Pharma midterm Helens test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the formulation of Burow Ointment? Ungentum alumni acetic tartaric?

A. W:O type emulsion
B. O:W type emulsion
C. Real solution
D. Oil suspension

A

A. W:O type emulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is meant by a residual drug?

A. drug metabolites remaining in meat/ food products from animal treated w/ pharma product
B. Total amount of agent remaining in the meat and food products
C. Tot. amount of agent and metabolites remaining in meat of animal
D. Total amount of agent and metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal

A

D. Tot. agent and metabolites in the MEAT AND FOOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pharmakinetic symbol of area under concentration curve from zero up to - after single administration

A.AUC
B. Czero
C.MRY

A

A. AUC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of drug admin according to EU rules?

A.Prevention
B. Not determined
C. Growth prompt
D. Treatment

A

D. Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sedative with antiemic action?

A. Phenobarbitol
B. Acepromazine
C. Ketamine
D. Diazepam

A

B . ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Partial agonist opiate combined with medetomidine?

A. Ketamine
B. Diazepam
C. Butorphanol
D. Fentanyl

A

C. BUTORPHANOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What indication about drugs is indicated in the european pharmacopoeia ?

A. Indications in human med
B. indications in met med
C. Dosage of drug in human
D. Identification methods

A

D. ID methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which sedative is not use ful for epileptic patients?

A. Xylazine
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Acepromazine

A

D. ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of residual drug analysis?

A. Determination of MRL value
B.Investigation of metabolism of the residual drug
C. Det. of WP according to food health legislation
D. Kinetics exam of the residual drug

A

C. Determination of withdrawal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of a drug after opening of the package what are the conditions?

A. 40 C 75 RH 0-6 months
B. Room temp 0-24 hours
C. Room temp 0-3 month
D. Room tempt. 0-4 weeks

A

D. Room temp 0-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which is used in the AMES test?

A. Most gram pos
B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Ecoli and salmonella
D. Fastidious gram neg

A

B. salmonella type b/c cant produce HISTIDINE if drug is mutagenic HIs can be produced!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

IV anaesthetic with Adrenocorticoid suppression?

A.Propofol
B. Thiopental
C. Etomidate
D. Acetyl salicylic acid

A

ETOMIDATE- only applied once, causes no cardiovascular risk!!!!! BUT renal failure and only allowed IV due to tissue irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Strongly inhibits Saiety centre in CNS?

A. Propofol
B. Diazepam
C. Vit B

A

B DIAZEPAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible, name two ?

A

DIAZEPAM and ETOMIDINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the form of a sterile product it can be given as a slow IV infusion ?

A. microsuspension
B. emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Tincture

A

A. microsuspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In this script proprietary name of vet licensed med is given?

A.Prescription of prepared (magistral ) medicine
B. script of human med
C. Script of VLM
D. Script of formulated official medicine

A

C. A vet licensed med

17
Q

Vehicle in licking stone with growth promoting ability in ruminants?

A. Bismulth subgallate
B. activated charcoal
C. Light Kaolin
D. Bentonite

A

D. Bentonite

18
Q

what drugs must be kept in a locked box?

A. Schedule 4 drugs
B. Schedule 1-3 drugs
C. Schedule 2 drugs
D. Schedule 1- 4

A

B- Schedule 1-3
2- Morphine, Fentanyl
3- Phenobarbital , Pentobarbitone Buprenorphine

19
Q

Trans. sed w/ mild analg. action?

A. Diazepam
B. Midazolam
C. Acepromazine
D. Droperidol

A

D. Droperidol

20
Q

what kind of exam have to be conducted according to rules and regulations of GLP?

A. Examination of drug manufacturing
B. Vet clinical drug exams
C. Human clinical drug exams
D. Preclinical exams, toXo kinetics and residual drug exams

A

D. Preclin, toX kinetics, and residual drug exams

21
Q

What bases can be used for eye ointments?

A. soft para
B. Castor oil
C. white vaseline
D. All above

A

ALL!

22
Q

which statement is true?

A. Effect of benzos can be suspended with antipamezole
B. Sus is most sensitive to xylazine
C. Phenobarbital has CYP 450 enzyme inducing effect
D. Diazepam has emetic effect in Fe

A

C. Phenobarbital has CYP 450 enzyme inducing effect

23
Q

Which drug accumulate in the fat?

A. Ketamine
B. Althesin
C. Thiopental
D. Etomidate

A

C. Thiopental

24
Q

What is the extracting agent to prepare extract?

A. Alcohol
B. Water
C. Both
D. NONE

A

BOTH

25
Q

What to use if overdose on fentanyl ?

A. Antipamezole
B. Flumazeline
C. YOHUMBINE
D. Naloxone

A

D. Naloxone for fentanyl OD

26
Q

which of the listed inhalation anaesthetic drugs has the most pronounced excitatory action ?

A. Halothane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Desflurane

A

A. Halothane

27
Q

Which is a non water soluble vehicle ?

A. Neither
B. Both
C. Hydrophilus ointment base
D. Hydrous ointment base

A

D. Hydrous ointment base

28
Q

This gen. anaesthetic can cause pronounced dose dependent and reversible respiratory inhibition?

A. Etomidate
B. Aphaxalone
C. Ketamine
D. Thiamilal

A

D. Thiamilal

29
Q

Amoung these large doses of this dont cause CVas depression?

A. Detomidine
B. Xylaxine
C. Medetomidine
D. Diazepam

A

D. Diazepam

30
Q

Alpha 2 agonist not in Eq?

A

Medetomidine

31
Q

If the aim of these stability investigation is to determine the expiry time of the product what is the appropriate conditions?

A. Room temp 0-4 weeks
B. 25 Celcius , 60 RH 12, 24, 36 months
C. 40 C 75 % RH 0-6 months
D. Room temp 0-3 months

A

B. 25 C 60 % RH 0,12,24, 36 month

32
Q

Which phenothiazine has pronounced antiemetic effect?

A. Fluanison
B. Promethazine
C. Thethylperazine
D. Propionil promazine

A

C. Thethylperazine

33
Q

Which of the following has longest duration of action?

A. Thiopental
B. Methohexital
C. Propofol
D. Ketamine

A

D. Ketamine has long DOA, also has no antagonist!

Methohexitol and thiopental are ultrashort acting!! 5- 8 mins

34
Q

which Alpha 2 agonist are useful in Eq?

A. Both
B. Detomidine
C. Xylazine
D. Neither

A

A. BOTH

35
Q

What is a less soluble fine powder active ingredient dispersed in the liquid vehicle?

A. Tincture
B. Solution
C. Suspension
D. Emulsion

A

C. Suspension

36
Q

Which term is abbreviated by MRL value?

A. minimal metabolite concentration
B. Minimal concentration of residual drug
C. Max residual drug concentration
D. Max metabolite conc

A

C. Max res. drug concentration

37
Q

If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of drug product in medicated drinking water what are appropriate conditions ?

A. 40 C 75 % RH 0-6 month
B. Room temp 0-3 months
C. Room temp 0-4 weeks
D. Room temp 0-24 hours

A

D Room temp 0-24 hours

38
Q

Optimal ph of injection?

A

5-7 pH

39
Q

What can cause penis prolapse along with paradox reaction in Eq?

A

Acepromazine