PHARMA prelim Flashcards

1
Q

Study of drugs and their actions on living organisms

A

Pharmacology

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2
Q

Pharmacology greek origin and meaning

A

Pharmakon - drugs
Logos - science

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3
Q

Chemical substances that have an effect on living organisms

A

Drug

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4
Q

Chemical constitution of the drug

A

Chemical Name

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5
Q

Common name; Name listed in the US Food
and Drug Administration

A

Generic Name

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6
Q

Name given by the manufacturer

A

Brand Name

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7
Q

Identify the source of drugs:
○ Digitalis, Morphine, Codeine

A

Plants

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8
Q

Identify the source of drugs:
insulin, thyroid drugs

A

Animal Products

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9
Q

Identify the source of drugs:
○ aluminum -> antacid
○ Fluoride -> prevent dental cav
○ Gold -> rheumatoid arthritis
○ Iron -> anemia

A

Inorganic Compounds

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10
Q

Identify the Classification of drugs:
● Those given by injection
● Hypnotic Drugs
● Narcotics
● Habit-forming Drugs
● Drugs that are unsafe unless administered under the supervision of
a licensed practitioner
● New drugs that are investigated

A

Prescription drugs

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11
Q

Identify the Classification of drugs:
● Available without prescription
○ Category I = safe and effective
○ Category II = either unsafe or ineffective
○ Category III = insufficient data to classify

A

Over the Counter Drugs

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12
Q

Identify the Classification of drugs:
● Discovered but are not financially viable and not yet adopted by
any drug company
● Treat rare disease

A

Orphan Drugs

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13
Q

Identify the Drug Evaluation:
● Chemicals are tested to determine whether they have effects
● Evaluate adverse effects

A

Preclinical Trials

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14
Q

Identify the Drug Evaluation:
● Healthy volunteers to test drugs

A

Phase I Studies

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15
Q

Identify the Drug Evaluation:
● Try drugs to patients who have the disease
● Performed at various studies

A

Phase II Studies

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16
Q

Identify the Drug Evaluation:
● Use of drug in vast clinical market
● NOTE: After phase III, there would be a continuous evaluation

A

Phase III Studies

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17
Q

Identify the Drug Evaluation:
● Lack therapeutic activity
● Too toxic, teratogenic
● Small safety margin, produce unacceptable side effects
● Have a low benefit to risk ratio
● Not as effective as available drugs

A

Drug Dropped from the study

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18
Q

Identify the Pregnancy Categories:
No risk to fetus in the 1st trimester and later

A

Category A

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19
Q

Identify the Pregnancy Categories:
Animal studies = no risk to fetus

No adequate studies in pregnant women have shown
an adverse effects Little to NO RISK to the fetus in the
1st trimester

A

Category B

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20
Q

Identify the Pregnancy Categories:
Animal studies = no risk to fetus
May be acceptable
No adequate studies on humans

A

Category C

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21
Q

Identify the Pregnancy Categories:
Human fetal risk
Benefit vs. risk
Life threatening situation
Weigh, explain properly through therapeutic
communication, and discuss the benefits and risk for
both the mother and the baby

A

Category D

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22
Q

Identify the Pregnancy Categories:
Human fetal risk proven
Risk on use of pregnant women

A

Category X

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23
Q

Identify the Controlled Substances:
High abuse potential drugs
No accepted medical use
● Ex: Heroin, marijuana, LSD

A

Schedule I (C-I)

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24
Q

Identify the Controlled Substances:
High abuse potential
Accepted medical use
Severe dependence liability
● Ex: Narcotics, barbiturates

A

Schedule II (C-II)

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25
Q

Identify the Controlled Substances:
Less abuse potential
Moderate dependents
Medically accepted drugs
● Ex: Nonamphetamine stimulants, codeine
preparations, paregoric, nonnarcotic drugs

A

Schedule III (C-III)

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26
Q

Identify the Controlled Substances:
Less abuse
Limited dependence
Antianxiety, sedative
Medically accepted drugs
● Ex: Phenobarbital (luminal),
benzodiazepines

A

Schedule IV (C-IV)

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27
Q

Identify the Controlled Substances:
Limited abuse potential
Medically accepted drugs
● Ex: Opioid-controlled substances for
diarrhea and cough

A

Schedule V (C-V)

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28
Q

Nurses CANNOT prescribe

A

True

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29
Q

COMPREHENSIVE DANGEROUS DRUG
ACT OF 2002
● Practitioner, who shall prescribe any dangerous drug to any person
whose physical or physiological condition does not require the use
● Imprisonment ranging from 12 years and 1 day to 20 years and a
fine ranging from P100,000.00 to P500,000.00 and the additional
penalty of the revocation of his/her license to practice

A

RA ACT 9165

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30
Q

GENERICS ACT OF 1988
● Generic Name
○ identification of drugs with scientifically and internationally
recognized active ingredients
○ promote, encourage and require the use of generic terminology
in the importation, manufacture, distribution, marketing,
advertising and promotion, prescription and dispensing of drugs
○ ensure the adequate supply of drugs with generic names at the
lowest possible cost and endeavor to make them available for
free to indigent patients

A

RA ACT 6675

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31
Q
  • GENERICS ACT OF 1988
    ● Essential Drug List
    ○ List of drugs prepared by DOH on the basis of health conditions
    in the Philippines as well as internationally accepted criteria
A

RA ACT 6675

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32
Q

NARCOTIC DRUG ACT
● Registration and imposition of license on all persons who deal with
narcotic drugs and the control of the legal traffic in narcotic drugs

A

RA 953

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33
Q

drugs which produces insensibility, stupor,
melancholy or dullness of mind, habit forming

A

Narcotics

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34
Q

drugs with opium, cocoa leaf, heroine,
morphine, LSD

A

Prohibited Drugs

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35
Q

self-inducing sedatives, secobarbitals,
hypnotic drugs

A

Regulated Drug

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36
Q

EXPANDED SENIOR CITIZENS ACT gives privileges to elderly Filipinos 60 years and
above.
● Entitled to 20% discount and exempted from VAT ( value added tax)
● For medicines, generic and branded, vitamins and mineral
supplements with doctor’s prescription

A

Republic Act 9994

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37
Q

Name the steps of pharmaceutic phase

A

Tablet - Disintegration - Dissolution

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38
Q

Process of drug movement to achieve drug action

A

Pharmacokinetics

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39
Q

Four Processes of pharmacokinetics

A

○ Absorption
○ Distribution
○ Metabolism
○ Excretion

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40
Q

Movement of drug particles from the GI tract to body fluids by
PASSIVE, ACTIVE absorption or pinocytosis.

A

Absorbtion

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41
Q

occurs by diffusion

A

Passive absorption

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42
Q

requires carrier, thus energy to transport

A

Active absorption

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43
Q

cells engulfing the drug particles

A

Pinocytosis

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44
Q

■ “Hepatic First Pass”
■ Drug passes to the liver first

A

Absorption Principles

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45
Q

percentage of the drug that reaches the systemic
circulation

A

Bioavailability

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46
Q

Process when drug becomes available to body fluids and tissues

A

Distribution

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47
Q

■ Drugs bind to protein; the portion that is bound is INACTIVE,
while the portion that is unbound is ACTIVE or FREE drug.
■ two or more highly protein-bound drugs are given at the same
time - free drug in the circulation - toxicity protein level -
protein binding sites - free drug – drug accumulation/toxicity

A

Protein-binding Effect

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48
Q

■ allows only lipid-soluble drugs
■ Factors that affects Protein Levels:
● Nutrition
● Age
● Liver and Kidney Disease

A

Blood-brain Barrier

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49
Q

● “biotransformation”
● Process by which body inactivates the drug
● GI tract, LIVER

A

Metabolism

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50
Q

The time it takes for one half of the drug concentration to be eliminated

A

Half-life

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51
Q

What is considered a short half life

A

4-8 hours

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52
Q

What is considered a long half-life

A

24, 36 and longer

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53
Q

○ In 12 hours, half of the 50 mg (25mg) would remain.
○ In another 12 hours (24 hours), half of 25mg (12.5mg)
remains.
■ After 36 hours = 6.25mg
■ After 48 hours = 3.125mg
■ After 60 hours = 1.56mg
■ After 72 hours = 0.78mg
■ After 84 hours = 0.39mg
■ After 86 hours = 0.195mg
■ After 108 hours = 0.097mg
● IT WOULD TAKE 4 1⁄2 to 5 DAYS TO CLEAR THE DRUG
WITH A HALF-LIFE OF 12 HOURS.

A
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54
Q

In excretion this Filters free unbound protein and water soluble drugs;
○ Laboratory results that decipher that kidneys are excreting
correctly:

A

Excretion

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55
Q

Study of drug concentration and its effects on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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56
Q

Desirable effects

A

Primary Effect

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57
Q

Desirable of undesirable effects

A

Secondary Effects

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58
Q

Time it takes to reach the minimum effective concentration

A

Onset

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59
Q

Drug reaches its highest blood concentration

A

Peak

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60
Q

Time the drug has its pharmacologic effect

A

Duration

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61
Q

Drug works to initiate a response

A

Agonists

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62
Q

Drugs works to block a response

A

Antagonists

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63
Q

Receptor produces a variety of
effects on different organs

A

Nonspecific Drug Effects

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64
Q

Affects different receptor sites

A

Non-selective drug effects

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65
Q

Drug action which increases production

A

Stimulation

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66
Q

Drug action which reduces production

A

Depression

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67
Q

Drug providing something lacking

A

Replacement

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68
Q

Static of production or killing

A

Inhibition or killing of organisms

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69
Q

Measures the margin of safety of a drug
It is the ratio that measures the effective therapeutic dose and the lethal dose

A

Therapeutic index

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70
Q

Narrow margins of safety

A

Increased TI (safe)

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71
Q

Wide margins of safety

A

Decreased TI (toxic)

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72
Q

when immediate response is desired. After
loading dose, a prescribed daily dose is ordered

A

Large initial dose

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73
Q

Response to the drug tolerance to narcotics

A

Tolerance/ tachyphylaxis

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74
Q

physiologic effects not related to desired drug
effects

A

Side effects

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75
Q

more severe that side effects =
anaphylaxis, cardiovascular collapse

A

Adverse reactions

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76
Q
  • toxicity due to overdosing or drug accumulation
A

Toxic effects

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77
Q
  • diurnal rhythm of CNS and endocrine,
    acid-base balance, hydration, electrolyte
A

Physiologic Factors

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78
Q

Identify the Pathological Factor:
affect absorption

A

GI disorders

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79
Q

Identify the Pathological Factor:
affect distribution

A

Vascular problem

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80
Q

Identify the Pathological Factor:
affects metabolism and excretion

A

Liver and kidney dose

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81
Q

Allergies

A

Immunological Factors

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82
Q

Placebo effect, nocebo

A

Psychological aspects

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83
Q

Consider cold/hot weather

A

Environmental factors

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84
Q

Alcohol ingestion, food integration

A

Cumulative Effects

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85
Q

■ Distribution (Aspirin vs methotrexate for protein binding sites)
■ Biotransformation (Warfarin [coumadin] - metabolize quickly
with barbiturates, rifampin
■ Excretion (Digoxin vs. quinidine)

A

Drug-to-drug interactions

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86
Q

■ Oral drugs - empty stomach
■ Tetracycline vs. iron and calcium products
■ MAO Inhibitors vs. cheese, wine, organ meat, beer, yogurt,
sour cream, bananas
■ Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), Metoprolol (Lopressor),
Lovastatin (Mevacor) = mealtime

A

Drug-to-food interactions

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87
Q

■ Delteparin (Fragmin) on AST and ALT
■ ↓K, ↓Mg, ↑ Ca levels = digitalis toxicity
■ TDM (Therapeutic Drug Metabolism)

A

Drug-laboratory test interactions

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88
Q

drug form, route of drug administration, multiple
drug therapy, drug interactions

A

Administration

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89
Q
  • synergistically working
A

Adjunct Drugs

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90
Q

onset, peak, duration, therapeutic range,
side effects, adverse reactions

A

Pharmacodynamics

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91
Q

age, weight, present health disorder, other
clinical entities, client drug compliance

A

Clinical Factors

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92
Q

■ Development of adverse effects from simple over dosage
■ Example: anticoagulant therapy→ bleeding

A

Primary Action

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93
Q

■ Excessive response to drugs
■ Kidney problems, other underlying problem

A

Hypersensitivity

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94
Q

○ when body forms antibodies to a particular drug inducing a
response in the subsequent exposure
○ Hives,rash, difficulty breathing, increased BP

A

Drug Allergy

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95
Q

adverse effects in various tissues, structures, and organs

A

Drug-Induced Tissue and Organ Damage

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96
Q

○ Rashes, Hives
■ Intervention:
● Frequent skin care
● Instruct to avoid rubbing, tight or rough clothing and harsh
soaps
● Administer antihistamines as appropriate.
○ Stomatitis
■ Intervention:
● Frequent mouth care.
● DAT (Diet as Tolerated) with small, frequent feeding.
○ Liver Injury
■ Intervention:
● Discontinue the drug.
● Notify the physician.
○ Renal Injury
■ Intervention:
● Discontinue the drug.
● Notify the physician.
○ Pancytopenia
■ Condition in which the person’s body has too few RBCs,
WBCs and platelets.
■ Intervention:
● Discontinue the drug.
● Notify the physician.

A
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97
Q

Two drugs with similar action

A

Additive Drug Effect

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98
Q

Two or more drugs, one drug potentiates the other

A

Synergistic Drug Effect or Potentiation

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99
Q

Two drugs have opposite effects → each drug cancel the
effect of the other

A

Antagonistic Drug Effect

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100
Q

● aa = of each
● ac = before meals
● ad lib = as much as desired
● bid = 2x a day
● caps = capsules
● hs = at bedtime
● od = right eye
● os = left eye
● ou = both eyes
● pc = after meals
● prn = as needed
● q= every
● qd = once daily; OD
● qid = 4x a day
● ss = 1⁄2
● stat = at once
● tid = 3x a daY
● ut dict. = as directed

A
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101
Q

10 R’s

A
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102
Q

Identify the categories of drug order:
Dr.’s order upon admission, continual unless ordered

A

Standing

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103
Q

Identify the categories of drug order:
Demerol 100 mg IM to be given 10minutes prior to surgery

A

One-time

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104
Q

Identify the categories of drug order:
○ Paracetamol 500 mg q4h as needed for headache
○ Medication as needed

A

PRN

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105
Q

Identify the categories of drug order:
To be given now

A

Stat

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106
Q

Oral meds are NOT given to clients who are vomiting, lack a
gag reflex, or who are comatose.
○ Do not mix in infant formula.
○ Do not mix with a large amount of food or beverage.
○ Enteric-coated and timed-release capsules must be swallowed
whole to be effective.

A

Tablets and capsules

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107
Q

Provide gradual but continuous release of
the drug

A

Times-release capsule

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108
Q

Flat disks; flavored base

A

Lozenges

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109
Q

Clear liquids dissolved in alcohol and water

A

Elixirs

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110
Q

Water-in-oil; oil-in-water; gelatin

A

Emulsion

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111
Q

Liquid that contain solid, insoluble drug particles,
has granules – needs to be shaken

A

Suspensions

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112
Q

Dissolved in sugar

A

Syrups

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113
Q

○ Read labels → dilute? Shake?
○ Refrigerate

A

Liquids

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114
Q

○ Do not cut patches.
○ Remove patches with metallic components prior to MRI.
○ Remove the old patch prior to applying the new one.

A

Transdermal

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115
Q

○ Do not “double dip.”

A

Topical

116
Q

○ Gently pull down the skin below the eye to expose the
conjunctival sac.

A

Administration of Eye drops

117
Q

○ Squeeze a 1⁄4-inch-wide strip of ointment onto the conjunctival
sac. (inner to outer canthus)

A

Administration of Eye Ointment

118
Q

○ Straighten the external ear canal by:
■ pulling down and back on the auricle in children or
■ pulling up and back on the auricle in adult

A

Administration of Ear Drops

119
Q

○ Vaginal
○ Rectum

A

Inserting a suppository

120
Q

Identify the administration of parenteral Medications:
Skin testing

A

Intradermal

121
Q

Identify the administration of parenteral Medications:
thighs

A

subcutaneous

122
Q

Identify the administration of parenteral Medications:
upper outer quadrant of buttocks, deltoid

A

Intramuscular

123
Q

Identify the administration of parenteral Medications:
fastest

A

intravenous injection

124
Q

U , U - Unit
IU - International Unit
Q.D - Daily
QOD - Every other day
TRAILING ZERO - Delete e.g. [1.0 mg = 1 mg]
LACK OF LEADING ZERO - Insert e.g. [.2 mg = 0.2 mg]
MS MSO4 - Morphine Sulfate
MGSO4 - Magnesium Sulfate

A
125
Q

○ Round off IV drop rates to whole numbers
○ Round off medications in the nearest tenths

A
125
Q

AD - Right ear
AS - Left ear
AU - Both ears

OD - Right eye
OS - Left eye
OU - Both eyes

BT - Bed time

cc - mL for mililiters

HS - bedtime

qhs - nightly

Q6 - 6pm every night/daily

qid - four times a day

qn - nightly

X 3d - for 3 days

SC, SW, subQ - Subcutaneously

ss - one half

SSI - Sliding scale (insulin)

ug - Mcg

>

  • greaten than

< - less than

+ - and plus

@ - at

A
126
Q

○ 1 g = 1000 mg
○ 1000 g = 1 kg
○ .001 milligram = 1 microgram (mcg)
○ 1mg = 1000mcg
○ 1L = 1000ml
○ 1 ounce = 480 grains (gr)
○ 1 quart = 2 pints (pt)
○ 3 teaspoons (tsp) = 1 tablespoon (tbsp)
○ 2 tablespoons (tbsp) = 1 ounce (oz)

A
127
Q

○ Temperature
■ C = (F - 32) x 5/9
■ F = (C x 9/5) + 32
○ Weight
■ 1 kg = 2.2 pound (lb)

A
128
Q

● Prescribed = desired (D)
● Have on hand = stock (S)
● Drug form = quantity (Q)

A

x =D/S × Q

129
Q

Iv fluid calculation

A

volume/ hour x df/60

130
Q

infusion time formula

A

x= v/ ml/hr

131
Q

drops per minute formula

A

x = v*df/ t

132
Q

10 gtt per mL
15 gtt per mL
20 gtt per mL

A

Macrodrop

133
Q

60 gtt per mL

A

Microdrop

134
Q

Tubing set with needle

A

Micro

135
Q

Tubing set without needle

A

Macro

136
Q

with mesh/strainer

A

BT set (Blood Transfusion Set)

137
Q

Formula for Intermittent IV Infusion

A

gtt/min to administer = Amount of solution x gtt/ml (IV set)/ Minutes to administer

138
Q

Where should you measure volume of medication?

A

Proximal end of plunger

139
Q

In 100-unit insulin syringes, each small black line equals how many units

A

2 units

140
Q

In 30 and 50-unit insulin syringes, each small black line equals how many units

A

1 unit

141
Q

What is Fried’s Rule?

A

Age < 1
Child’s Dose = Infant’s age in months/ 150 months x average adult dose

142
Q

What is Young’s Rule

A

Age 1-12 years
Child’s Dose = Child’s age (in years)/ child’s age (in years) + 12 x average adult dose

143
Q

What is Clark’s Rule

A

Using body weight in pounds
Age 1-12 years
Child’s Dose = weight of child (in pounds)/ 150 pounds x average adult dose

144
Q

Surface Area Calculation

A

Child’s Dose = surface area in square meters/1.73 x average adult dose

145
Q

What is the most effective administration of drug for infants

A

Topical and water soluble drugs are absorbed easily

146
Q

What is a difficult absorption for older adults

A

Transdermal absorption

147
Q

Infant
● Premature infant -↓ gastric emptying time →↑ toxicity
● Absence of enzyme for hydrolysis →prevent to absorb
chloramphenicol
● ↑ total body content = ↑ volume of distribution for water-soluble
drugs
● ↓ protein- ↓ binding

A
148
Q

Older adult
● ↓ cardiac output →tissue perfusion → ↓ transdermal drug
absorption
● ↑ gastric pH
● Drugs destroyed by gastric acid are readily absorbed and ↑ in
concentration
○ Ampicillin, penicillin
● Drugs dependent on gastric acid are poorly absorbed
○ Aspirin, Phenobarbital
● ↓ gastric emptying time → ↑ toxicity
● Liver impairment = ↓ drug metabolism

A
149
Q

Study of drugs that alter processes controlled by the nervous system

A

Neuropharmacology

150
Q

Conducting an action potential down the axon of the neuron

A

Axonal Conduction

151
Q

Process by which information is carried across the gap between
neuron and postsynaptic cell

A

Synaptic Transmission

152
Q

21 compounds that serve as neurotransmitters Used for psychiatric disorders, suppression of seizures, relief of
pain, production of anesthesia

A

CNS drugs

153
Q

Identify the CNS Drug:
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Serotonin

A

Monoamine

154
Q

Identify the CNS Drug:
Aspartate
GABA
Glutamate
Glycine

A

Amino Acid

155
Q

Identify the CNS Drug:
Adenosine
Adenosine monophosphate
Adenosine triphosphate

A

Purine

156
Q

Identify the CNS Drug:
Dynorphins
Endorphins
Enkephalins

A

Opioid Peptides

157
Q

Identify the CNS Drug:
Neurotensin
Oxytocin
Somatostatin
Substance P
Vasopressin

A

Non Opioid Peptides

158
Q

Identify the CNS Drug:
Acetylcholine
Histamine
GABA

A

Others

159
Q

● Impedes the entry of drugs into the brain
● Passage is limited to lipid-soluble agents or via specific transport
systems
● CHILDREN are much more sensitive to CNS drugs than adults

A

Blood Brain Barrier

160
Q

Antipsychotic and antidepressants

A

Increased therapeutic effects

161
Q

phenobarbital, antiseizure drug that
produces sedation

A

Decreased side effects

162
Q

Decreased response occurring in the course of
prolonged drug use

A

State in which abrupt discontinuation of
drug use will precipitate a withdrawal syndrome

163
Q

Dysregulation of the transmitters serotonin, norepinephrine,
dopamine Characteristics: inattentiveness, inability to
concentrate, restlessness, hyperactivity, inability to complete
tasks and impulsivity

A

ADHD Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

164
Q

○ Characterized by falling asleep during normal waking activities
[driving/ talking]
○ Unable to move and may collapse

A

Narcolepsy

165
Q

■ Given to increase child’s attention span and cognitive
performance
■ Used to treat narcolepsy

A

Methylphenidate

166
Q

■ Treatment of narcolepsy

A

Modafinil

167
Q

■ Stimulate respiration

A

Analeptics: Xanthine

168
Q

■ Treatment of respiratory depression caused by drug overdose
and COPD
■ Never give more than 3 liters per minute because respiratory
drive will be gone

A

Doxapram

169
Q

● Slowly progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by
tremor, rigidity, postural instability and slowed movement
● Affects the extrapyramidal system which influences movement

A

Parkinson’s Disease

170
Q

Directly/indirectly cause activation of
dopamine receptors

A

Dopaminergic drugs

171
Q

drugs that block receptors for ACh

A

Anticholinergic Agents

172
Q

Converted to
Dopamine and
activates dopamine
receptors

First-line drug/
supplement to
dopamine agonist

A

Dopamine Replacement
Levodopa
Levodopa/Carbidopa

173
Q

Directly activates DA
receptors

First line drugs

A

Dopamine Agonists
Pramipexole
Ropinirole
Bromocriptine

174
Q

Inhibits breakdown
of levodopa

Adjunct to
levodopa

A

COMT Inhibitors
Entacapone
Tolcapone

175
Q

Anti-viral but
promotes release of
dopamine

2nd or 3rd line
drug

A

Dopamine Releaser
Amantadine

176
Q

Inhibits breakdown
of dopamine

For newly
diagnosed patients

A

MAO-B inhibitors
Selegiline Rasagiline

177
Q

Levodopa + Maoi = Hypertensive crisis

A

Tyramine Reaction

178
Q

Drug interactions with Dopaminergic Drugs

A

● Reduced when taking pyridoxine [VIT B6], phenytoin,
benzodiazepines, reserpine and papaverine
● Use with MAOI increases the risk of hypertensive crisis
● Use with antipsychotic reduces the effectiveness of levodopa
● Amantadine may increase anticholinergic adverse effects

179
Q

Identify the Dopaminergic Drugs according to its adverse effects:
N&v
Orthostatic hypotension
Anorexia
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Arrhythmias
Confusion

A

Levodopa

180
Q

Identify the Dopaminergic Drugs according to its adverse effects:
Orthostatic hypotension
Constipation

A

Amantadine

181
Q

Identify the Dopaminergic Drugs according to its adverse effects:
Orthostatic hypotension
Ventricular tachycardia
Bradycardia
Worsening angina

A

Bromocriptine

182
Q

Identify the Dopaminergic Drugs according to its adverse effects:
Headache
Insomnia
Dizziness
Nausea
Arrhythmia

A

Seleglline

183
Q

Identify the Dopaminergic Drugs according to its adverse effects:
Orthostatic hypotension

Dizziness
Confusion
Insomnia

A

Ropinirole

184
Q

Group of disorders characterized by excessive excitability of
neurons in the CNS

A

Epilepsy

185
Q

General term that applies to all types of epileptic events

A

Seizure

186
Q

Excitation undergoes limited spread from the
focus to adjacent cortical areas

A

Partial seizure

187
Q

Excitation spreads widely throughout
both hemispheres of the brain

A

Generalized Seizures

188
Q

Abnormal motor phenomenon

A

Convulsion

189
Q

○ Carbamazepine
○ Gabapentin
○ Lamotrigine
○ Tiagabine
○ Topiramate

A

Partial Focal Seizures

190
Q

○ Succinimides
■ Ethosuximide
■ Methsuximide
■ Phensuximide
○ Valproic Acid
○ Zonisamide

A

Absent Seizures

191
Q

○ Suppression of Sodium Influx
■ Prevent electrical activity lessens the excitability
○ Suppression of Calcium Influx
○ Antagonism of Glutamate
■ Excitatory neurotransmitter
○ Potentiation of GABA
■ Inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Anti-Epileptic Drugs Mechanism

192
Q

A Hydantoin
○ most commonly prescribed anticonvulsant drug
○ Stabilize nerve cells to keep them from getting overexcited by
increasing efflux or decreasing influx of sodium ions

A

Phenytoin

193
Q

A Barbiturate
○ Effective against partial seizures and generalized tonic-clonic
seizures but not absence seizures
○ Suppresses seizures by potentiating the effects of GABA
○ Can be used as daytime sedative “sleeping pills”
○ Able to suppress seizures without causing generalized CNS
depression

A

Phenobarbital

194
Q

An iminostilebenes
○ Cornerstone of epilepsy therapy
○ Active against partial seizures and tonic-clonic seizures but not
absence seizures
○ Suppresses neuronal discharge by delaying recovery of sodium
channels
○ Has fewer side effects than phenytoin and phenobarbital
○ Rashes, hives and Steven-Johnson Syndrome [fatal
inflammatory disease] can occur as adverse reactions
○ Do not drink grapefruit juice as it can increase levels of this drug

A

Carbamazepine

195
Q

A Benzodiazepine
○ is restricted to acute treatment of status epilepticus
○ Not recommended for long-term use due to high potential for
addiction

A

Diazepam

196
Q

A Benzodiazepine
○ DOC for acute management of status epilepticus

A

IV Lorazepam

197
Q

A Benzodiazepine
Treatment for absence, atypical absence seizures

A

Clonazepam

198
Q

Valproate, Valproic Acid, Divalproex
● Mechanism of Action
○ Suppression of neuronal firing though
■ Blocking sodium channels
■ Blocking calcium influx
■ Augment inhibitory influence of GABA
● Indications
○ All partial and generalized seizures
○ Bipolar disorder
○ Migraine

A

CARBOXYLIC ACID DERIVATIVES

199
Q

Bind to a carrier protein and act at a receptor resulting in increased
GABA in the brain

A

GABAPENTIN

200
Q

Defined as involuntary contraction of a muscle or muscle
group
■ Often painful and decreases level of functioning

A

Muscle Spasm

201
Q

For treatment of acute muscle spasms caused by anxiety, pain and
trauma
○ Treat spacity from conditions as MS and Cerebral Palsy
■ Carisoprodol
■ Chlorphenesin
■ Metaxalone
■ Tizanidine

A

Centrally Acting Agents

202
Q

○ Most effective for spasticity of cerebral origin [i.e. cerebral palsy,
MS, spinal cord injury, stroke]
○ Used for treatment of malignant hyperthermia [complication of
anesthesia causing muscle rigidity and high fever]

A

Dantrolene Sodium

203
Q

○ Mimics inhibitory actions of GABA in the CNS
○ Produces less sedation and less peripheral muscle weakness
than dantrolene
○ DOC for spasticity
○ Indicated for paraplegic/ quadriplegic patients with spinal cord
lesions
○ Most common adverse effect is transient drowsiness

A

Baclofen

204
Q

Relax skeletal muscles by disrupting the transmission of nerve
impulses at the motor end plate

A

NEUROMUSCULAR BLOCKING DRUGS

205
Q

● Competitive/ stabilizing drugs
● Compete with ACh to prevent muscle from contracting
○ Atracurium
○ Cisatracurium
○ Doxacurium
○ Mivacurium
○ Pancuronium
○ Rocuronium

A

NON DEPOLARIZING BLOCKING DRUGS

206
Q

○ Use for:
■ Ease of passage of an endotracheal tube
■ Decrease the amount of anesthetic required during surgery
■ Facilitate realigning broken bone and dislocated joints
■ Prevent muscle injury during ECT

A

Non Depolarizing Agents

207
Q

A DEPOLARIZING BLOCKING DRUGS
acts like acetylcholine but not inactivated by
ACHe
○ DOC for short procedures [less than 3 minutes] and for
orthopedic manipulations

A

Succinylcholine

208
Q

Occurs when clients abruptly withdraw from a
substance to which they are physically dependent.

A

Abstinence syndrome

209
Q

Identify the Abstinence maintenance:
PO, daily, aversion therapy Should not be
used concurrently with alcohol

A

Disulfiram

210
Q

Identify the Abstinence maintenance:
Opioid antagonist that suppresses craving
and pleasurable effects of alcohol

A

Naltrexone

211
Q

Identify the Abstinence maintenance:
Decreases unpleasant effects resulting
from abstinence (anxiety/ restlessness)

A

Acamprosate

212
Q

Characteristic withdrawal syndrome occurs within 1 hr to several
days after cessation of substance use.

A

Opioid Addiction

213
Q

Identify the Opioid withdrawal support:
PO, opioid agonist that replaces opioids,
prevents abstinence syndrome Part of
the 12 step self help program

A

Methadone

214
Q

Identify the Opioid withdrawal support:
● Aids in withdrawal effects related to
autonomic hyperactivity (diarrhea,
nausea, vomiting)

A

CLONIDINE
(CATAPRES)

215
Q

Identify the Opioid withdrawal support:
● Used for detoxification and
maintenance, decreases craving,
administered SL, IM, IV

A

BUPRENORPHINE
(SUBUTEX)

216
Q

The Nervous system compromises of what?

A

Central and Peripheral

217
Q

The cns compromises of what?

A

Brain and spinal cord

218
Q

Peripheral nervous system is compromised of what

A

Afferent/sensory
Efferent/motor:
Autonomic nervous system:
Sympathetic/adrenergic
Parasympathetic/cholinergic
Somatic nervous system

219
Q

Neurons

A

Afferent(Sensory) and Efferent (Motor)

220
Q

Sends impulses to the CNS

A

Afferent(Sensory)

221
Q

Receives impulses, transmits through the spinal cord to effector
organ cells

A

Efferent (Motor)

222
Q

Involuntary
Controls and regulates the heart, GI, respiratory system, bladder,
eyes and glands

A

Autonomic ns/ visceral system

223
Q

● Voluntary
● Innervates the skeletal muscles

A

Somatic NS

224
Q

○ (1) Synthesis of your neurotransmitter
○ (2) Storage of transmitter in the vesicles
○ (3) Release neurotransmitter because of the response of the
action potential
○ (4) Action at the receptor
○ (5) Termination of the synaptic transmission

A

Synaptic Transmission

225
Q

What is the location of the Sympathetic nervous system

A

Location: thoracolumbar (thoracic and lumbar area)

226
Q

This is also known as the flight or fight response and is the physiological response to non-immediate stresses

A

Sympathetic nervous system

227
Q

What is the terminal neurotransmitter of the Sympathetic nervous system

A

Norepinephrine

228
Q

What is the receptor organ cells of the Sympathetic nervous system

A

Alpha, beta

229
Q

What is the location of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Craniosacral

230
Q

Known as the rest and digest response

A

parasympathetic nervous system

231
Q

What is the terminal neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

232
Q

What is the receptor organ cells of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Nicotinic, muscarinic

233
Q

Dilates pupil, dilates bronchioles, increases heart rate, constricts blood vessels, relaxes smooth muscles of the GI, relaxes uterine muscles

A

Sympa

234
Q

Constricts pupils, constricts bronchioles, increase secretions, decreases heart rate, dilates blood vessels, increases peristalsis, Increases salivation

A

Parasympa

235
Q

○ Drugs act through receptors by binding to the receptors to initiate
a response or prevent a response.
○ It is similar to the fit of the right key in a lock.

A

Receptor Theory

236
Q

drugs that produces a response

A

Agonist

237
Q

drugs that blocks a response

A

Antagonist

238
Q

Stimulate the SNS Sympathomimetic

A

Adrenergic Agonist

239
Q

Inhibit the SNS Sympatholytic

A

Adrenergic antagonist

240
Q

Stimulate the PNS Parasympathomimetic

A

Cholinergic agonist

241
Q

Inhibit the PNS Parasympatholytic

A

Cholinergic Antagonist

242
Q

When Autonomic drugs are given, the goal is not to treat an
autonomic disorder, it is to correct disorders of target organs
through autonomic nerves

A

Pharmacologic effect

243
Q

Blood vessels, vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, increased contractibility of the heart, eye, mydriasis, bladder relaxation, prostate contraction

A

Alpha 1 Receptor

244
Q

Blood vessels decreased blood pressure, smooth muscle decreased gastrointestinal tone and motility

A

Alpha 2 receptor

245
Q

Heart increased contraction and heart rate, kidney increased renin secretion increased angiotensin increased blood pressure

A

Beta 1 receptor

246
Q

Smooth muscle decreased gastrointestinal tone and mobility, lungs bronchodilation, uterus relaxation, liver activation of glycogenolysis and increased blood sugar

A

Beta 2 receptor

247
Q

stimulate adrenergic receptors
Adrenergic agonist

A

Sympathomimetics

248
Q

Drugs that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system.
● Mimics sympathetic neurotransmitters norepinephrine and
epinephrine (adrenaline).
Also termed adrenergic agonists or adrenergics.

A

Adrenergic agonist

249
Q

directly stimulates the adrenergic receptor.

A

Direct-Acting Sympathomimetic

250
Q

stimulates the release of norepinephrine from terminal nerve
endings.

A

Indirect-Acting Sympathomimetic

251
Q

acts as both direct and indirect acting
○ Ex. pseudoephedrine

A

Mixed-Acting Sympathomimetic

252
Q

Has a catechol ring and amines

A

Catecholamines

253
Q

influences one type of receptor

A

Selective

254
Q

influences all receptors

A

Non-selective

255
Q

Treats Hypotension, nasal congestion, dilation of pupils

A

Alpha 1

256
Q

Treats Hypertension

A

Alpha 2

257
Q

Heart failure, cardiac arrest, shock

A

Beta 1

258
Q

Asthma, premature labors of contraction

A

Beta 2

259
Q

● Therapeutic class:: Vasopressor
● Pharmacologic class: Adrenergic
● Indications: anaphylaxis, asthma, cardiac stimulation, induction
and maintenance of mydriasis during intraocular surgery
● No oral administration
● Antidote: phentolamine Mesylate (Regitine) for extravasation of
norepinephrine and dopamine.

A

Epinephrine

260
Q

Blocks alpha and beta receptor blocker
○ Direct blocking by occupying receptors
○ Indirect blocking by inhibiting release of neurotransmitters

A

Adrenergic blockers

261
Q

○ Vasodilation: hypertension and PVDs
○ Reduces contraction of smooth muscle in bladder and prostate

A

Alpha blockers

262
Q

A decrease of 20 mm Hg or more in SBP, a decrease of 10 mm Hg
or more in DBP, and/or
● An increase in the HR of 20 beats/minute or more from supine to
standing indicates

A

Orthostatic hypotension

263
Q

● Decrease heart rate
● Decreases blood pressure
● Useful for treating mild to moderate hypertension, angina pectoris
and myocardial infarction

A

Beta blockers

264
Q

● Therapeutic class: Anti-hypertensive
● Pharmacologic class: Alpha Blocker
● Indication: mild to moderate hypertension

A

Prazosin

265
Q

○ 5 receptors, stimulate smooth muscle and slows HR
○ M1 (GU) and M3 (lungs, glands) – may increase calcium activity
○ M2 (heart) – may increase potassium and decrease heart rate

A

Muscarinic

266
Q

○ 2 receptors, affect skeletal muscles
○ Nm – muscle contraction
○ Nn – transmission of cholinergic signals

A

Nicotinic

267
Q

is made from choline and acetyl CoA

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

268
Q

(2) In the synaptic cleft ACh is rapidly broken down by the enzyme

A

acetylcholinesterase

269
Q

Mimic the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine

A

Cholinergic agonists

270
Q

Non-specific cholinergic effect,
decreases CO, HR, BP, increase GI
activity

A

Acetylcholine

271
Q

Not as susceptible to AChE, used
locally to constrict pupil and
decrease IOP

A

Carbachol

272
Q

Constricts pupil, decrease IOP for acute glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

273
Q

Increase muscle tone in bladder ang GIT

A

Bethanechol

274
Q

● Therapeutic class: Urinary Stimulants
● Pharmacologic class: Cholinergic Agonists
● Indications: acute post-operative and postpartum nonobstructive
urine retention, neurogenic atony of urinary bladder with urine
retention.

A

Bethanechol

275
Q

● Famous for military use as nerve gases
● Clinical use: Echothiophate – treatment of open glaucoma

A

Indirect acting reversible

276
Q

Adverse reactions
● D - Diarrhea
● U - Urination
● M – Miosis and Muscle Weakness
● B - Bronchorrhea
● B - Bradycardia
● E - Emesis
● L - Lacrimation
● S – Salivation/ Sweating

A
277
Q

● Famous for milit
● Caused by overdose of cholinergic agonists

A

CHOLINERGIC CRISIS

278
Q

Also known as Cholinergic Blockers

A

Anticholinergic agents

279
Q

● Therapeutic Class: Anti-arrhythmics
● Pharmacological Class: Anticholinergic belladonna alkaloids
● Indications: bradycardia, anti-cholinesterase poisoning,
preoperatively to diminish secretions and block cardiac vagal
reflexes, antimuscarinic

A

Atropine

280
Q

Adverse effects
● A - Agitation
● B - Blurred vision
● C - Constipation, Confusion
● D - Dry mouth
● S - Stasis of urine and Sweating

A
281
Q

-ganglionic blocker
○ Stimulate and block cholinergic function
○ Increase production of neurotransmitters
○ Increase BP, HR, but may also decrease BP- non-selective effect
○ CNS Stimulation - causes addiction
○ Not useful in clinical practice

A

Nicotine

282
Q

○ Binds to ACh receptors but do not induce ion channel opening
○ Facilitates mechanical ventilator and tracheal intubation
○ Given as IV as it is not absorbed in the GI
○ Rapid effect in less than 2 mins, will paralyze small muscles
○ Includes:
○ Cisatracurium, Pancuronium - 90 mins of MSOF
○ Rocuronium, Vecuronium - 40 mins

A

Non-depolarizing agents

283
Q

Succinylcholine
■ Causes sodium channels to open for prolonged depolarization
■ PHASE I block
■ PHASE II block
■ For rapid sequence tracheal intubation
■ Facilitates ECT
■ Duration: 1-10 mins

A

Depolarizing agents

284
Q

Drug interactions

A

Sympathomimetic - Parasympathomimetic
Sympatholytic - Parasympatholytic