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PHARMA Flashcards

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1
Q

the branch of medicine concerned with the uses, effects, and modes of
action of drugs.

A

Pharmacology

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2
Q

the Father of Pharmacology.

A

Paracelsus

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3
Q

BRANCHES: What the drug does to body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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4
Q

BRANCHES: What the body does to drug

A

Pharmacokinetics

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5
Q

BRANCHES: The study of the use of drugs

A

Pharmacotherapeutics

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6
Q

BRANCHES: Preparing suitable dosage forms

A

Pharmacy

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7
Q

BRANCHES: The study of drug dosage

A

Posology

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8
Q

BRANCHES: The study of nature, effects and detection of poisons

A

Toxicology

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9
Q

Refers to the quantity of drug administered at one time (ex: 500mg PARACETAMOL)

A

Dose

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10
Q

Refers to the amount of drug that should be given over time (ex: 500mg PARACETAMOL three times a day for 3 days)

A

Dosage

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11
Q

Dutch droog, meaning dry; are chemical substances that have an effect on living organisms.

A

Drugs

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12
Q

therapeutic drugs used in the treatment of diseases; prescribed by a physician

A

Medicines

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13
Q

are the scientific names based on the molecular structure of the drug.

A

Chemical Name

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14
Q

a commercial name granted by a naming authority for use in marketing a drug/device product in a particular jurisdiction.

A

Trade Names/Brand Names

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15
Q

means the name of a genus. This term is usually used to name a class or category of products or services. Common or general name assigned to the drug; Is the official or non-proprietary name for the drug.

A

Generic Name

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16
Q

What makes a branded drug expensive?

A

 Inactive substance ( to taste and smell better)
 Adds color to make it attractive
 The company bought the name (each letter has a price).

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17
Q

DRUG CREATION: Name the 7 steps in creating a drug.

A
  1. Find a Target
  2. Compound hitting
  3. preclinical studies
  4. IND application approved
  5. Complete phase I, II, III
  6. NDA Approved
  7. Monitor the drug’s use
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18
Q

DRUG CREATION: The three targets that drugs affect

A

microorganisms
hormones
organ

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19
Q

DRUG CREATION: IND stands for

A

investigational new drug

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20
Q

DRUG CREATION: NDA stands for

A

New Drug Application

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21
Q

DRUG CREATION: Phase 1 of the clinical trials include…

A

less than 200 ind. (healthy). No Cancer, Hypertension, Asthma, Diabetes

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22
Q

DRUG CREATION: Phase 2 of the clinical trials include…

A

less than 200 ind. (with specific diseases)

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23
Q

DRUG CREATION: Phase 3 of the clinical trials include…

A

more than 200 ind. (w/ specific diseases)

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24
Q

DRUG INFO: A list of medical conditions or diseases for which the drug is meant to be used.

A

INDICATIONS

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25
Q

DRUG INFO: A description of the cellular changes that occur as a result of the drug.

A

Action

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26
Q

DRUG INFO: A list of conditions for which the drug should not be given.

A

Contraindication

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27
Q

DRUG INFO: A list of conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for a specific side effects when given the drug.

A

CAUTIONS

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28
Q

DRUG INFO: List of contraindications include…

A

hypersensitivity, pregnant, liver or kidney problems

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29
Q

DRUG INFO: list of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects, other than the desired effects.

A

Side Effects and Adverse Reactions

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30
Q

DRUG INFO: A list of other drugs or food that may alter the effect of the drug and usually should not be given during the same course of therapy.

A

Interactions

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31
Q

DRUG INFO: Catapres is for _____

A

hypertension

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32
Q

DRUG INFO: immodium is for ______

A

diarrhea

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33
Q

DRUG INFO: Salbutamol causes _____

A

bronchodilation

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34
Q

Sources of Drug Information

A
  1. Drug Handbook
  2. Physician Desk Reference (PDR)
  3. Packet Insert
  4. Nursing Journal
  5. Medical Let
  6. MIMS (Monthly Index of Medical Specialties)
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35
Q

LAWS: The law says that all preparations called by the same drug name must be of uniform
strength, quality and purity

A

DRUG STANDARDS

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36
Q

LAWS: Required all drugs marketed to meet minimal standards of strength, purity and quality.

A

WILEY ACT

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37
Q

LAWS: Responsible for approval and removal of products on the market.

A

FDA

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38
Q

LAWS: “Warning” labels must be present on certain preparations, for example, “may cause drowsiness”, may cause “nervousness”, and “may be habit forming”.

A

Cosmetic Act

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39
Q

LAWS: distinguished between drugs that can be sold with or without prescription and those that should not be refilled without a new prescription, such as narcotics, hypnotics, or tranquilizer must be so labelled.

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

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40
Q

LAWS: tightened controls on drug safety, especially experimental drugs, and required that adverse reactions and contraindications must be labelled and included in the literature.

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment

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41
Q

LAWS: This act, designed to remedy the escalating problem of drug abuse.

A

Controlled Substances Act

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42
Q

LAWS: This reform act shortened the time in which new drugs could be developed and marketed.

A

DRRA (Drug Regulation Reform Act)

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43
Q

LAWS: The regulation were changed to increase the approval rate of drugs used to treat AIDS and cancer.

A

DRA (Drug Relation Act)

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44
Q

LAWS: drug companies that plan to discontinue drugs must inform health professionals and clients at least 6 months before stopping drug production.

A

MODERNIZATION ACT

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45
Q

LAWS: Generally, nurses cannot prescribe or administer drugs without a health care provider’s order, but state laws vary.

A

NURSE PRACTICE ACT

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46
Q

LAWS: An act providing for a more responsive nursing profession.

A

RA 9173

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47
Q

OFFENSES: Negligence; giving the wrong drug or drug dose that results in the client’s death

A

MISFEASANCE

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48
Q

OFFENSES: Omission; omitting a drug dose that results in the client’s death

A

NONFEASANCE

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49
Q

OFFENSES: Giving the correct drug but by the wrong route that results in the client’s death.

A

MALFEASANCE

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50
Q

DRUG ACTION: is the breakdown of a tablet into smaller particles

A

Disintegration

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51
Q

DRUG ACTION: is the dissolving of the smaller particles in the GI fluid before absorption

A

Dissolution

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52
Q

DRUG ACTION: is the time it takes the drug to disintegrate and dissolve to become available for the body to absorb it.

A

Rate Limiting

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53
Q

DRUG ACTION: 2 GI Fluids that cause dissolution

A

HCl acid & saliva

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54
Q

DRUG ACTION: The three areas of the GI tract considered to be acidic

A

mouth, esophagus, stomach

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55
Q

DRUG ACTION: resist disintegration in the gastric acid of the stomach, so disintegration does not occur until the drug reaches the alkaline environment of the small intestine.

A

Enteric Coated Drugs

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56
Q

DRUG ACTION: T/F: Enteric-coated drugs should be crushed for faster absorption

A

FALSE

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57
Q

DRUG ACTION: AKA the first phase of drug action

A

Pharmaceutic Phase

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58
Q

DRUG ACTION: aka 2nd phase of drug action; the process of drug movement to achieve drug action.

A

Pharmacokinetics Phase

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59
Q

DRUG ACTION: the 4 phases of pharmacokinetics

A

absorption (bioavailability), distribution metabolism, excretion

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60
Q

PHASES OF PHARMACOKINETICS: is the movement of drug particles from GI tract to body fluids by passive absorption, active absorption, and pinocytosis.

A

ABSORPTION

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61
Q

PHASES OF PHARMACOKINETICS: this occurs mostly by diffusion; movement from higher concentrations to lower concentrations. No energy is required to move across the membranes.

A

Passive absorption

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62
Q

PHASES OF PHARMACOKINETICS: this required a carrier such as an enzyme or protein to move the drug across the concentration gradient.

A

Active absorption

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63
Q

PHASES OF PHARMACOKINETICS: a process by which the cells carry the drug across the membrane by engulfing the drug particles.

A

Pinocytosis

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64
Q

Name the factors that affect drug absorption

A

a. Ph Type
b. Drugs that are lipid soluble
c. Blood flow, pain, stress, hunger, fasting, food, and pH affect drug
absorption.
d. Poor circulation as a result of shock, vasoconstrictor drugs, or disease hampers absorption.
e. Drugs given intramuscularly

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65
Q

T/F: Absorption is fast since there is no Hydrochloric acid present.

A

TRUE

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66
Q

If the drug is best absorbed in an alkaline environment should you eat or not?

A

DO NOT EAT

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67
Q

If the drug is best absorbed in an acidic environment (stomach), should you eat or not?

A

EAT

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68
Q

T/F: Drugs that are lipid soluble (nonionized) are not absorbed faster than water-soluble (ionized drugs).

A

FALSE

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69
Q

The slowest route of drug administration

A

Intradermal (ID)

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70
Q

The fastest route of drug administration

A

Intravenous (IV) and Intramuscular (IM)

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71
Q

PHARMACOKINETICS: the proportion of a drug or other substance which enters the circulation when introduced into the body and so is able to have an active effect.

A

BIOAVAILABILITY

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72
Q

Factors that alter bioavailability

A

1.Drug form
2.Route of administration
3.GI mucosa and motility
4.Food and other drugs
5.Changes in liver metabolism

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73
Q

DISTRIBUTION: the second pharmacokinetic phase and is the process by which the drug
becomes available to body fluids and body tissues.

A

DISTRIBUTION

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74
Q

DISTRIBUTION: plays a major role in distribution.

A

BLOOD STREAM

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75
Q

DISTRIBUTION: Drugs that are greater than 89% bound to protein are known as _______

A

highly protein-bound drugs.

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76
Q

DISTRIBUTION: Drugs that are ______ bound to protein are moderately highly protein bound.

A

61%-89%

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77
Q

DISTRIBUTION: Drugs that are 30%-60% bound to protein are

A

moderately protein-bound.

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78
Q

DISTRIBUTION: Drugs that are ______ bound to protein are low protein–bound drugs.

A

> 30%

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79
Q

METABOLISM: this is the third pharmacokinetic phase

A

METABOLISM

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80
Q

METABOLISM: primary site of drug metabolism is in ______

A

the “Liver”.

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81
Q

METABOLISM: is the time it takes for one half of the drug concentration to be eliminated.

A

Half-life (t1/2)

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82
Q

EXCRETION: This is the fourth and final pharmacokinetic phase.

A

EXCRETION

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83
Q

EXCRETION: the main route of drug elimination is through the

A

“Kidneys” (Urine)

84
Q

EXCRETION: Other Elimination Routes include:

A

a. bile (dark/light color of feces)
b. lungs
c. saliva
d. sweat
e. breastmilk

85
Q

EXCRETION: It is an increased effect of a drug demonstrated when repeated doses accumulate in the body.

A

Cumulative effect

86
Q

EXCRETION: refers to a condition that results from exposure to either a poison or a dangerous amount of a drug that is normally safe when given in a smaller amount.

A

Toxicity

87
Q

EXCRETION: It is the most accurate test to determine renal function

A

Creatinine Clearance

88
Q

EXCRETION: The normal level for creatinine clearance

A

85 to 135ml/min

89
Q

DRUG EFFECTS: Reaches widespread areas of the body (ex. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) suppository, although given rectally, has the ability to be absorbed and distributed throughout the body to cause a general reduction in fever and pain)

A

Systemic effect

90
Q

DRUG EFFECTS: Is limited to the area of the body where it is administered (ex. Dibucaine ointment (Nupercainal), applied rectally affects only the rectal mucosa to reduce hemorrhoidal pain).

A

Local Effect

91
Q

DRUG EFFECTS: refers to the systemic/widespread effect. Patient will not feel any
pain cephalocaudal. It would usually induct ______ if the operative site is
located above nipple line.

A

GENERAL ANESTHESIA

92
Q

DRUG EFFECTS: Metabolism and excretion are slower in older adults, and therefore attention must be paid to possible cumulative effects. Children have a lower threshold of response and react more rapidly and sometimes in unexpected ways; therefore, frequent assessment
is imperative.

A

AGE

93
Q

DRUG EFFECTS: Generally, the bigger the person, the greater the dose should be.

A

WEIGHT

94
Q

DRUG EFFECTS: Women respond differently than men to some drugs. The ratio of fat per body
mass differs, and so do hormone levels.

A

SEX

95
Q

DRUG EFFECTS: It has been proven that the more positive the patient feels about the medicationhe or she is taking, the more positive the physical response. This is referred to as
the placebo effect.

A

PSYCHOLOGICAL STATE

96
Q

Is the science dealing with interactions between chemical components of living systems and the foreign chemicals, including drugs.

A

PHARMACODYNAMICS

97
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: Whenever more than one drug is taken, it is possible that the combination may alter the normal expected response of each individual drug.

A

Drug Interactions

98
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: The action of two drugs working together in which one helps the other simultaneously for an effect that neither could produce alone.

A

SYNERGISM

99
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: The action of two drugs in which one prolongs or multiplies the effect of the other. Drug A may be said to potentiate the effect of drug

A

POTENTION/ADDITIVE

100
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: The opposing action of two drugs in which one decreases or cancels out the effect of the other. Drug A may be referred to as an antagonist of Drug B.

A

ANTAGONISM

101
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: Effect from maternal drug administration that causes the development of the physical defects in fetus

A

TERATOGENIC EFFECT

102
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: Unique, unusual response to a drug

A

Idiosyncrasy

103
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: Opposite effect from that expected

A

Paradoxical

104
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: Immune response (allergy) to a drug may be of varying degrees.

A

Hypersensitivity

105
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: severe, possibly fatal, allergic response

A

Anaphylactic Reaction

106
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: The rate of cell activity or the secretion from a gland increases.

A

Stimulation or depression

107
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: Example, insulin replace essential body compounds

A

Replacement

108
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: drugs that inhibit or kill organisms interfere with bacterial cell growth (penicillin exerts its bacterial effects by blocking the synthesis of bacterial cell wall)

A

Inhibition

109
Q

PHARMACODYNAMICS: Drugs can also act by mechanism of irritation (laxatives irritate the inner wall of the colon, thus increasing peristalsis and defecation)

A

Irritation

110
Q

CNS: fight or flight
increases: dilated pupils, ups HR, glucose release, epi and nore release, relaxes bronchi
decreases: inhibits saliva, digestive activity, relaxes bladder, orgasm, contracts rectum

A

Sympathetic NS

111
Q

CNS: rest and digest
increases: saliva, digestion, gallbladder, contracts bladder, relaxes bladder
decreases: pupil constriction, bronchi constrict, HR drops, adrenaline

A

Parasympathetic NS

112
Q

CNS: also known as SYMPATHOMIMETIC DRUG AGENT, resembles like epinephrine (adrenaline)

A

Adrenergic agonists

113
Q

CNS: types of Aa

A

alpha and beta
alpha specific
beta specific

114
Q

CNS: alpha blockers target the _____; beta blockers target the _____

A

heart; lungs

115
Q

CNS:
- also known as SYMPATHOLYTICS DRUG AGENT
- ANTIADRENERGICS
- ADRENERGIC BLOCKING AGENTS
- SYMPATHETIC ANTAGONISTS
- are drugs that oppose the actions of the SNS

A

adrenergic antagonists

116
Q

CNS: types of AnAa

A
  1. NON SELECTIVE ADRENERGIC BLOCKING AGENTS
  2. NON SELECTIVE ALPHA ADRENERGIC BLOCKING AGENTS
  3. ALPHA SELECTIVE ADRENERGIC BLOCKING AGENTS
  4. NON SELECTIVE BETA ADRENERGIC BLOCKING AGENTS
  5. BETA 1 SELECTIVE ADRENERGIC BLOCKING
117
Q

CNS:
- also known as PARASYMPATHOMIMETIC DRUG AGENT
- their actions resemble acetylcholine

A

cholinergic agonists

118
Q

CNS: Types of Ca

A
  1. DIRECT-ACTING CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
  2. INDIRECTING-ACTING CHOLINERGIC AGONISTS (FOR MYASTHENIA GRAVIS)
  3. INDIRECTING-ACTING CHOLINERGIC AGONISTS (ALZHEIMER’S DISEASE)
119
Q

CNS:
- also known as PARASYMPATHOLYTIC DRUG AGENT
- lysing or preventing parasympathetic effects

A

anticholinergic agents

120
Q

CNS: chronic muscular disease caused by a defect in
neuromuscular transmission, autoimmune disease in which
patients make antibodies to their ACh receptors

A

Myasthenia

121
Q

CV: Main Diseases of the Cardiovascular System

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Congestive heart failure
  3. Coronary artery disease
  4. Angina Pectoris/Myocardial infarction
  5. Cardiac arrhythmias
122
Q

CV: is when your blood pressure, the force of your blood pushing against the walls of your blood vessels, is consistently too high

A

hypertension

123
Q

CV:
Renin inhibitor - none
_____ - _____
_____ - _____

A

ACE inhibitors - (-pril)
A2 blockers - (-artan)

124
Q

CV: explain the RAAS

A

low bp > kidney (jg cells) > renin > angio tensinogen > angiotensin 1 > ACE > angiotensin 2 > aldosterone hormone

125
Q

CV: four things that aldosterone does?

A

Na absorption
H2O absorption
increase BV
increase BP

126
Q

CV: high potassium levels is called?

A

hyperkalemia

127
Q

CV: meds end in -olol

A

beta blockers

128
Q

CV: meds end in -pine

A

calcium channel blockers

129
Q

CV: aka water pills, meds end in -zide

A

diuretics

130
Q

CV: drugs used to treat heart failure

A

cardiotonic agents

131
Q

CV: Increases intracellular calcium and allows more calcium during
depolarization: Increase force of myocardial contraction,
increase cardiac output and renal perfusion, slowed heart rate

A

cardiac glycosides / digoxin

132
Q

CV: Block enzyme phophodiesterase. This blocking effect leads to increase myocardial cell cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) thus increasing calcium levels in the cells

A

phophodiesterase inhibitor / milrinone

133
Q

CV: Blocking the HCN slow the heart’s pacemaker, the sinus node
thus leading to reduction in the heart rate. Allowing more time
for ventricular filling and improve cardiac output.

A

HCN gated channel blocker / ivabradine

134
Q

CV: it has the longest ventricular feeding content

A

ivabradine

135
Q

CV: Fatty plaques cause blockage and decreased blood flow to the
myocardium

A

coronary artery disease

136
Q

CV: HMG-CoA meds end in…

A

-astatin

137
Q

CV: enzyme that regulates the last step in cellular
cholesterol synthesis

A

(Hydroxymethylglutaryl enzyme) HMG-CoA

138
Q

CV: three types of anti-anginal agents

A

nitrates, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers

139
Q

CV: “suffocation of the chest” pain caused by imbalance between demand and
supply of oxygen in the heart

A

Angina Pectoris

140
Q

CV: Caused by complete blockage of one of the coronary arteries. Heart cells deprived of blood/oxygen become ischemic, die, and form an infarct

A

Myocardial Infarction

141
Q

CV: four things that causes heart muscle contractability

A

calcium, beta-blockers, potassium, sodium

142
Q

CV: are disturbances in the normal electrical activity of conduction system

A

cardiac arrhythmias

143
Q

CV: the following classes block what:
Class I - _____
Class II - _____
Class III - _____
Class IV - _____

A

C1 - Na (sodium)
C2 - beta-blockers
C3 - K (potassium)
C4 - Ca (calcium)

144
Q

RESPI: drugs that affect the URT

A

antitussives, decongestants, antihistamine, expectorant, mucolytics

145
Q

RESPI: drugs that affect the LRT

A

xanthines, sympathomimetics, anticholinergics, lowers inflammation, lung surfactant

146
Q

RESPI: is a chemical released during inflammation that increases secretions and narrows
airways

A

histamine

147
Q

RESPI: first choice of bronchodilators

A

xanthines

148
Q

RESPI: mimic the effects of the SNS

A

sympathomimetics

149
Q

RESPI: substitute for sympathomimetics

A

anticholinergics

150
Q

RESPI: reduce the surface tension within the alveoli

A

lung surfactant

151
Q

GASTRO: 3 major problems of the GIT

A

gastritis, GERD, ulcers

152
Q

GASTRO: 2 types of ulcers

A

peptic and doudenal

153
Q

GASTRO: neutralizes stomach acid, relief for upset stomach related to hyperacidity

A

antacids

154
Q

GASTRO: what does SCAM stand for?

A

sodium bicarbonate
calcium carbonate
aluminum hydroxide
magnesium hydroxide

155
Q

GASTRO: side effects of calcium and aluminum, of magnesium

A

constipation, diarrhea

156
Q

GASTRO: these meds are taken when?
antacids - _____
H2 blockers - _____
Proton-pump - _____
mucosal protectant - _____

A

antacids: 1 hr before or after meals
H2: 30 mins before meals
PP: 30 mins before meals
Mucosal: 1-2 hrs before or after meals

157
Q

GASTRO:
H2 meds end in ______
PP meds end in ______

A

-tidine
-prazole

158
Q

GASTRO: prevents the release of gastrin, blocking HCI acid

A

H2 receptor blockers/inhibitors

159
Q

GASTRO: most common type of H2 blocker

A

ranitidine

160
Q

GASTRO: most common type of proton-pump

A

omeprazole

161
Q

GASTRO: used for heartburn, GERD, an ulcer prophylaxis

A

Proton-pump inhibitors

162
Q

GASTRO: prevent stomach and duodenal ulcers, forms a thick layer over ulcer

A

mucosal protectant

163
Q

GASTRO: name for drug of MP

A

sucralfate

164
Q

GASTRO: types of drugs affecting GI motility

A

Laxatives, GI stimulants, anti-diarrheal agents

165
Q

GASTRO: for short term constipation, prevent straining ff surgery, MI, OB delivery

A

Laxatives

166
Q

GASTRO: types of laxatives

A

chemical, bulk, lubricants

167
Q

GASTRO: laxative that directly stimulates the nerve plexus in the intestinal wall

A

chemical stimulant

168
Q

GASTRO: rapid acting, aggressive laxatives

A

bulk stimulants

169
Q

GASTRO: short term treatment of constipation, alt. for patients with CVD

A

Lactulose

170
Q

GASTRO: 2 types of GI stimulants

A

dexpanthenol & metoclopramide

171
Q

GASTRO: slows motility of the GI tract

A

antidiarrheals

172
Q

GASTRO: most common antidiarrheal drug

A

loperamide (imodium)

173
Q

ENDO: 4 categories of natural hormones

A

pituitary hormones
adrenal corticosteroids
thyroid agents
antidiabetic agents

174
Q

ENDO: aka the master gland

A

pituitary gland

175
Q

ENDO: hormones produced by APG

A

GH, ACTH (cortisol), LH, FSH, TSH

176
Q

ENDO: hormones produced by PPG

A

ADH, Oxytocin

177
Q

ENDO: developmental abnormalities, congenital defects of the pituitary gland

A

hypopituitarism

178
Q

ENDO: GH deficiency in children

A

dwarfism

179
Q

ENDO: hypersecretion of the GH caused by pituitary tumor

A

hyperpituitarism

180
Q

ENDO: acceleration of linear skeletal growth of 7-8 feet in height with normal body proportions

A

gigantism

181
Q

ENDO: excessive GH secretion, occurs after puberty and epiphyseal plate closure

A

acromegaly

182
Q

ENDO: insufficient secretion of ADH

A

Diabetes insipidus

183
Q

ENDO: excessive secretion
of ADH

A

SIADH

184
Q

ENDO:
- produced in the anterior pituitary gland
- Regulate levels of steroid hormone (cortisol) – adrenal gland

A

ACTH

185
Q

ENDO:
- Helps control blood sugar levels
- Regulates metabolism
- Reduce inflammation
- Helps the body respond to stress

A

cortisol

186
Q

ENDO: indicated for treatment of inflammation

A

glucocorticoids

187
Q

ENDO: aldosterone reabsorbs Na+ and water, excretes K+

A

mineralocorticoids

188
Q

ENDO: are administered to lower glucose levels in those with impaired metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins

A

antidiabetic agents

189
Q

ENDO: is required as a replacement therapy for type 1 diabetes with insufficient production of insulin from the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

A

insulin

190
Q

ENDO: three types of insulin

A

rapid/fast-acting
intermediate-acting
long-acting

191
Q

ENDO: given to patients who still have functioning pancreas

A

Oral hypoglycemic agents

192
Q

RENAL: drug that work in the Loop of Henle, most potent diuretics

A

LOOP DIURETICS

193
Q

RENAL: two kinds of loop diuretics

A

furosemide and bumetanide

194
Q

RENAL: known as a potassium wasting diuretic

A

furosemide

195
Q

RENAL: Blocks the effects of carbonic anhydrase, slows down the movement of hydrogen ions, as a result more sodium and bicarbonate are lost in the urine.

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

196
Q

RENAL: Used for patients who are at high risk for hypokalemia
associated with diuretic use

A

potassium-sparing diuretics

197
Q

RENAL: potassium-sparing diuretics that is an aldosterone antagonist

A

spirolalactone

198
Q

RENAL: a type of diuretic that inhibits reabsorption of water and Na. (loss of water and sodium)

A

osmotic diuretics

199
Q

RENAL: three types of drugs that affect UT and bladder

A

urinary tract antiseptics
cholinergic agents
urinary tract antispasmodics

200
Q

RENAL:
* Inhibits the growth of bacteria in the urine
* Indicated for UTI (Urinary Tract Infection)
* Given with milk or meals to prevent GI distress
* Gives a brown color to urine

A

urinary tract antiseptics

201
Q

RENAL:
* Stimulates the bladder to empty
* Used to treat urinary retention (difficulty urinating)
* Given on an empty stomach or 2 hrs after a meal

A

cholinergic agents

202
Q

RENAL:
* BLOCK THE SPASMS of the urinary tract muscles
* Relaxes the smooth muscles of the urinary tract
* Improves muscles pressure and urine outflow

A

urinary tract antispasmodics

203
Q

DRUG: is the original system of weights and measures for writing medication order.

A

apothecary system

204
Q

DRUG: is a pharmacist or druggist

A

apothecary

205
Q

DRUG: is the preferred system of measurement and used at
present. It is the international standard for weights and measures.

A

metric system

206
Q

DRUG: least accurate, this system is more familiar to the layperson and is used in prescribing medications for the patient at home.

A

house-hold system

NURSING Y2S1 (6 decks)

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