Pharm Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Potency of a drug is defined as ________ and is helpful in choosing the right drug for the right patient

A

dose of a drug that is required to produce 50% of that drugs maximal effect

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2
Q

Medication A is dosed at 25mg when given IV but requires 100mg when given orally. The concept that underlies the difference in dosing is called

A

bioavailability

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3
Q

The overall ability of a drug to produce its desired effect. This is known as ____ and can be related to a number of factors including receptor availability, bioavailability, and other factors.

A

Efficacy

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4
Q

Aspirin can irreversibly bind to certain structures on the platelet that are involved in platelet aggregation. Although its not truly irreversible, it produces a very strong chemical bind through the sharing of electrons. This is known as _____ binding.

A

Covalent

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5
Q

Drugs that have an asymmetric carbon are not superimposable and are called _______ drugs. The importance of this concept is that these different shaped drugs can have different effects on the same receptor.

A

Chiral

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6
Q

You are the NP in a busy ICU. A patient has come into the ICU after overdosing on Drug-X. Drug-X has a volume of distribution of 0.6. Volume of distribution is calculated by:

A

the amount of drug in the body (delivered dose), divided by the plasma concentration

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7
Q

A drug that binds to the active site of a receptor and causes an irreversible antagonism through covalent bonding of the receptor is called _____ antagonism

A

non-competitive

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8
Q

a receptor type where a drug binds to an ion channel and causes that channel to open or close, for example acetylcholine which opens sodium channels, are considered_____

A

ligand gated ion channels

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9
Q

one of the most important organ involved in clearance of a drug is the _____ and chronic insufficiency can lead to decreased drug clearance

A

kidneys

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10
Q

cytochrome P450 are important enzymes involved in drug metabolism. The first step, or phase 1 of drug metabolism typically involves_____ which most often ______ water solubility to enhance elimination

A

modifying the structure via oxidation, increases

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11
Q

Fosphenytoin is a more water-soluble pro-drug of phenytoin. Prodrug means that:

A

the drug is the precursor to the parent compound and is metabolized to the parent compound after administration

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12
Q

The mechanism of action of phenytoin is:

A

sodium channel blockade which will reduce eliptogenic firing

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13
Q

drugs are eliminated at different rates depending on several factors. The concept of zero order kinetics can be defined as:

A

a constant amount of a drug is eliminated per unit time but the rate is independent of the concentration of the drug

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14
Q

Valproic acid is a commonly used anticonvulsant. Its mechanism of action is multifactorial and includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A

blockade of glutamate receptors

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15
Q

Many drugs will interact with the Cytochrome P450 system. If a drug has a high affinity for a certain CYP450 (i.e. CYP3A4) and that cytochrome will selectively choose to metabolize that drug over others, the result can be

A

accumulation of the drug that has less affinity

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16
Q

Benzodiazepines bind to _______ and effectively increases the frequency of chloride channel opening.

A

GABA

17
Q

Phenobarbital is a sedative hypnotic that binds to GABA receptors but at high doses, can also block the excitatory receptor _____.

A

Glutamate

18
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants can cause cardiac toxicity primarily through blockade of ____ channels, which results in a widened QRS, prolonged QT and risk for ventricular arrhythmia

A

sodium

19
Q

One important lab test to follow when administering propofol is ______, as elevations can be a predictor of propofol administration syndrome

A

triglycerides

20
Q

Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index. This means that:

A

the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is small

21
Q

acetaminophen has several mechanisms of action EXCEPT

A

blocking peripheral COX-1 and COX-2

22
Q

acetaminophen toxicity occurs as a result of the metabolic process of

A

CYP450 metabolism

23
Q

Ibuprofen is an NSAID that exerts most of its activity on ______

A

COX-1

24
Q

Ibuprofen use can lead to gastric ulcers, particularly when used in high doses or for long periods of time. This occurs because of inhibition of _____, which are important in the production of gastric mucous.

A

prostacyclins

25
Q

Renal injury can occur from the use of NSAIDs and the primary mechanism is thought to be ______

A

renal vasoconstriction

26
Q

Of the commonly administered non-aspirin NSAIDs, _______ is thought to be the least safe for patients with increased cardiovascular risk

A

Celecoxib

27
Q

Opioids primarily effects occur as a result of interaction with the _____ receptor

A

Mu

28
Q

The ____ of a drug determines whether a drug is ionized or unionized. Most local anesthetics are _____ and are ionized when injected into the target tissue under physiologic conditions

A

pKa, weak bases

29
Q

Ester local anesthetics are less stable then amide local anesthetics. This is because they are metabolized by _____ while amide anesthetics are typically metabolized by _____

A

plasma exterases, the liver

30
Q

Buprenorphine and naloxone combination, also called suboxone is a commonly used opioid replacement drug for the treatment of opioid use disorder. It works as a ____

A

partial agonist-antagonist

31
Q

Barbiturates are dosed according to ideal body weight. What is the correct formula for ideal body weight in men?

A

50 + (0.91 x [height in centimeters -152.4])

32
Q

Barbiturates are dosed according to ideal body weight. What is the correct formula for ideal body weight in women?

A

45.5 + (0.91 x [height in centimeters -152.4])

33
Q

Barbiturates work on the GABA receptor by doing what?

A

increasing the duration of the chloride channel opening