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Pharmacology > Pharm Quiz 3 > Flashcards

Pharm Quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How are drugs most selectively toxic?

A

Disrupting cell wall synthesis.
Disrupting bacterial protein synthesis.
Disrupting bacterial enzymes.

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2
Q

Narrow-Spectrum ATBs

A

Penicillins
Aminoglycosides
TB drugs
1+2 Cephalosporins

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3
Q

Broad-Spectrum ATBs

A

Fluoroquinolones
Amoxicillin
Sulfonamides
Tetracyclines
3 Cephalosporin

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4
Q

What do HIV meds end in?

A

AVIR

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5
Q

What do Flu meds end in?

A

IVIR

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6
Q

What drugs are anti-fungal?

A

Amphotericin, “FUNGOLE”, “AZOLE”

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7
Q

Antimetabolites

A

Disrupt specific biochemical reactions

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8
Q

Microbial MOA of Resistance

A

Decrease drug concentration
Alter receptors
Produce drug-metabolizing enzymes
Antagonize production

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9
Q

NDMI-1

A

Inactivates all ATBs with a B-lactam ring. Easily transferred on a plasmid.

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10
Q

Spontaneous Mutations

A

Only transmits resistance to one organism

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11
Q

Conjugation

A

R-Factor (includes resistance and sexual code) goes to a different organism (can even occur between normal flora and bad)

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12
Q

How do ATBs affect normal flora?

A

They promote resistant normal flora that can conjugate to bad bacteria.

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13
Q

Superinfection

A

A 2nd infection develops from ATBs d/t suppression of normal flora.

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14
Q

ATB for Bronchitis

A

Trimethoprim

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15
Q

ATB for Lyme Disease

A

Doxycycline and Amoxicillin

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16
Q

What is a necessary drug level for ATBs?

A

4-8x the MIC

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17
Q

When is mixed-therapy appropriate?

A

Severe infections when broad, broad therapy is effective.

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18
Q

Where are mixed infections normal?

A

Brain abscesses, pelvic infections, abdominal perforations

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19
Q

When is ATB prophylaxis indicated?

A

UTI, STI, Flu, Rheumatic Fever

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20
Q

What type of ATBs are Penicillins

A

Beta-Lactam which cause cell walls to breakdown, which means they are bactericidal.

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21
Q

Why are Penicillins useful?

A

They are effective against many bacteria and their direct drug toxicity is low.

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22
Q

Transpeptidases

A

Enzymes that give cell walls strength

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23
Q

Autolysins

A

Promote cell wall growth

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24
Q

How do Penicillins breakdown cell walls?

A

They target transpeptidases and autolysins, so they only effect cells that are reproducing.

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25
Q

What is challenging about gram-negative bacteria?

A

They have a third outer membrane that only some ATBs can breakthough.

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26
Q

B-Lactamases (Penicillinases)

A

Breakdown ATBs (Penicillins)

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27
Q

What bacteria has a lot of penicillinases?

A

80% of S. Aureus is resistant to Penicillins.

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28
Q

What ATBs is MRSA resistant to?

A

All penicillins and cephalosporins

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29
Q

What is the common drug of choice for MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

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30
Q

Where does CA-MRSA usually cause problems?

A

Skin

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31
Q

Ampicillin

A

Broad spectrum used against E. Coli, E. faecium, and listeria. Nonallergic rash is common.

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32
Q

Is Amoxicillin or Ampicillin better PO?

A

Amoxicillin

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33
Q

ATBs with B-lactamase Inhibitors

A

Augmentin, Unasyn, Zosyn

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34
Q

Piperacillin

A

Extended-Spectrum for P. aeruginosa

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35
Q

What is Penicillin G effective against?

A

Gram-positive, some Gram-negative, anaerobic, spirochetes

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36
Q

ADME of Penicillin

A

A: Na and K are absorbed rapidly.
Procaine and Benzathine are slowly absorbed.
D: Especially good when inflammation in eyes, joints, and CSF.
M&E: Low metabolism and largely excreted by kidneys

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37
Q

Allergy to Penicillins

A

Most common drug allergy and should not be give Cephalosporins if anaphylactic.

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38
Q

Hapten

A

Broken down Penicillins bound to a larger protein that antibodies usually target.

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39
Q

Desensitization Schedule

A

Small but increasing doses of Penicillin are administered every 60 minutes if there there is no other tx option for endocarditis.

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40
Q

Ceftaroline

A

The one B-Lactam ATB that MRSA responds to d/t to a high affinity to PBP

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41
Q

AD Cephalosporins

A

A: Mostly IV
D: Good except for eyes

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42
Q

What happens if you take Cefazoline or Cefotetan with ETOH?

A

Severe disulfiram reaction

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43
Q

What side effect does Cefazoline, Cefotetan, and Ceftriaxone cause?

A

Severe bleeding d/t interference with Vit K

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44
Q

What generation Cephalosporins are preferred for many infections?

A

3

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45
Q

What are 4+5 Cephalosporins effective against?

A

Resistant organisms

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46
Q

What are 6 Cephalosporins effective against?

A

MRSA and HA-PNA

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47
Q

What ATBs are good for patients with renal impairment?

A

Ceftriaxone (Cephalosporin)

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48
Q

Carbapenems

A

Very broad-spectrum and IV only

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49
Q

Imipenem

A

Used for multi-organism infections

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50
Q

Why is Imipenem quite effective?

A

It is resistant to many B-lactamases and works against gram-negative and anaerobic bacteria.

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51
Q

What drug does Imipenem interfere with?

A

Valproate

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52
Q

How is CDI acquired?

A

Preceded by ATB use and spores are extremely hard to kill.

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53
Q

S&S of CDI

A

2-3 unformed stools and a positive CDI test

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54
Q

How is CDI treated?

A

Discontinuing original ATBs (which may alone cure it) and implementing Vancomycin

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55
Q

Alternatives to Vanc for CDI:

A

Rifaximin (reduces recurrence), antibodies, inoculating the bowel with a benign strain of CDI

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56
Q

Single use drug for UTIs?

A

3g Fosfomycin

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57
Q

For what infections are Tetracyclines first line?

A

Rocky-Mountain, Lymes,
Cholera,
Acne Vulgaris
Typhus

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58
Q

How is H pylori treated?

A

Tetracyclines, Metronidazole, PPIs

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59
Q

What should be avoided when taking Tetracyclines?

A

Metal ions

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60
Q

Tetracycline side effects:

A

GI irritation, hepatic sensitivity, CDI, hypersensitivity reaction, yellowing teeth, skin sensitivity

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61
Q

What is an alternative to Penicillin G?

A

Erythromycin and Clindamycin

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62
Q

Erythromycin Base

A

Inactivated by stomach acid but only active form of Erythromycin

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63
Q

How is Erythromycin eliminated?

A

Liver

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64
Q

What is Clindamycin indicated for?

A

Infections outside the CSF

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65
Q

What side effect does Clindamycin cause?

A

CDAD

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66
Q

What is Linezolid used for?

A

VRE, MRSA, P. aeruginosa, S. pneumoniae

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67
Q

Tedizolid Indications:

A

MRSA and Staphylococcus and Streptococcus skin infections

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68
Q

Aminoglycoside Chemistry:

A

They are positively charged, so they do not readily cross membranes and can only be given IV.

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69
Q

What infections do Aminoglycosides target?

A

P. aeruginosa and E. Coli

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70
Q

Distribution Aminoglycosides

A

Easily bind to kidneys and easily penetrate ears, so cause toxicity.

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71
Q

Concentration Dependent

A

The higher the dose, the quicker the cell kill

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72
Q

Postantibiotic Effect

A

Cell kill continues after ATB below MIC

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73
Q

What should practitioners be aware of when prescribing aminoglycosides?

A

There is a larger personal variability, so doses must be prescribed for the patient.

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74
Q

Amikacin

A

Aminoglycoside most resistant to microbe enzymes.

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75
Q

Sulfa Microbial Spectrum

A

Broad against gram-positive bacteria

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76
Q

Sulfa Distribution

A

Other fluids better than blood

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77
Q

Sulfa AE:

A

Photosensitivity, Kernicterus, Steven-Johnson, Red cell lysis

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78
Q

What is Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim (sulfa) used for?

A

UTI, Malaria, Toxoplasmosis

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79
Q

Drug interactions with sulfas:

A

Diuretics, hypoglycemic agents, Warfarin

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80
Q

How many UT pathogens are subject to Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole + Trimethroprim?

A

80%

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81
Q

TMP/SMZ dose:

A

80mg/140mg

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82
Q

Causes of complicated UTIs:

A

Strictures, Calculi, Tumors

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83
Q

Reinfection UTI:

A

Colonization from a new bacteria

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84
Q

How to treat reinfections >3x/year:

A

Prophylactic ATB at low doses

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85
Q

How to treat relapse?

A

Correct structural issue or continue long-term ATBs (6 months)

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86
Q

Treatment for bacterial prostatitis:

A

Fluoroquinolones IV and then oral

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87
Q

Urinary Tract Antiseptics:

A

Nitrofurantion and Methanamine

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88
Q

Acute Cystitis Tx:

A

Bactrim, Nitro, Cipro (allergy to B-Lactam ring), Levo

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89
Q

Complicated UTI and acute pyelonephritis:

A

Bactrim, Cipro, Levo, Augmentin

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90
Q

Prophylaxis UTI:

A

Bactrim, Nitrofurantoin

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91
Q

Tx of choice for infants with UTI:

A

Gentamycin and Ampicillin

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92
Q

What are fluoroquinolones used for?

A

Broad spectrum ATBs that can be taken orally rather than parenterally.

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93
Q

What is a side effect of fluoroquinolones?

A

Tendinitis and photo sensitivity

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94
Q

What type of drug is Ciprofloxacin?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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95
Q

What is Ciprofloxacin used for?

A

Respiratory, GI, Skin, Joints, and soft tissues

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96
Q

What should Ciprofloxacin used for in children?

A

Complicated UTI infections or Anthrax

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97
Q

Black Box Warnings Ciprofloxacin:

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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98
Q

What food decreases Cipro absorption?

A

Calcium

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99
Q

What drugs can Cipro elevate?

A

Warfarin, Theophylline, Tinidazole

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100
Q

What is Flagyl (Metronidazole) used for?

A

Abdominal surgeries, C. diff, H pylori

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101
Q

What is Daptomycin used for?

A

Endocarditis and skin infections caused by S. aureus

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102
Q

How is Daptomycin administered?

A

IV

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103
Q

What is a side effect of Daptomycin?

A

Muscle damage

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104
Q

Why are we affected by Amphotericin B?

A

While it binds stronger to Ergosterol, it also binds to Cholesterol.

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105
Q

Amphotericin B Metabolism and Excretion

A

Unknown. Levels have been detected a year after administration.

106
Q

AZOLE ADME

A

A: Cola increases absorption
M: Can be given orally, but it decreases P450 –> increases in other meds.
E: 40% is excreted by the liver (should not be given to liver patients).

107
Q

AZOLE Black Box Warning

A

Should not be given to liver patients.

108
Q

What does Caspofungin target?

A

Aspergillus and Candidiasis

109
Q

What does Flucytosine target?

A

Candidiasis and Cryptococcosis

110
Q

What should Flucytosine be given with?

A

Amphotericin B to increases effectiveness and decrease resistance

111
Q

Where is Flucytosine well absorbed?

A

Better to CSF than blood

112
Q

Black Box Warning Flucytosine:

A

Renal Impairment

113
Q

How should tinea corporis be treated?

A

Topical AZOLE or Allylamine

114
Q

Tinea Cruris

A

Infection of the groin

115
Q

How is tinea capitis treated?

A

Oral Griseofulvin or Terbafinine

116
Q

What are some common drugs for vulvovaginal, oral, and skin candidiasis?

A

Mycostatin (Nystatin),Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Butoconazole, and Econazole

117
Q

Oral therapy for onychomycosis?

A

Terbinafine and Griseofulvin that absorb in to Keratin. Only 50% effective.

118
Q

Ciclopirox:

A

Nail polish for onychomycosis that is only moderately effective.

119
Q

Topical application for onychomycosis caused by dermatophytes:

A

Efinaconazole, Tavaborole, Tolnaftate, Undecylenic Acid

120
Q

What is Nystatin only effective against?

A

Candidiasis

121
Q

What medication is used for the Tineases?

A

Butefanine

122
Q

What is the first choice drug for HSV and VZV?

A

Acyclovir

123
Q

Resistant HSV and VZV:

A

Occurs in immunocompromised patients causing severe lesions. Responds to Foscarnet or Cidofovir.

124
Q

When should Acyclovir be started for Chicken Pox?

A

Within 24 hours

125
Q

Valacyclovir

A

Prodrug of Acyclovir that is more bioavailable.
Genital Herpes

126
Q

Famicyclovir

A

Reduces the length of Herpes zoster

127
Q

Penciclovir and Docosanol cream

A

Apply every 2 hours to slightly decrease the duration of HSV-2

128
Q

Trifluridine and Ganciclovir Topical

A

Ocular infections caused by HSV

129
Q

Ganciclovir Systemic

A

CMV

130
Q

Black Box Warning Ganciclovir and Valganciclovir:

A

Thrombocytopenia and Granulcytopenia

131
Q

Cidofovir

A

CMV for patients with AIDS

132
Q

Foscarnet Systemic

A

CMV for patients with AIDS and Acyclovir resistant HSV

133
Q

Foscarnet and Cidofovir Black Box Warning

A

Renal Impairment

134
Q

Most common types of Hepatitis:

A

B and C

135
Q

Drugs for Hepatitis C

A

Daclatasvir, Sofosbusvir, Simeprevir

136
Q

6 Drugs for Hepatitis B

A

Interferon Alfa 2-B
Peginterferon
Lamivudine
Adefovir
Entecavir
Tenofivir

137
Q

Considerations for Hepatitis B Drugs:

A

Relapse is likely so long-term use is necessary. This can cause toxicity, so only for patients with highest risk.

138
Q

What is the ending of Sulfonamides?

A

Most are a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim.

139
Q

What is the ending of Tetracyclines?

A

Cycline

140
Q

What type of drug is Ceftaroline

A

Cephalosporin

141
Q

What type of ATB is Bactrim?

A

Sulfa

142
Q

What is the ending of Aminoglycosides?

A

Mycin

143
Q

What is the more common Influenza strain?

A

A

144
Q

Who needs repeat of an Influenza strain?

A

Children 2-8 who have not been vaccinated before.

145
Q

What are the three types of Influenza vaccines?

A

Inactivated Influenza Vaccine, Recombinant Hemagglutinin Vaccine, and Live, Attenuated Vaccine.

146
Q

Who cannot receive the Flu vaccine?

A

Febrile persons

147
Q

Who can receive the Flu vaccine?

A

Pts with a cold without a fever, people with an egg allergy, and pts 6 months or older.

148
Q

When should pts receive Oseltamivir and Zanamivir?

A

Preferably before 12 hours and ideally before 48 hours

149
Q

Who can receive Oseltamivir?

A

Patients older than 1 year and pregnant patients

150
Q

Who can receive Zanamivir?

A

Patients older than 7

151
Q

Who should not receive Zanamivir?

A

Patients with an underlying airway disease

152
Q

What is Baloxivir Marboxil active against?

A

Influenza A and B

153
Q

Who can have Baloxivir Marbixil?

A

Patients 12 and older

154
Q

Palivizumab

A

Monoclonal antibody for preventing RSV in infants and at-risk patients.

155
Q

What is the definition of AIDS?

A

A T-cell count less than 200 or and AIDS defining illness.

156
Q

What are AIDS viruses?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia, CMV retinitis, disseminated histoplasmosis, TB, and Kaposi sarcoma

157
Q

Retrovirus

A

Viruses must transcribe from RNA to DNA

158
Q

What do CD4 lymphocytes do?

A

They help create B lymphocytes antibodies and cytolytic T lymphocytes.

159
Q

Where is the HIV virus stored during a chronic infection?

A

Macrophages and Microglial cells in the CNS because they are resistant to destruction but still can be attacked.

160
Q

How long do HIV patients remain asymptomatic?

A

10 years

161
Q

What is the steady state rate of HIV?

A

1,000-100,000 but their half-life is only 6 hours, so billions are created every day.

162
Q

How do patients become resistant to HIV meds?

A

The transcription process is prone to errors, so the more virions a person has the more chance for resistance.

163
Q

What is a common complication of HIV?

A

Peripheral neuropathies early
CNS complications late
Due to actual HIV or opportunistic infections

164
Q

What is the first line antiretroviral treatment for AIDS?

A

2 NRTIS and another drug

165
Q

NRTI (Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors)

A

Abacavir
Emtricitabine
Didanosine
Lamivudine
Stavudine
Tenofovir
Zidovudine

166
Q

What NRTI should be administered without food?

A

Didanosine bc food decreases serum levels

167
Q

Adverse Effects of ART

A

Lactic Acidosis
Steatosis
Redistribution of adipose tissue
Peripheral neuropathy
CNS
Hepatomegaly with Steatosis
Teratogenicity
Diabetes
Cardiac Conduction Changes

168
Q

Immune Reconstitution Syndrome

A

A paradoxical inflammation from existing infections after ART

169
Q

What is the preferred combination therapy for ART?

A

Abacavir
Lamivudine
Efavirenz

170
Q

HLA-B*5107

A

Hypersensitivity gene ppl need to be tested for before taking Abacavir

171
Q

What NTRI cannot be taken with food?

A

Food taken with Didanosine decreases serum levels

172
Q

NNRTI (Nonucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors)

A

Efavirenz

173
Q

What are NNRTIs effective against?

A

Only HIV-1

174
Q

What food increases serum levels of NNRTIs

A

Fats

175
Q

What body system does Efavirenz attack HIV in?

A

CNS because it cross the BBB also causes more adverse effects there.

176
Q

How do ART medications change other meds?

A

P450 substrates, inhibitors, and inducers
CYP2C9 that metabolizes meds

177
Q

What should patients do toinimize CNS effects of ART therapy?

A

Take at night.
Symptoms usually reside after 2-4 weeks.

178
Q

PI (Protease Inhibitors that inhibit HIV maturation)

A

Atazanavir
Darunavir
Foasamprenivir
Indinavir
Lopinavir
Nelfinavir
Ritonavir
Saquinavir
Tipranavir

179
Q

What are the most effective antiretrovirals?

A

Protease inhibitors but must be taken with something else.

180
Q

INSTIs (Integrase Strand Transferse Inhibitors). Stop integration of HIV DNA.

A

GAVIR

181
Q

Enfuvirtide T-20

A

Inhibits the fusion of HIV.
Very effective.
Treatment requires SQ injections.
Expensive.

182
Q

Why is Enfuvirtide effective?

A

It does not share cross resistance with NRTIs, NNRTIs, INSTIs, or PIs. Therefore, it is reserved for patients who are resistant to those medications.

183
Q

Maraviroc

A

CCR5 Inhibitors blocks the entry of HIV into cells.
Reserved for resistant HIV.

184
Q

What should patients do if they miss a dose of ART?

A

Take the missed dose immediately unless the next dose is less than 6 hours away.

185
Q

What lab testing do HIV patients need?

A

HIV
CD4
AST/ALT
Kidney
Resistance
Hepatitis B and C
Liver
CBC
BMP
Lipid Profile
Glucose
Urinalysis

186
Q

What patients need PrEP?

A

Do not use condoms.
Have other STIs.
Engage in sex for things.
Use recreational drugs.
Are imprisoned.

187
Q

What are the FDA approved drugs for PrEP and PEP?

A

Tenofovir 300mg
Emtricitabine 200mg

188
Q

How many days should a prescription for PrEP be?

A

90 days

189
Q

When should Postexposure Prophylaxis be initiated?

A

Preferably within 2 hours and no later than 72 hours.
It should last for 28 days.

190
Q

When should patients possibly exposed to HIV be tested?

A

At the time of exposure
6 weeks
12 weeks
6 months

191
Q

What is the goal of HIV therapy?

A

HIV viral load to 10% of baseline in 8-10 weeks.
16-20 weeks should be undetectable.

192
Q

What is the treatment for Chlamydia in healthy adolescents and adults?

A

Azithromycin 1g once
Or
Doxycycline 100mg 7 days

193
Q

What is the treatment for Chlamydia in at-risk patients?

A

Erythromycin 12.5mg/kg 4x/day for 14 days

194
Q

What is the treatment for Gonorrhea for healthy people >45kg?

A

Ceftriaxone 250 mg once
And (due to resistance)
Azithromycin 1g once

195
Q

What is the treatment for Gonorrhea for patients <45kg?

A

Ceftriaxone 25-50mg/kg 1x/day for 7 days

196
Q

What is the treatment for Syphillis in adults and children?

A

Benzathine Penicillin 2.4 million units once
Benzathine Penicillin 50,000 units/kg once

197
Q

What is the treatment for neurosyphillis or congenital syphillis?

A

Aqueous crystalline Penicillin G 50,000 units/kg continuous infusion 7-14 days

198
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole 500 mg PO x 7 days
Metronidazole gel x 5 days
Clindamycin cream x 7 days

199
Q

What is the treatment for Trichomoniasis?

A

Metronidazole or Tinidazole 1g PO x 7 days

200
Q

What is the treatment for Chancroid?

A

Azithromycin 1g PO

201
Q

What is the treatment for Genital Herpes?

A

Acyclovir 200-800mg 2-5x/day for 3-10 days.

202
Q

What is the treatment for a severe infection of Genital Herpes?

A

Acyclovir 5-10mg/kg IV until clinical improvement and then oral

203
Q

What is the dose for Acyclovir treating Genital Herpes in infants?

A

20mg/kg for 7-14 days

204
Q

What is the treatment for Nongonococcal Urethritis?

A

Azithromycin 1g
Doxycycline
Maxifloxacin
Gentamycin

205
Q

What is the treatment for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease?

A

Doxycycline 100mg plus Cefoxitin or Gentamycin or Clindamycin

206
Q

What is the most common STD?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

207
Q

What can Chlamydia Trachomatis cause?

A

Sterility, Ectopic Pregnancy, and PID

208
Q

Lymphogranuloma Venerum

A

Infection from Trichomatis that results in enlarged genitals. Typically found in the tropics.

209
Q

What is the treatment for lymphogranuloma venerum?

A

Doxycycline

210
Q

Disseminated Gonococcal Infection

A

Usually skin and muscle problems. Occasionally causes endocarditis or meningitis. Treated with Ceftriaxone IV plus Azithromycin.

211
Q

Why do infants need Erythromycin immediately post-partum?

A

Gonococcal neonatal opthalmia

212
Q

What is nongonococcal urethritis?

A

Any infection not caused by N. gonorrhea

213
Q

What is PID?

A

A syndrome that involves Endometritis, pelvic peritonitis, and tuboovarian abscess.

214
Q

Stages of Syphillis

A
  1. lesion
  2. flu
  3. 5-40 years when it gets serious
215
Q

Treatment for Syphillis with patients allergic to Penicillins?

A

Doxycycline unless child or pregnant then do a desensitization schedule.

216
Q

What is Chanchroid?

A

A painful ulcer on outside genitalia

217
Q

Proctitis

A

Inflammation of the rectum

218
Q

What is the treatment for Proctitis?

A

Ceftriaxone plus Doxycycline

219
Q

What are genital warts caused by?

A

Human papillomaviruses (HPV)

220
Q

What ATB is used for Enterobacter species?

A

Ceftriaxone and Carbapenems

221
Q

What ATB is used for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Carbapenems

222
Q

What are penicillinase resistant ATBs?

A

Carbapenems, Fluoroquinolones, Linezolid, Vancomycin

223
Q

What is a treatment for Streptococcus infections?

A

Penicillin G

224
Q

What ATB is used for clostridium tetani?

A

Metronidazole

225
Q

What is the treatment for Diphtheria?

A

Erythromycin

226
Q

What is the ATB for Klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Cefotaxime

227
Q

What is the treatment for Salmonella?

A

Cefotaxime

228
Q

What is the treatment for Bordstella pertussis?

A

Azithromycin

229
Q

What is the treatment for meningitis and epiglottis?

A

Cefotaxime

230
Q

What can Gentamycin cause if used during pregnancy?

A

Hearing loss

231
Q

What ATBs are safe for infant?

A

Penicillins, 3 Cephalosporins

232
Q

What is a preferred ATB for pregnant woman?

A

Evidence suggests no damage is done in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters from Penicillins, Macrolides, and Cephalosporins.

233
Q

What ATB is safe for use while breastfeeding?

A

Amoxicillin, Cephalosporins

234
Q

Penicillin Doses

A

2-12 grams

235
Q

Cephalosporin Doses

A

30-200 mg/kg

236
Q

Carbapenem Doses

A

30-120 mg/kg

237
Q

Doxycycline Dose

A

2.2-4.4 mg/kg q24 hours

238
Q

Mycin Doses

A

5-50 mg/kg

239
Q

What ATBs inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

A

Macrolides
Aminoglycoside
Linezolid
Tetracyclines

240
Q

What medications cause harm to fetuses?

A

Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
Ganciclovir
Sulfonamides

241
Q

Aminoglycoside Black Box Warning

A

Nephrotoxicity
Neuromuscular Blockade —> respiratory depression

242
Q

Aminoglycoside Dose

A

1-1.7 mg/kg

243
Q

Ciprofloxacin Dose

A

250mg BID x3 days

244
Q

Nitrofurantoin Dose

A

50-100 mg QID

245
Q

Metronidazole Black Box Risk

A

Carcinogenic Risk

246
Q

Antifungal safety

A

Generally considered safe in low doses for all age groups except for Amphotericin B

247
Q

Caspofungin Dose

A

50 mg/day

248
Q

What populations is Acyclovir safe for?

A

Pregnant woman, infants, and the elderly.

249
Q

What can Ganciclovir cause?

A

Sterility and bone marrow suppression

250
Q

Ganciclovir Dose

A

5mg/kg IV q12 hours for 14-21 days.

251
Q

Ritonavir (HCV) Black Box Warning

A

Life-threatening adverse effects when administered with hypnotics

252
Q

Ribaviren (HCV and RSV) Blck Box Warning

A

Hemolytic Anemia and Cardiac Decompensation

253
Q

What is the approved treatment for children and pregnant women for HBV?

A

Lamivudine
Entecavir

254
Q

Oseltamivir Dose

A

75mg BID

255
Q

NRTI Dose

A

300 mg BID

256
Q

Meds with Dose <100

A

Mycins
Erythromycin
Nitrofuratoin
Caspofungin
Oseltamivir
Ganciclovir

257
Q

Meds w Dose >100

A

Metronidazole
Doxycycline
NRI
Ceftriaxone

258
Q

Meds w Dose >1g

A

Azithromycin
Penicillin

259
Q

Meds w Significant Dose Range

A

Cephalosporin
Carbapenems

260
Q

What is the treatment for Pneumonia?

A

Clindycin
Vancomycin
Linezolid

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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