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Nursing 111 & Pharmacology > Pharm Test #3 > Flashcards

Pharm Test #3 Flashcards

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1
Q

indications for use of adrenal agents

A
  1. widely used to suppress the immune system
  2. short-term use to relieve inflammation during acute stages of illness
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2
Q

do adrenal agents cure inflammatory disorders

A

NO

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3
Q

where are the adrenal glands located

A

flattened bodies that sit on top of each kidney

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4
Q

what two hormones do adrenal glands secrete

A
  1. cortisol
  2. aldosterone
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5
Q

this increases glucose and controls blood pressure

A

cortisol

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6
Q

causes kidneys to absorb sodium. CV is impacted if not working

A

aldosterone

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7
Q

3 types of corticosteroids

A

androgens, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids

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8
Q

what causes greatly reduced cortisol and aldosterone secretion

A

adrenal gland hypotension

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9
Q

what are the actions of the adrenocortical hormones

A

cause the release of glucose for energy

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10
Q

signs/symptoms of adrenal gland hypofunction

A
  1. hypoglycemia
  2. muscle weakness
  3. hypotension
  4. fatigue
  5. hyperkalcemia
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11
Q

signs of adrenal crisis

A

physiological exhaustion
hypotension
fluid shift
shock and even death

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12
Q

treatment of adrenal crisis

A

massive infusion of replacement steroids

constant monitoring and life support procedures

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13
Q

medications for glucocorticoids

A

dexamethasone
hydrocortisone - IV
methylprednisolone - IV
prednisone - oral ***know

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14
Q

what do glucocorticoids impact

A

the sugar

monitor blood glucose level

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15
Q

why be concerned if pt is on glucocorticoids long term

A

-make bones brittle
-monitor pt for fractures
-suppresses immune system- makes wounds hard to heal
-need to protect pt from infections

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16
Q

what are the actions of glucocortioids

A

initiate many complex reactions responsible for anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects

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17
Q

why use glucocorticoids

A
  1. short term treatment of many inflammatory disorders
  2. to relieve discomfort
  3. give body a chance to heal from effects of inflammation
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18
Q

contraindications for glucocorticoids

A
  • acute infection
    -irritating to GI and can cause issues
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19
Q

cautions for glucocorticoid

A

acute peptic ulcer

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20
Q

indications for prednisone

A

replacement therapy in adrenal cortical insufficiency;
short term management of various inflammatory and allergic disorders,
hypercalcemia associated with cancer,
hematological disorders,
ulcerative colitis,
acute exacerbations of multple sclerosis

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21
Q

actions of prednisone

A

enters target cells and binds intracellular corticosteroid receptors, initiating many complex reactions responsible for anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects

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22
Q

medication for mineralocorticoid

A

fludrocortisone

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23
Q

3 things to know about mineralocorticoid

A
  1. fludrocortisone
  2. take same time every day
  3. weigh daily bc pt gains a lot of weight and record
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24
Q

drug to drug interaction for mineralocorticoid

A

decrease effectiveness with salicylates, rifampin

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25
Q

adrenal gland hyperfunction

A
  1. cortisol is excessively secreted or
  2. aldosterone is excessively secreted
  3. can result in an adrenal gland problem, like a tumor
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26
Q

medication for adrenal gland hyperfunction

A

mifepristone — this can cause abortions

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27
Q

what is the actions of fludrocortisone

A
  1. increases sodium reabsorption in renal tubules and increases potassium and hydrogen excretion, leading to water and sodium retention
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28
Q

intended response or side effects about adrenocortical agents

A

-intended-reduce blood levels of glucocorticoids and aldosterone
-normal BG and BP

side effects: can lead to adrenal insufficiency

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29
Q

what do you teach patients about adrenocortical agents

A

-signs of adrenal insufficiency
-keep all blood work appointments

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30
Q

2 types of antibiotics

A

bacteriostatic
bactericidal

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31
Q

what do bacteriostatic antibiotics do

A

those substances that prevent growth of bacteria

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32
Q

what does bactericidal antibiotics do

A

kill bacteria directly

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33
Q

how do you select treatment of antibiotic

A

id the causative organism

-antibiotic is chosen that has been nown to be effective at treating invading organism

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34
Q

signs of infection

A

-fever
-lethargy
-increased wbc
-classic signs of inflammation
-look at cultures

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35
Q

how do bacteria become resistant to antibiotics

A

-adapt to environment
-longer antibiotic has been in use, greater the chance bacteria will develop into resistant strain

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36
Q

this is a group of powerful antibiotics used to treat serious infections caused by gram negative aerobic bacilli

A

aminoglycosides

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37
Q

common medication for aminoglycosides

A

gentamicin **know

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38
Q

what to know about gentamicin

A

ototoxic - hearing impairment or loss
harsh med - very toxic to kidneys

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39
Q

what type of antibioitic is aminoglycosides

A

bactericidal

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40
Q

pharmacokinetics of aminoglycosides

A

depend on kidney for excretion and are toxic to the kidneys

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41
Q

adverse effects of aminoglycosides

A

ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity *****

know

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42
Q

this new class of broad spectrum antibiotics effective against gram positive and gram negative bacteria

A

carbapenems

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43
Q

carbapenems medication to know

A

imipenem-cilastatin (Primaxin)

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44
Q

true or false

because of adverse effects of aminoglycosides, it is important to teach pt to restrict fluids and eat 6 small meals daily

A

false

try to drink lots of fluids to maintain nutrition even though nausea, vomiting and diarrhea may occur

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45
Q

indications of carbapenems

A

-treatment of serious infections caused by suseptible bacteria

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46
Q

what type of antibiotic is carbapenems

A

bactericidal

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47
Q

actions of carbapenems

A

inhibit cell membrane synthesis in susceptible bacteria leading to cell death

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48
Q

pharmacokinetics of carbapenems

A

excreted unchanged in urine - have an average half life of 1-4 hours

-this doesn’t get broken down in body
-okay to use for liver disease

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49
Q

adverse effects of carbapenems

A

pseydomembranous colitis, cdiff diarrhea, and nausea and vomiting can lead to serious dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

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50
Q

this is similar to penicillin in structure and activity

A

cephalosporins

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51
Q

common meds for cephalosporins

A

cephalexin (keflex)
ceftriaxone (rocephin)

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52
Q

what type of antibiotic is cephalosporins

A

bactericidal and bacteriostatic

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53
Q

what are the indications of cephalosporins

A

treatment of infections caused by susceptible bacteria

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54
Q

actions of cephalosporins

A

interfere with cell wall building ability of bacteria when they divide

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55
Q

pharmacokinetics of cephalosporins

A

-well absorbed from GI tract
-metabolized in liver, excreted in urine

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56
Q

contraindications of cephalosporins

A

-allergies to cephalosporins or penicillin ****

know

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57
Q

adverse side effects of cephalosporins

A

GI tract irritations

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58
Q

you are writing plan of care for patient receiving Cefaclor. What would be apporpriate nursing diagnosis for pt?

a. deficient fluid volume and imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to diarrhea
b. chronic pain RT GI, CNS effects of drug
c. monitor renal function test values
d. perform culture and sensitivity tests at the site of infection

A

a. deficient fluid volume and imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to diarrhea

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59
Q

this is relatively new synthetic class of antibiotics with broad spectrum of activity

A

fluoroquinolones

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60
Q

common meds for fluoroquinolones

A

ciprofloxacin (cipro)
levofloxacin (levaquin)

**know its broad spectrum antibiotic

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61
Q

actions of tetracyclines

A

inhibits protein synthesis insusceptible bacteria, preventing cell replication

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62
Q

pharmacokinetics of tetracyclines

A
  1. adequately absorbed from GI tract
  2. concentrated in liver, excreted unchanged in urine
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63
Q

adverse side effects of tetracyclines

A

-most GI but possible damange to teeth and bones
- causes teeth discoloration in children –> yellow/brown and is permanent

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64
Q

drug to drug interactions for tetracyclines

A

penicillin G, oral contraceptives

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65
Q

do you take tetracyclines with or without food

A

administer on empty stomach

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66
Q

pyridoxine = ?

A

B6

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67
Q

antituberculins contains

A

pathogens causing TB

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68
Q

what are two antituberculosis drugs

A

rifampin and isoniazid (INH)

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69
Q

if exposed to TB how long will be on isoniazid (INH)

A

6 months

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70
Q

what antituberculosis drug do you take with vitamin B6

A

isoniazid (INH)

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71
Q

first antibiotic introduced for clinical use

A

penicillin

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72
Q

which antibiotics do you use for severe infections caused by sensitive organisms and broad spectrums use

A

penicillin and penicillinase resisitant antibiotics

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73
Q

what are the actions of penicillin and penicillinase resistant antibiotics

A

interfere with the ability of susceptible bacteria to build their cell walls

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74
Q

these rapidly absorbed from GI tract, reaching peak levels in 1 hour. excreted unchanged in urine

A

penicillin and penicillinase resistant antibiotics

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75
Q

what are the contraindications of penicillin and penicillinase resistant antibiotics

A

allergies to penicillin or cephalosporins, renal disease

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76
Q

drug to drug interactions for penicillin and penicillinase resistant drugs

A

tetracyclines, parenteral aminoglycosides

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77
Q

these developed as semisynthetic antibiotics based on structure of common soil mold

A

tetracyclines

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78
Q

true or false

tetracyclines can lead to sun burns

A

true - pts on these drugs should stay out of the sun

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79
Q

what are the actions of antituberculins

A

act on DNA of bacteria leading to lack of growth and eventual bacterial death of TB

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80
Q

what are the pharmacokinetics of antituberculins

A

-absorbed well in GI tract
-metabolized in liver

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81
Q

how do you test for active TB

A

need gram of sputum of multiple days

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82
Q

true or false

chest xray is not a diagnosis of active TB

A

true. a chest x ray only shows if you were exposed. does not indicate TB is active or not

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83
Q

what are the adverse effects of TB drugs

A

hepatotoxicity

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84
Q

what are the drug to drug interactions for antituberculins

A

rifampin and INH can cause liver toxicity

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85
Q

contraindications of antituberculins

A

renal or hepatic failure

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86
Q

these vary in their effective ness against invading organisms

A

anti infectives

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87
Q

this kill the cell

A

bactericidal

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88
Q

this prevents reproduction of cell

A

bacteriostatic

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89
Q

effective against only a few microorganisms with a very specific metabolic pathway or enzyme

A

narrow spectrum of activity

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90
Q

“match the bug to the drug”

A

narrow spectrum of activity

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91
Q

useful in treating a wide variety of infections

A

broad spectrum of activity

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92
Q

what are examples of narrow spectrum of activity

A

PCN and amoxicillin

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93
Q

what are used to determine the type and extent of infection

A

culture and sensitivity tests

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94
Q

ability over time to adapt to an anti infective drug and produce cells that no longer affected by particular drug

A

natural or acquired resistance

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95
Q

these act on specific enzyme system or biological process, many microorganisms that do not act on this system are not affected by this particular drug

A

antiinfectives

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96
Q

how do you prevent resistance to medication

A
  1. limit the use of antimicrobial agents to the treatment of specific pathogens sensitive to drug being used
  2. make sure doses are high enough and duration of drug therapy is long enough
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97
Q

how is the ID of the infecting pathogen done

A

by culture

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98
Q

this determines which drugs are capable of controlling the particular microorganism

A

sensitivity test

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99
Q

what is a treatment of systemic infections

A

combination therapy
- some drugs are synergistic

ex; opioid can affect and tylenol

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100
Q

trying to prevent infection from occurring

give before surgery and then after to prevent infection

A

prophylaxis

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101
Q

who gets prophylaxis

A
  1. ppl traveling to area where malaria is endemic
  2. pts undergoing GI or genitourinary surgery
  3. pts with known cardiac valve disease, valve replacements, other invasive procedures
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102
Q

for dental work - how many hours before do CVD pts get the prophylaxis

A

72 hours

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103
Q

adverse reactions to antiinfective therapy

A
  1. kidney damage - highly toxic and renal failure
  2. GI toxicity
  3. Neurotoxicity
  4. Hypersensitivity Reactions - make sure pt isn’t allergic
  5. Superinfections - yeast & c.diff
  6. Ototoxcitiy
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104
Q

three antiinfective medications

A
  1. vancomycin
  2. gentamycin
  3. enoxaparin
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105
Q

what do you do for your pt who is on antiinfective therapy

A

monitor I & O, monitor any pt changes, get CBC

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106
Q

how long after pt receives new medications via IV will they have an allergic reaction

A

10 mins

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107
Q

thyroid gland produces two thyroid hormones using iodine found in diet

A
  1. tetraiodothyronine or levothyroxine (T4)
  2. triiodothyronine or liothyronine (T3)
108
Q

what does the thyroid gland remove from the blood

A

iodine

109
Q

what is T3 name

A

triiodothyronine

110
Q

what is T4 name

A

tetraiodothyronine

111
Q

four functions of thyroid hormones

A
  1. regulate the rate of metabolism
  2. affect heat prodcution and body temperature
  3. affect metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
  4. regulate growth and development
112
Q

this needs replacement of hormones
is underactivity

A

hypothyroidism

113
Q

treatment to slow down
overactivity

A

hyperthyroidism

114
Q

what would cause hypothyroidism

A
  1. surgeries and had to remove some or all of thyroid gland
  2. not enough iodine in the diet to produce needed level of thyroid hormone
115
Q

signs/symptoms of hypothyroidism

A
  1. constipation
  2. decreased appetite/weight gain
  3. bradycardia, hypotension
  4. cold all time
  5. decreased HR/RR
  6. lack of energy
  7. increased sleeping
116
Q

medication for replacement hormone - hypothyroidism

A

levothyroxine (synthetic salt of T4)

117
Q

what do you teach a pt about levothyroxine about before administration - 4

A
  1. check BP and HR especially the first dose
  2. check dose/drug name carefully
  3. ensure drug is given two hours before meal***
  4. take same time every day
118
Q

what do you teach pt about after administration of levothyroxine

A
  1. check BP and HR
  2. ask pt about any chest pain
119
Q

most important thing about levothyroxine

A

take two hours before meal

120
Q

dose starts _____ and then is ____ ____ until patient has reached _____ level

A

dose starts LOW and is SLOWLY INCREASED until pt has NORMAL levels

121
Q

intended responses of levothyroxine

** know these

A

-body temp and level of activity are normal
-HR, BP and RR normal
-Pts body weight is maintained
-Pt is mentally alert
-BM pattern is normal

122
Q

side effects of levothyroxine

A

-overdose of drug can cause hyperthyroidism
-increased activity of cardiac and nervous system

123
Q

***** know this

what brings down calcium level

A

alendronate

124
Q

if what is used with levothyroxine, it can cause gastric erosion

A

alendronate

125
Q

this is excessive amounts of thyroid hormones are produced and released into ciruclation

A

hyperthyroidism

126
Q

what is the cause of graves’ disease

A

hyperthyroidism

127
Q

signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A

increased body temp - too warm
tachycardia
palpitations
hypertension
flushing
intolerance to heat
amenorrhea
weight loss
sweating

128
Q

what is a thyroid storm

A

increase fever
massive release
hypertension
abdominal pain
increase HR

this is medical emergency

129
Q

what medications do you use for hyperthyroidism

A

propylthiouracil (PTU)
Methimazole
iodine solutions are used

130
Q

actions of thioamides

A

prevent formation of thyroid hormone within thyroid cells, lowering serum level

131
Q

what are antithyroid agents called

A

thioamides
iodine solutions

132
Q

high dose of this block thyroid function

A

iodine solutions

133
Q

when to use antithyroid agents

A

for hyperthyroidism

134
Q

what is the pharmacokinetics of thioamides

A

absorbed from GI tract, concentrated in thyroid gland, some excretion detected in urine

135
Q

pharmacokinetics of iodine solution

A

rapidly absorbed from gi tract, widely distributed throughout body fluids, excretion through urine

136
Q

adverse effects of antithyroid agents

A

thioamides: thyroid suppression
iodine solutions: hypothyroidism

137
Q

what do you do before you administer antithyroid meds

A

check pt’s liver function tests

138
Q

what do you do after administering antithyroid meds

A

check WBC
check daily for yellowing of skin — could be liver dysfunction

139
Q

what endocrine gland produces hormones in islets of langerhans

A

pancreas

140
Q

this hormone is produced by beta cells of the islets of langerhans

A

insulin

141
Q

this treats hyperglycemia

A

insulin

142
Q

what is the physiology of glucose regulation

A

constant supply of glucose is needed for normal body function

143
Q

this is rapid release insulin for type 1 diabetes

A

lispro

144
Q

what does insulin do to K+

A

it pulls K+ and can cause hypocalcemia and dysrhythmia

145
Q

actions of insulin

A
  1. released into ciruclation when levels of glucose around these cells rise
  2. stimulates glycogen synthesis, conversion of lipids into fat stored as adipose tissue and synthesis ofproteins from amino acids
  3. released after meals, causing blood glucose levels to fall, prevents blood glucose levels from becoming too high
  4. insulin causes blood glucose levels to decrease
146
Q

this is released from alpha cells into islets of langerhans in repsonse to low blood glucose

A

glucagon

147
Q

this casues immediate mobilization of glycogen stored in liver and raises blood glucose levels

A

glucagon

148
Q

this breaks down glycogen into glucose

A

glycagon

149
Q

secretion of ____ raises blood glucose levels to normal

A

glucagon

150
Q

which diabetes can’t make insulin

A

type 1

151
Q

what is type 1 diabetes called

A

insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)

152
Q

this is rapid onset, seen in younger ppl

A

type 1 diabetes

153
Q

connected in many cases to viral destruction of beta cells in pancreas

A

type 1 diabetes

154
Q

is type 1 diabetes seen in
a. children and young adults
b. older adults, elderly

A

A. children and young adults

155
Q

beta cells no longer make or secrete insulin. needs insulin replacement

A

type 1 diabetes

156
Q

by product of using fat to make ATP

A

ketoacids

157
Q

what is type 2 diabetes called

A

non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)

158
Q

in what age group does type 2 diabetes occur

A

older adults

159
Q

this is slow and progressive onset

A

type 2 diabetes

160
Q

what are the big risk factors for type 2 diabetes

A

obesity
sedentary lifestyle

161
Q

what insulin do you use for type 2 diabetes

A

regular, NPH (intermediate acting)

162
Q

increased blood sugar

A

hyperglycemia

163
Q

sugar spilled into urine

A

glycosuria

164
Q

increased hunger

A

polyphagia

165
Q

increased thirst

A

polydipsia

166
Q

fat breakdown

A

lipolysis

167
Q

ketones cannot be removed effectively

A

ketosis

168
Q

liver cannot remove all the waste products

A

acidosis

169
Q

signs of hyperglycemia

A

fatigue
lethargy
weight loss
glycosuria
polyphagia
polydipsia
polyuria
itchy skin

170
Q

what do you check before administering insulin

A

test pt’s blood glucose level
check vial for color and clarity

171
Q

breakdown of fat and glycogen to release glucose

pancreas releases glucagon to increase glucose and somatostatin

A

hypoglycemia

172
Q

signs/symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

headache
blurred vision
drowsiness
weakness
tachycardia
rapid shallow breaths
hunger
diaphoresis
cool, clammy skin

173
Q

patient teaching for hypoglycemia

**know

A

teach pts how to self admin insulin
teach pts about proper storage insulin
check inject site daily for signs of infection
dont skip or delay meals
always carry a carb source
keep to schedule of insulin and meals

174
Q

what do all sulfonylureas can cause

A

hypoglycemia

175
Q

these bind to potassium channels on pancreatic beta cells, may improve insulin binding to insulin receptors and increase number of insulin receptors

A

sulfonylureas

176
Q

you must wait 48 hours before or after contrast dye to take this medication

A

biguanide - metformin

177
Q

what to teach pt about metformin

A
  1. causes gi issues
  2. take same time every day
  3. can cause hyperglycemia
  4. cannot have contrast dye - can cause severe kidney damage
178
Q

treatment for COPD - what to do

A

-reduce environmental exposure to irritants
-decrease effects of inflammation on airway lining

179
Q

manifestations of COPD

A
  1. obstructive condition
  2. air is trapped in lower respiratory tract
  3. alveoli degenerate and fuse together
  4. exchange of gases is greatly impaired (can have higher CO2 levels in blood)
180
Q

these are used to facilitate respiration by dilating airways

A

bronchodilators/antiasthmatics

181
Q

these are rarely prescribed anymore due to several serious side effects (neurologic)

A

xanthines

182
Q

what type of medication is xanthine

A

brochodilator/antiasthmatics

183
Q

this medication stays in blood. can cause toxicity if levels get too high

A

theophylline

184
Q

direct effect on the smooth muscles of respiratory tract, both in bronchi and in blood vessels

A

xanthines

185
Q

adverse reactions for xanthines

A

-related to theophylline levels in blood
-gi upset, nausea, irritability, and tachycardia

186
Q

this mimics effects of sympathetic nervous system: dilation of bronchi with increased rate and depth of respiration

A

sympathomimetics

187
Q

these are bronchodilators

A

sympathomimetics

188
Q

this is used as an emergency drug for rescue

A

albuterol

189
Q

what sympathomimetic only lasts for 20 mins.

A

epinephrine (epi pen)

190
Q

what do you always do when using bronchodilators

A

check HR before and after admin

191
Q

two drugs that are bronchodilators

A

albuterol and epinephrine (epiPen)

192
Q

nursing considerations for sympathomimetics

A
  1. cigarette use
  2. patient teaching how to use inhaler correctly and what drug is maintenance and which is rescue
193
Q

which drug is for maintenance

A

anticholinergics

194
Q

which drug is for rescue

A

albuterol

195
Q

what position do you put pt in when using inhaler or albuterol

A

high fowlers or semi fowlers

196
Q

pts who cannot tolerate sympathetic effects of sympathomimetic might respond to which type of drugs

A

anticholinergics

197
Q

two anticholinergics used to lower respiratory tract

A
  1. ipratropium
  2. tiotropium *** know
198
Q

are anticholinergics rescue or maintenance drugs

A

maintenance

199
Q

adverse effects of anticholinergics

A

blurred vision
dry mouth
urinary retention
constipation
dizziness
palpitations

200
Q

nursing considerations for anticholinergics

A

assess:
1. acute bronchospasm, bladder neck obstruction or prostatic hypertrophy, orientation, effect and reflexes
2. pulse and b/p, respirations, adventitious sounds and urinary output

201
Q

are leukotriene receptor antagonists rescue or maintenance drugs

A

maintenance

202
Q

these act more specifically at the site of problem associated with asthma

A

leukotriene receptor antagonists

203
Q

drug to drug interactions for leukotriene receptor antagonists

A

propranolol and warfarin

** know

204
Q

nursing considerations for leukotriene receptor antagonists

A

assess:
acute bronchospasm or asthmatic attack
impaired renal hepatic function

205
Q

works at the cellular level to inhibit the release of histamine

A

mast cell stabilizers

206
Q

treatment of chronic bronchial asthma

A

indications of mast cell stabilizers

207
Q

used for several inflammatory conditions

A

corticosteroids

208
Q

common examples of corticosteroids

A

prednisone
betamethasone
dexamethasone
hydrocortisone

209
Q

do you stop taking corticosteroids abruptly

A

no.

210
Q

contraindications for corticosteroids

A

things to consider:
risk of infection - due to anti inflammatory and immunosupressive effects
risk of hyperglcemia - due to glucose elevating effects of steroids
peptic ulcer - due to ulcer association with use of steroids

211
Q

this is a cough supressant

A

antitussives

212
Q

decrease blo0d flow to upper respiratory tract and decrease over productive of secretions

A

decongestants

213
Q

increases secretions and narrows airways

A

antihistamines

214
Q

increase productive cough to clear airways

A

expectorants

215
Q

thins mucus to clear airway

A

mucolytics

216
Q

what is something you do when you give drugs that act on upper respiratory tract

A

check heart rate

217
Q

what medications are antitussives

A

benzonatate (tessalon)
codeine
dextromethorphan

218
Q

decongestant medications

A

oxymetazoline - put up nose. too much causes overproduction
phenylephrine
fluticasone - inhaler

219
Q

antihistamine medication

A

diphenhydramine - in Tylenol PM
hydroxyzine - combines with narcotic
promethazine - used for nausea

220
Q

actions of antitussives

A

act directly on medullary cough center of the brain to depress the cough relfex

221
Q

increase or liquefy respiratory secretions to aid clearing of airways

A

mucolytics

222
Q

-this medication smells like rotten eggs
-goes in inhaler

A

acetylcysteine

223
Q

with this medication - if pt has tylenol allergy, give orally

A

acetylcysteine

224
Q

what medication is a expectorant

A

guaifenesin

225
Q

contraindications of antitussives

A

-pts who need to cough to maintain airway
-head injury or impaired CNS - dont always have ability to cough

226
Q

adverse affects of antitussives

A

drying effect on mucous membranes

227
Q

nursing considerations for antitussives

A

assess:
temperature, respirations, adventitious sounds

228
Q

this decrease the overproduction of secretions by causing local vasoconstriction to the upper respiratory tract

A

topical nasal decongestants

229
Q

topical nasal decongestants medication

A

oxymetazoline

230
Q

how long do you wait before and after to drink/eat when taking antitussives

A

15-20 mins

231
Q

adverse affects of topical nasal decongestants

A

local stinging and burning
rebound congestion
sympathomimetic effects

232
Q

are topical nasal decongestants short for term or long term use

A

short term use

233
Q

waht are the nursing considerations for topical nasal decongestant

A

assess
-glaucoma, diabetes, hypertension
-respirations and adventitious lung sounds

234
Q

these decrease nasal congestion r elated to common cold, sinusitis and allergic rhinitis

A

oral decongestants

235
Q

oral decongestant medication

A

pseudoephedrine

236
Q

this elevates BP - watch for hypertension

A

oral decongestants

237
Q

contraindications of oral decongestants

A

any condition that might be exacerbated by sympathetic activity

238
Q

adverse effects of oral decongestants

A

rebound congestion

239
Q

nursing considerations for oral decongestants

A

assess:
-hypertension
-hyperthyroidism, diabetes mellitus, prostate enlargement
-orientation, reflexes and affect
-extrapyramidal effects

240
Q

cautions for antihistamines

A

renal or hepatic impairment

241
Q

nursing considerations for antihistamines

A

skin: color, texture change

242
Q

increase productive cough to clear the airways. they liquify lower respiratory tract secretions, reducing the viscosity of these secretions and making it easier for the pt to cough up

A

expectorants

243
Q

expectorant medication

A

guaifenesin

244
Q

adverse effects of expectorants

A

gi symptoms
headache
dizziness
prolonged use may result in masking a serious underlying disorder

245
Q

increase or liquefy respiratory secretions to aid the clearing of the airways in high risk respiratory pts who are coughing up thick, tenacious secretions

A

mucolytics

246
Q

adverse reaction of topical nasal steroids

A
  1. hyperglycemic
  2. delays wound healing
  3. risk for infection
  4. brittle bones
247
Q

mucolytics medication

A

acetylcysteine

248
Q

these work to break down mucous in order to aid the high risk respiratory pt in coughing up thick, tenacious secretions

A

mucolytics

249
Q

what are the indications of mucolytics

A

-pts who have difficulty coughing up secretions
-pts who develop atelectasis
-pts undergoing diagnostic bronchoscopy
-postoperative pts
-pts with tracheostomies

250
Q

pharmacokinetics of mucolytics

A

nebulization or direct instillation into trachea

251
Q

what is important to know about rifampin **

A

it turns you orange, is rough on liver, rough on kidneys.

important to drink lots of water

252
Q

waht is concern if on tetracycline

A

teeth staining

253
Q

which antibiotic causes otoxicity

A

gentamicin

254
Q

when taking these meds you want to stay out of the sun

A

tetracycline and doxycycline

255
Q

what drug causes gastric erosion. you need to drink full glass of water when you take this medication

A

alendronate

256
Q

do antibiotics treat viral infections

A

no

257
Q

do you stop taking antibioitics if you start feeling better

A

no

258
Q

when would you use glucagon

A

for hypoglycemia - can take IM, IV, subc

259
Q

what does epinephrine do

A

elevate HR and is a bronchodilator

260
Q

what is the first line treatment medciation

A

albuterol

261
Q

are steroids the first or second line of treatment

A

second line

262
Q

waht are the side effects of antibiotics

A

Common side effects of antibiotics can include rash, dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, or yeast infections. More serious side effects include Clostridioides difficile infection (also called C. difficile or C. diff),

263
Q

know metformin, codeine

A
264
Q

what type of drug is tropeium

A

anticholinergic

265
Q

**know lispro

A

Nursing 111 & Pharmacology (12 decks)

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