effect
Toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In what percentage of patients are most major drugs effective?

A

25-60%

16
Q

Which member of the CYP 450 complex processes the highest percentage of drugs, and approximately what percentage?

A

CYP3A4 is involved in Phase I processing of roughly 40% of drugs.

17
Q

Given a normal dosage of a drug, a poor metabolizer would experience what sort of effects?

A

Excessive effects, possible toxicity, due to higher levels of the drug in circulation.

18
Q

Given a normal dosage of a drug, a ultrarapid/ultrafast metabolizer would experience what sort of effects?

A

Very little to no effect, due to rapid clearing of the drug from the system.

19
Q

CYP2D6 substrates (2) and inhibitors (3)

A

Substrates:
Codeine
Tricyclic Antidepressants

Inhibitors:
Quinidine
Fluoxitine
Paroxitine

20
Q

Warfarin is metabolized by what enzymes?

A

CYP2C9
VKORC1
Warfarin is the most common blood thinner, excess exposure may lead to uncontrolled bleeding.

21
Q

What is NAT and what does it act on?

A

NAT is a drug metabolizer.

It metabolizes isoniazid, a tuberculosis drug.

22
Q

6-mercaptopurine and 6-this guanine are drugs that treat what disorder and what enzyme must patients be tested for before administering these drugs?

A

6-mercaptopurine and 6-thioguanine are used to treat ALL. ALL patients must be tested for TMPT (thiopurine-S-methyltransferase) deficiency. 0.5% are deficient and these drugs will kill the patient. Must be given at 10% dose.

23
Q

Sulfonamide and dapsone drugs can lead to what side effects if what metabolizer is deficient?

A

They can cause hemolytic anemia if the patient is deficient in G6PD.