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Pharma exam > Pharm Q2 > Flashcards

Pharm Q2 Flashcards

1
Q 
Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action:
A. Acepromazin
B. Droperidol
C. Diazepam
D. Midazolam
A

B

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2
Q 
It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses:
A. Acepromazine
B. Detomidine
C. Xylazine
D. Diazepam
A

A

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3
Q

In the absence of special label instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used
…days after being opened for the first time:
A. 21
B. Unlimited
C. 28
D. 4

A

C

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4
Q 
What is “GMP”:
A. Good veterinary practice
B. Good clinical practice
C. Good manufacturing Practice
D. Good laboratory Practice
A

C

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5
Q 
Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of
analgesics:
A. Xylazine
B. Acepromazine
C. Medetomidine
D. Buprenorphine
A

B

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6
Q 
Which animal species is most sensitive to Xylazine:
A. Horse
B. Cattle
C. Dog
D. Swine
A

B

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7
Q 
Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes:
A. Numerical abnormalities
B. Structural abnormalities
C. None of them
D. Both
A

D

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8
Q

Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules:
A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
B. Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
C. Kinetics and residual drug examinations
D. Toxicology examinations

A

B

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9
Q 
Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen, when using this
inhalational anaesthetic:
A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Methoxyflurane
A

C

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10
Q 
It can cause penile prolapse in male swine:
A. Diazepam
B. Azeperone
C. Detomidine
D. Xylazine
A

B

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11
Q 
When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; its muscles
are usually rigid and hypertonic:
A. Methohexial
B. Morphine
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
A

C

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12
Q 
What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension:
A. Liquid
B. Solid
C. None
D. Both
A

B

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13
Q

What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and
regulations of GLP:
A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
B. Human clinical drug examination
C. Veterinary clinical drug examinations
D. Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examination

A

D

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14
Q 
The injections have to be always:
A. Sterile
B. Isoionic
C. Clear solution
D. pH neutral
A

A

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15
Q 
What is the extracting agent to prepare exact:
A. Watery
B. Alcoholic
C. Both
D. None of them
A

C

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16
Q 
Which ointment is not washable with water:
A. Cetomacrogol emulsifying ointment
B. Hydrophilic ointment
C. Paraffin ointment
D. Emulsifying wax
A

C

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17
Q 
Which of the alpha2- agonist is not used in horses:
A. Detomidine
B. Xylazine
C. Medetomidine
D. Romifidine
A

C

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18
Q 
Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to
dehydrated animals:
A. Ketamine
B. Diazepam
C. Acepromazine
D. Butorphanol
A

C

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19
Q 
Which drug causes cardiovascular depression?
A. Propofol
B. Both
C. None of them
D. Etomidate
A

A

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20
Q

Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination?
A. Blood, urine, stool(feces), milk, eggs
B. Blood
C. Edible tissues
D. Urine

A

A

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21
Q 
Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose:
A. Barbiturates
B. Tranquilizers
C. Alpha2-RC-agonists
D. Benzodiazepines
A

B

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22
Q 
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for
administration to patient with epilepsy:
A. Acepromazine
B. Phenobarbital
C. Diazepam
D. Xylazine
A

A

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23
Q 
Which drug group has analgesic effect:
A. Both
B. None of them
C. Alpha-2 agonists
D. Benzodiazepines
A

C

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24
Q 
This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day:
A. Thiamylal
B. Methohexital
C. Pentobarbital
D. Thiopental
A

B

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25
Q 
What is the formulation type of Cremor aqueous:
A. Solution type
B. Suspension type
C. Water in oil (W/O) emulsion cream
D. Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
A

D

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26
Q

Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies:
A. Following of the unwanted side effect after authorization
B. Mutagenicity study
C. Local tolerance study
D. Teratogenic investigation

A

A

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27
Q 
Thiopental can be administered:
A. IV/IM/SC
B. IV/IM
C. IM
D. IV
A

D

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28
Q 
The solid matter content of liquid extraction is:
A. 50-70%
B. 50%
C. > 94%
D. > 70%
A

B

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29
Q 
Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents:
A. Azaperone
B. Acepromazine
C. Fluanisone
D. Thiethylperazine
A

C

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30
Q 
Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test:
A. Environment toxicity
B. Dermal toxicity
C. Mutagenicity
D. Teratogenicity
A

C

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31
Q 
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue
irritation:
A. Tiletamine
B. Ketamine
C. Alphaxalone
D. Thiamylal
A

D

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32
Q 
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue
irritation:
A. Metomidate
B. Tiletamine
C. Ketamine
D. Alphaxalone
A

A

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33
Q

The micronucleus test:
A. Is an electron microscope method for determining teratogenicity
B. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
C. Is an electron microscope method for determining mutagenicity
D. Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity

A

B

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34
Q 
Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?
A. Wool wax
B. Hard paraffin
C. Methylcellulose
D. Flax oil
A

B

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35
Q 
Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base:
A. Hydroxyethyl cellulose
B. Macrogol 400
C. Cocoa butter
D. Gelatine
A

C

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36
Q 
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:
A. Butorphanol
B. Xylazine
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Romifidine
A

C

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37
Q 
Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be
applied IM:
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate
C. Metomidate
D. Thiopental
A

A

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38
Q 
Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?
A. White Vaseline
B. Simple ointment
C. Cocoa butter
D. Paraffin ointment
A

A

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39
Q 
Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating
cows?
A. Every 3 hours
B. Only once
C. Every 8-12 hours
D. Every 6 hours
A

C

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40
Q

Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments:
A. Cocoa butter can be used as a vehicle base
B. Dissolves at body temperature
C. Homogenous
D. Does not contain solid particles

A

B

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41
Q 
It increases the release of prolactin hence not suitable for administration to
pseudo-pregnant animal:
A. Xylazine
B. Phenobarbital
C. Diazepam
D. Chlorpromazine
A

D

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42
Q 
Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?
A. Pharmacological study
B. Field trial
C. Environmental toxicity study
D. Food safety study
A

B

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43
Q

Which statement is not true?
A. The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections
B. If the pH of the injection is too low or too high it is given slowly IV
C. Highly tissue irritative injections should be applied IV only
D. Oily solution and suspension, emulsion are generally contraindicated IV

A

A

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44
Q 
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on:
A. 3 animal species
B. 1 animal species
C. 4 animal species
D. 2 animal species
A

D

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45
Q 
What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research:
A. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
B. Determination of mechanism
C. Bioequivalence studies
D. Target-animal tolerance investigation
A

B

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46
Q 
In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can reverse
the process:
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Atipamezole
D. Yohimbine
A

A

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47
Q 
Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action:
A. Xylazine
B. Acepromazine
C. Phenobarbital
D. Diazepam
A

B

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48
Q 
What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini:
A. Emulsion
B. Aqueous suspension
C. Solution
D. Oily suspension
A

B

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49
Q 
This base ointment is applicable of O/W type of ointments:
A. Hydrophilic ointment
B. Vaseline
C. Paraffin ointment
D. Simple ointment
A

A

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50
Q 
Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction:
A. Fentanyl
B. Azaperone
C. Acepromazine
D. Droperidol
A

B

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51
Q 
Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine?
A. Anti-inflammatory properties
B. Serious respiratory depression
C. Muscle relaxant activity
D. Causing general anaesthesia
A

C

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52
Q

In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation … the
data of clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements:
A. Part 1
B. Part 2
C. Part 4
D. Part 3

A

C

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53
Q 
Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose:
A. Tranquilizers
B. Phenothiazine
C. Alpha-2-RC-agonists
D. Butyrophenone
A

C

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54
Q 
This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants:
A. Solution
B. Tincture
C. Suspension
D. Emulsion
A

B

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55
Q 
Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
A. Milk, egg, honey
B. Edible tissue
C. Blood, urine
D. Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
A

D

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56
Q 
Which ointment is washable with water?
A. Hydrous ointment
B. Simple ointment
C. Hydrophilic ointment
D. Paraffin ointment
A

C

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57
Q

What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion:
A. Udder-disinfection, udder wash, milking out, administration of infusing
B. Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
C. Milking, wash, administration, disinfection,
D. Wash, milking, administration, disinfection

A

B

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58
Q 
Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine:
A. Fentanyl
B. Ketamine
C. Diazepam
D. Butorphenol
A

D

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59
Q

Which statement is not true?
A. Fluanisone is useful for neuroleptanalgesia of laboratory animals in combination
with fentanyl
B. Butyrophenone causes hypnosis in high doses
C. Azaperone is useful for sedation of pigs and reducing of stress
D. Butyrophenone have slight analgesic effect

A

B

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60
Q 
What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?
A. None
B. Hydrophilic
C. Lipophilic
D. Both
A

D

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61
Q

Which statement is true:
A. Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect
E. Swine is the most sensitive to Xylazine
B. The effect of benzodiazepines can be suspended with Atipamezole
C. Diazepam has pronounced emetic effect in cat

A

A

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62
Q 
Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression, and
hypotension:
A. Butorphanol
B. Ketamine
C. Atropine
D. Fentanyl
A

D

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63
Q 
Injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited:
A. Thiopental
B. Propofol
C. Ketamine
D. Methohexital
A

A

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64
Q

The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are
divisions of which of the following:
A. Somatic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system division of central nervous system
C. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system division of central nervous system

A

C

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65
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____,
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic
receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic
receptors):
A. ACh; ACh; NE
B. ACh; NE; Ach
C. NE; ACh; NE
D. NE; NE; Ach

A

A

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66
Q 
Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic:
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta-1
D. beta-2
A

B

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67
Q

Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation:
A. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
B. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
C. Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
D. Mass sympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi

A

C

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68
Q 
What amino acids are converted into Catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine):
A. Proline
B. Lysine
C. Tyrosine
D. Valine
A

C

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69
Q

Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine
transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Adrenalin

A

C

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70
Q 
Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Adrenalin
A

B

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71
Q

Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of
an action potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis:
A. Presynaptic sympathetic
B. Presynaptic parasympathetic
C. Postsynaptic sympathetic
D. Postsynaptic parasympathetic

A

C

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72
Q

Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for
drug action:
A. Reuptake via NE transporter (NET): Uptake 1
B. Metabolism of NE of inactive metabolite
C. NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft

A

C

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73
Q

NET is a symporter of what ion:
A. K+
B. Ca2+

C. Cl-
D. Na+

E. Mg2+

A

D

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74
Q 
Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response
termination:
A. NE
B. L-DOPA
C. NET
D. EPI
E. DOPGAL
A

A

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75
Q 
Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than
the others:
A. Serotonin (5-HT)
B. Norepinephrine (NE)
C. Dopamine (DA)
D. Epinephrine
A

C

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76
Q 
Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl
transferase (COMT) primarily found?
A. Liver
B. GI tract
C. Placenta
D. Blood platelets
A

A

77
Q 
Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis:
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

D

78
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle
contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction:
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)

A

A

79
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and
inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin
secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells:
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)

A

C

80
Q 
Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from
pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular
smooth muscle:
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

B

81
Q 
What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase?
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta
D. beta and alpha-1
E. beta and alpha-2
A

E

82
Q 
What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC):
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta
D. beta and alpha-1
E. beta and alpha-2
A

A

83
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
ephedrine, amphetamine and tyramine:
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

A

B

84
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
MAO inhibitors:
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

A

D

85
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine:
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

A

C

86
Q 
Which of the following is NOT true of Catecholamines:
A. Non-polar
B. Cannot cross the blood-brain barrier
C. Cannot be used as an oral drug
D. Have brief duration
E. MAO and COMT act rapidly
A

A

87
Q 
The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the
following types of amines:
A. Methyl amine
B. Ethyl amine
C. Butyl amine
D. Tertiary-butyl amine
E. Propyl amine
A

B

88
Q

Which of the following are a long-acting (oral) alpha1- agonist and not a short-
acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) alpha1- agonist:

A. Phenylephrine
B. Oxymetazoline
C. Tetrahydrazaline
D. Pseudoephedrine

A

D

89
Q

Which of the following would not be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient
with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug):
A. Phenylephrine
B. Epinepherine
C. Oymetazoline
D. Isoproterenol

A

D

90
Q

Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease
blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given
above the web space:
A. Phenylephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Methoxamine

A

B

91
Q

Which of the following is the alpha-1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and
surgery, giving mydriasis (dilation of iris):
A. Ephedrine
B. Epinepherine
C. Oymetazoline
D. Isoproterenol
E. Phenylephrine

A

E

92
Q 
Alpha-2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing
sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is not an alpha2-
agonist:
A. Clonidine
B. Methyldopa
C. Guanabenz
D. Guanfacine
E. Epinephrine
A

E

93
Q 
At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do:
A. Stimulates NE release
B. Inhibits NE release
C. Stimulates ACh release
D. Inhibits ACh release
A

B

94
Q 
Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay
premature labor:
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-2-agonist
D. beta-1-agonist
A

C

95
Q 
Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac
arrest, heart block, or heart failure:
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist
A

C

96
Q 
Which of the following is not a beta2- agonist:
A. Terbutaline
B. Ritodrine
C. Metaproterenol
D. Albuterol
E. Phenylepherine
A

E

97
Q

Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus
a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion:
A. K+
B. Ca2+

C. Cl-
D. Na+

E. Mg2+

A

A

98
Q

Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At
higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated:
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta-1
D. beta-2

A

C

99
Q

Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent
receptors from being couples with G-proteins:
A. Sequestration
B. Down-regulation
C. Phosphorylation

A

C

100
Q 
Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug
cocaine:
A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A

B

101
Q 
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the
following is the action of TCAs:
A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A

B

102
Q 
Which of the following is not a mixed sympathomimetic:
A. Amphetamine
B. Methamphetamine
C. Phenylepherine
D. Pseudoephedrine
A

C

103
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of
the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient:
A. alpha-agonist
B. alpha-blocker
C. beta-agonist
D. beta-blocker

A

B

104
Q 
Which of the following is not an indication for beta blocker therapy:
A. Hypotension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Arrhythmias
D. Myocardial infarction
A

A

105
Q 
Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor
secretions from the ciliary body:
A. Propranolol
B. Nadolol
C. Timolol
D. Metoprolol
A

D

106
Q 
Which of the following is not considered cardio selective:
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Esmolol
D. Carvedilol
A

D

107
Q 
Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following:
A. Stimulate NE release
B. Inhibit NE release
C. Stimulate DA release
D. Inhibit DA release
A

A

108
Q 
Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT:
A. Tyramine
B. Guanethidine
C. Reserpine
D. Propranolol
A

D

109
Q 
Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of
a alpha-1 agonist drug:
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Tissue necrosis
D. Vasodilation
A

B

110
Q

Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the
drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension:
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist

A

B

111
Q

Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in
50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nauseas, dizziness, and
sleep disturbances:
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist

A

B

112
Q 
Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics:
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-3-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist
A

D

113
Q 
Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of
which of the following agonists:
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-2-agonist
D. beta-1-agonist
A

D

114
Q

If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese),
which of the following acute responses is most likely: (Sympathomimetic)
A. Stimulation of NE release
B. Inhibition of NE release
C. Stimulation of ACh release
D. Inhibition of ACh release

A

A

115
Q

Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with
increased guanethidine: (Sympathomimetic)
A. Stimulation of NE release
B. Inhibition of NE release
C. Stimulation of ACh release
D. Inhibition of ACh release

A

A

116
Q 
Major adverse affects of the alpha-1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and
which of the following:
A. Orthostatic tachycardia
B. Orthostatic bradycardia
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
A

D

117
Q 
Which of the following effects would be intensified with the alpha-2 blockade:
A. Reflex tachycardia
B. Reflex bradycardia
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
A

A

118
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the beta-1 blockade:
A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. AV node block
D. Increased arrhythmias
A

D

119
Q

Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been
associated with sudden termination of beta-1 blockers:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Syncope (fainting)
C. Angina
D. Sudden death

A

D

120
Q 
Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in
beta2- blockers:
A. Asthmatics
B. Congestive heart failure patients
C. Trauma patients
D. Diabetics
A

A

121
Q

Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to
masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia:
A. alpha-1-blocker
B. alpha-2-blocker
C. beta-1-blocker
D. beta-2-blocker

A

D

122
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system:
A. Is considered cranio-sacral
B. Involves rest and digestion functions
C. Has nicotinic receptors on cell bodies of all postganglionic neurons
D. Target organs have muscarinic receptors for ACh
E. Innervation of vascular smooth muscle

A

E

123
Q 
Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh):
A. Synaptic cleft
B. Cytosol
C. Mitochondria
D. Extracellular matrix
E. Lysosomes
A

C

124
Q 
Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine:
A. Milk
B. Liver
C. Eggs
D. Peanuts
E. Blood plasma
A

E

125
Q 
What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin:
A. ACh increased
B. ACh decreased
C. Muscarinic ACh receptor modified
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor modified
E. AChE inhibited
A

B

126
Q

ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter:
A. K+
B. Ca2+

C. Cl-
D. Na+

E. H+

A

E

127
Q

Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being
terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE):
A. K+
B. Ca2+

C. Cl-
D. Na+

E. H+

A

B

128
Q 
Nicotinic N2 receptors are the \_\_\_\_ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the
\_\_\_\_subtype.
A. Neuronal; Muscular
B. Muscular; Neuronal
C. Nodal; Neuronal
D. Neuronal; Nodal
E. Sympathetic; Parasympathetic
A

A

129
Q 
Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine:
A. Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist
B. Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist
C. Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
D. Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist
A

C

130
Q 
Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often
associated with which side effect:
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Euphoria
D. Sedation
E. Hallucinations
A

E

131
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular
tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade:
A. Gs
B. Gi
C. Gq
D. Go

A

C

132
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines,
muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity:
A. Gs
B. Gi
C. Gq
D. Go

A

C

133
Q 
The drugs Bethanechol and Pilocarpine are:
A. Acetylcholine agonists
B. Acetylcholine antagonists
C. Muscarinic agonists
D. Muscarinic antagonists
E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A

C

134
Q

Which of the following is not a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M
receptors:
A. Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation)
B. Iris contraction (miosis)
C. Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision)
D. Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
E. Salivary/lacrimal thin and watery secretions

A

D

135
Q

Which of the following is not a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M
receptors:
A. Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
B. Increased GI tract tone and secretions
C. Diaphoresis from sweat glands
D. Penile erection
E. Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter

A

A

136
Q

What is Bethanechol most commonly used for:
A. For decreasing heart rate
B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
C. For urinary retention
D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
E. For erectile dysfunction

A

C

137
Q

What is Pilocarpine most commonly used for:
A. For decreasing heart rate
B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
C. For urinary retention
D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
E. For erectile dysfunction

A

D

138
Q

Which of the following is not a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would
be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning:
A. Diarrhea
B. Diaphoresis
C. Mydriasis
D. Nausea
E. Urinary urgency

A

C

139
Q 
What type of drugs are Atropine, Scopolamine, and Pirenzepine:
A. Acetylcholine agonists
B. Acetylcholine antagonists
C. Muscarinic agonists
D. Muscarinic antagonists
E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A

D

140
Q 
What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade):
A. Bethanechol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Pirenzepine
D. Scopolamine
E. Atropine
A

E

141
Q

What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination:
A. Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation
B. Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)
C. Miosis and increased lacrimation
D. Mydriasis and cycloplegia
E. Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and mydriasis

A

D

142
Q 
Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine:
A. Increased salivation
B. Blurred vision
C. Bradycardia
D. Diaphoresis
E. Decreased intraocular pressure
A

B

143
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity:
A. Blind as a bat
B. Red as a beet
C. Mad as a hatter
D. Hot as a hare
E. Wet as a towel
A

E

144
Q 
Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness:
(Injection, oral, or transdermal patch)
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Homatropine
D. Tropicamide
A

B

145
Q 
Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, \_\_\_\_ last 7-10 days (longest) and \_\_\_\_
last 6 hours (shortest).
A. Atropine; Scopolamine
B. Scopolamine; Homatropine
C. Homatropine; Tropicamide
D. Tropicamide; Atropine
E. Atropine; Tropicamide
A

E

146
Q

Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a non-specific pseudocholinesterase located in
glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics is metabolized by
BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic):
A. Ester
B. Ether
C. Amine
D. Alkane
E. Alcohol

A

A

147
Q 
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine
intoxication:
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Donepezil
E. Pyridostigmine
A

B

148
Q 
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia:
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Donepezil
E. Pyridostigmine
A

A

149
Q 
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer
disease:
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Donepezil
E. Pyridostigmine
A

D

150
Q 
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis
(MG):
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Pyridostigmine
A

B

151
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor
(organophosphate AChE inhibitors):
A. Tacrine
B. Echothiophate
C. Sarin, toban, soman
D. Malathion, parathion
E. Isoflurophate
A

A

152
Q 
By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the
esteratic site of the enzyme?
A. Hydroxylation
B. Hydrolysis
C. Phosphorylation
D. Peptide
E. Methylation
A

C

153
Q

A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who
may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two
drugs, an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote).
What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit:
A. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) and echothiophate
B. Parathion and adenosine
C. Scopolamine and tropicamide
D. Mecamylamine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

A

E

154
Q 
Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What
is the approximate half-life of soman:
A. 6 seconds
B. 6 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 60 hours
A

B

155
Q 
What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in
the United States?
A. Mecamylamine
B. Scopolamine
C. Echothiophate
D. Pralidoxime
E. Parathion
A

A

156
Q 
Which of the following is not an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking:
A. Anhidrosis and xerostomia
B. Mydriasis
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypertension
E. Cycloplegia
A

D

157
Q 
Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase
inhibitor, Neostigmine?
A. Succinylcholine
B. Suxamethonium
C. Atracurium
D. Edrophonium
A

A

158
Q

How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work:
A. Decreased blood pressure – due to histamine release
B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or
prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
C. Unusual mechanism
D. Combine reversibly with the esteratic site of the acetylcholine esterase enzyme
rendering it inactive for about 30 minutes

A

B

159
Q 
What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Arrhythmia
A

B

160
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of
the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient:
A. Alpha-agonist
B. Alpha-blocker
C. Beta-agonist
D. Beta-blocker

A

B

161
Q 
Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following:
A. Stimulate NE release
B. Inhibit NE release
C. Stimulate DA release
D. Inhibit DA release
A

A

162
Q 
In cats it is a useful emetic drug:
A. Xylazine
B. Clonidine
C. Medetomidine
D. Dexmedetomidine
A

A

163
Q 
Not allowed in pseudopregnant animals:
A. Acepromazine
B. Detomidine
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
A

A

164
Q 
Only effective according to IV application
A. Detomidine
B. Acepromazine
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
A

D

165
Q 
Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration?
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopental
D. Metomidate
A

A

166
Q 
In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics:
A. Sodium valproate
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Sodium bromide
A

B

167
Q 
Contraindicated in epileptic patients:
A. Morphine
B. Acepromazine
C. Metohexital
D. Ketamine
A

B

168
Q 
In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid
agent as well:
A. Fentanyl
B. Codeine
C. Butorphanol
D. Tramadol
A

C

169
Q 
Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?
A. Dexmedetomidine
B. Phencyclidine
C. Atipamezole
D. Flumazenil
A

D

170
Q 
“Slower to act” transmitters in CNS
A. Dopamine
B. Endorphins
C. Enkephalins
D. Serotonin (5-HT)
A

C

171
Q 
Ultra-short acting barbiturates:
A. Pentobarbital
B. Thiopental
C. Butobarbital
D. Phenobarbital
A

B

172
Q

Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?
A. Homogenous
B. Does dissolve on body temperature
C. Cocoa-butter can be used as vehicle base
D. Does not contain solid particles

A

B

173
Q 
How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of
lactating cows:
A. Every 3 hours
B. Every 6 hours
C. Every 12 hours
D. Only once
A

C

174
Q 
It is a GSH-category:
A. Mutagenic
B. Not toxic for fish
C. Unknown mechanism of effect
D. Highly toxic
A

D

175
Q 
What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean?
A. Pain killing effect
B. Causes sleeping
C. Causes hallucinations
D. Causes catalepsy
A

B

176
Q

Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension

A

B

177
Q

Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:
A. Acute toxicity studies
B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
C. Teratogenicity studies
D. Preclinical and pharmalogical investigations

A

B

178
Q 
Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic
effect, lead to its being banned in EU:
A. Halothane
B. Desflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Sevoflurane
A

A

179
Q 
Sedative that can cause paradoxical in horses:
A. Romifidine
B. Detomidine
C. Midazolam
D. Acepromazine
A

D

180
Q 
Gels are dosage form with the following attribute:
A. High water content
B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins
C. Only oral application
D. None of these
A

B

181
Q 
Duration of action of thiopental:
A. 5-10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 10-20 minutes
A

A

182
Q 
Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related
diseases (e.g. stress-related colitis):
A. Diazepam
B. Ketoprofen
C. Xylazine
D. Acepromazine
A

A

183
Q 
Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions
of Xylazine?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Xylometazoline
D. Glycopyrrolate
A

D

184
Q 
Duration of action of Propofol:
A. 5-8 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes
A

A

185
Q 
How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity
studies?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
A

A

186
Q 
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties:
A. Xylazine
B. Butorphanol
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
A

B

187
Q 
In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most
frequently?
A. Rat
B. Rabbit
C. Beagle
D. Mouse
A

B

188
Q 
Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates:
A. Respiratory depression
B. Vomiting
C. Paralysis
D. Blindness
A

A

189
Q 
Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a
case of status epilepticus?
A. Rectal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular
A

A

Pharma exam (3 decks)

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