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Pharma exam > Pharm Q 1 > Flashcards

Pharm Q 1 Flashcards

1
Q

According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the
same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:
A. High intrinsic activity and low affinity
B. No intrinsic activity and high affinity
C. Low intrinsic activity and low affinity
D. High intrinsic activity and high affinity

A

B

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2
Q 
A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or only incidentally with
the receptor:
A. Chemical antagonist
B. Pharmacological antagonist
C. Partial agonist
D. Physiologic antagonist
A

A

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3
Q 
\_\_\_ the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose:
A. Quantal dose response curve
B. Graded dose response curve
C. Maximum efficacy
D. Therapeutic index
A

C

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4
Q 
What is approximate percentage of a weak base (pKa = 8.4) in the non-ionised form
in the plasma having a pH of 7.4?
A. 90%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 10%
A

D

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5
Q

When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the
registered feed compounder?
A. Prescription
B. Special prescription
C. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
D. Legislation on requisition

A

C

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6
Q 
Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
A. Allergic reactions
B. Teratogenic effects (Thalidomide)
C. Idiosyncratic reactions
D. All of the above can occur
A

D

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7
Q

A drug licensed for humans and included in Table 1, and MRL has to be established
administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:
A. At most 7 days withdrawal period
B. At most 28 days withdrawal period
C. At least 28 days withdrawal period
D. At least 7 days withdrawal period

A

D

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8
Q

According to this type of medicinal substance use both sick and healthy animals are
treated with a mass (population) administration:
A. Metaphylaxis
B. Mass treatment
C. Always
D. Prophylaxis

A

A

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9
Q 
What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug
(pKa= 4.4) in blood (pH = 7.4)
A. 1:1
B. 100:1
C. 10:1
D. 1000:1
A

D

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10
Q

How long do the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following
application of a human licensed medicine?
A. 7 days
B. 500 degree days
C. 28 days
D. 0 days

A

C

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11
Q

How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following
application of a human licensed medicine?
A. 28 days
B. 500 degree days
C. 0 days
D. 7 days

A

B

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12
Q

The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic
system but do not act at the same receptor site is:
A. Chemical antagonism
B. Physiologic antagonism
C. Competitive antagonism
D. Non-competitive antagonism

A

B

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13
Q

Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5 mg
produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500 mg:
A. Drug B is less efficacious than drug A
B. The toxicity of drug A is lower than that of drug B
C. Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B
D. Drug A has a shorter duration of action

A

C

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14
Q 
Which substance is a schedule 2 substance?
A. Cannabis
B. Fentanyl
C. Diazepam
D. Phenobarbital
A

B

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15
Q 
Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not
introduced in:
A. British Veterinary Formulary
B. Hungarian Pharmacopeia
C. European Pharmacopeia
D. British Pharmacopeia
A

A

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16
Q

The LD50 of a drug is
A. 50% of the lethal dose in man
B. 50% of the lethal dose in an experimental animal
C. The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals
D. Half the dose that kills all of the treated animals

A

C

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17
Q 
Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicines, this stimulates the
oxidation or reduction processes:
A. Fungi
B. Humidity
C. Light (UV)
D. Heat
A

C

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18
Q 
This category may play an important role in prevention of animal disease, but they
are not real drugs:
A. Prepared drugs
B. Immunologicals
C. Official drugs
D. Biocides
A

D

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19
Q 
How long do the withdrawal period usually last for eggs, following application of an
official or prepared medicine?
A. 500 degree days
B. 0 days
C. 28 days
D. 7 days
A

D

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20
Q 
Which temperature interval is valid if the drug has to be stored at a cool place?
A. 15–25°C
B. 2–8°C
C. 8–15°C
D. 10–14°C
A

C

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21
Q

What is written in the inscription in case of prepared preparations?
A. The name and amount of the ingredients
B. The name, dosage form and the strength of preparation
C. The dosage form and the container
D. The number of original packages

A

A

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22
Q 
What "Medicines order 2001 UK" category can be supplied by pharmacists without
any prescription?
A. P and PML
B. GSL, P, PML
C. GSL and P
D. Every "medicines order 2001" category
A

B

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23
Q

Quantal dose response curves are
A. Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studied
B. Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
C. Obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
D. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug

A

D

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24
Q 
This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopeia commission to
each compound:
A. Chemical name
B. Each drug name
C. Proprietary name
D. Approved name
A

D

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25
Q 
Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?
A. Subscription
B. Signature
C. Superscription
D. Inscription
A

B

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26
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
A. Acid sensitivity of drug
B. Increased motility of GI
C. Large pKa value of drug
D. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

A

D

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27
Q

Which is an example for substitution therapy?
A. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hyperthyroidism
B. Administration of a generic drug instead of original licensed product
C. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism
D. During antimicrobial treatment switching the antibiotic in case of resistant strain
appearance

A

C

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28
Q

Which statement is NOT true for a first order, one compartment open
pharmacokinetic model?
A. A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in
time
B. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or
excretion is saturated
C. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body
continuously
D. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly

A

B

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29
Q

A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction (mediated at
histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g. epinephrine)
A. Pharmacological antagonist
B. Physiologic antagonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial agonist

A

B

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30
Q

What is characteristic for a drug molecule, which has been metabolised in the
Phase II of biotransformation procedure?
A. Losing of activity
B. Active metabolite from an inactive pro-drug
C. Metabolite with qualitatively different pharmacologic action
D. Increased activity

A

A

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31
Q

Drug allergies
A. Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug
previously
B. Are more likely develop in a very young infant
C. Can develop only when the patient has previously received the drug
D. Are more likely to develop in a very old animal

A

A

32
Q

When comparing drugs with respect to intensity of response, the drug that produces
the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest
A. Affinity
B. Therapeutic index
C. Efficacy
D. Potency

A

C

33
Q

The pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription
from the practitioner:
A. Pharmacy and merchant list medicines (PML)
B. General sales list meds (GSL)
C. Pharmacy medicines (P)
D. Prescription only medicines (POM)

A

D

34
Q 
The effect and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses
are not introduced well detailed in:
A. British Veterinary Formulary
B. European Pharmacopeia
C. Vademecum
D. Drug lexicon
A

B

35
Q 
The category drug like substances (non real drugs) includes:
A. Official drugs
B. Prepared drugs
C. Immunologicals
D. Biocides
A

D

36
Q 
Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the
drug:
A. Signature
B. Superscription
C. Inscription
D. Subscription
A

C

37
Q

The oral AUC is the half that of the IV AUC value and for oral administration two
fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
A. 0.5
B. 0.1
C. 0.125
D. 0.25

A

D

38
Q

Which of the following is an action of a non-competitive antagonist?
A. Alters the mechanism of action of an agonist
B. Alters the potency of an agonist
C. Decreases the maximum response to an agonist
D. Binds to the same site on the receptor as the agonist

A

C

39
Q 
Drugs may harmfully interact with useful intestinal microbes. In which species is the
effect the least significant?
A. Hamsters
B. Horses
C. Rabbits
D. Dogs
A

D

40
Q

If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then drug A
A. Is more toxic than drug B
B. Has a greater affinity for the receptor than drug B
C. Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B
D. Has a greater margin of safety than drug B

A

C

41
Q 
A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those
receptors without activating them
A. Chemical antagonist
B. Pharmacological antagonist
C. Partial agonist
D. Physiologic antagonist
A

B

42
Q

In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a vet-licensed medicine is given
A. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
B. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
C. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
D. Prescription of a human licensed medicine

A

A

43
Q

Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining drug allergy are:
A. Contamination of skin
B. Inhalation – contamination of airways
C. Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration
D. Chronic disease, atrophy

A

C

44
Q

The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian’s own handwriting:
A. Special preparation
B. Label
C. Prescription
D. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

A

A

45
Q 
This name of medicinal substances is given by the manufacturers:
A. Each drug name
B. Approved name
C. Chemical name
D. Proprietary name
A

D

46
Q

The oral AUC is the 25% of that of the IV AUC value and for IV administration two
fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
A. 0.75
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0.125

A

B

47
Q 
Which part of the prescription gives the owner information about the dosages of an
animal?
A. Signature
B. Inscription
C. Superscription
D. Subscription
A

A

48
Q 
Mark the reaction, which is not characteristic for Type I, immediate or anaphylactic
drug allergy reaction:
A. Immune complex formation
B. Urticaria
C. Asthma like condition
D. Oedema
A

A

49
Q

A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I and III administered to dairy
cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:
A. At most 7 days withdrawal period
B. At most 28 days withdrawal period
C. At least 28 days withdrawal period
D. At least 7 days withdrawal period

A

D

50
Q 
Vehicle in licking stones:
A. Light kaolin
B. Activated charcoal
C. Sodium chloride
D. Bismuth subgallate
A

C

51
Q

How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following
application of an official or prepared medicine?
A. 7 days
B. 0 days
C. 500 degree days
D. 28 days

A

C

52
Q 
For which category is not true, usually it develops after repeated administration?
A. Drug tolerance
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Drug allergy
D. Drug dependence
A

B

53
Q 
Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?
A. Phenolbarbital/phenobarbitone
B. LSD
C. Morphine
D. Fentanyl
A

A

54
Q 
Which drug has to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of
the veterinarian?
A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
C. None of these
D. Schedule 2 and 3
A

D

55
Q 
A dosage from appropriate for the preparation of medicated feedstuff:
A. Premix
B. OROS
C. WSP
D. Oral solution
A

A

56
Q

Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having
A. Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor
B. Both efficacy and affinity for the receptor
C. Efficacy but little or no affinity for the receptor
D. None of the above

A

A

57
Q

Antagonists are drugs that
A. Bound passively to the tissue receptor site
B. Reserve the effect of other drugs on tissue receptor sites
C. Activate tissue receptor sites
D. Block tissue receptor sites

A

D

58
Q 
Defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading
diseases in herd:
A. Panphylaxis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Prophylaxis
D. Metaphylaxis
A

D

59
Q

Which statement is not true for a first order, open compartment open pharma …
model?
A. A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in
time
B. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body
continuously
C. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or
excretion is saturated
D. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly

A

C

60
Q

Drugs can be used as non-divided powders:
A. Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin
B. Only drugs for the treatment of poultry
C. Only water insoluble drugs
D. Only water soluble drugs

A

A

61
Q 
These drugs are always POM medicines
A. Premixes
B. Controlled drugs
C. Official preparations
D. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
A

B

62
Q 
Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active
substance in a bolus?
A. OROS
B. Insoluble matrix
C. Chip controlled diaphragm
D. Expanding matrix
A

C

63
Q

Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
A. Rapid dissolution from the formulation
B. Increased motility of GI
C. Acid sensitivity of drug
D. Large pKa value of drug

A

A

64
Q 
Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
A. Gelatine
B. Glycerine
C. Water
D. Sugar
A

B

65
Q 
These drugs are natural compounds of practically harmless substances, which do
not require a withdrawal period
A. Drugs in Annex II
B. Drugs in Annex I
C. Drugs in Annex III
D. Drugs in Annex IV
A

A

66
Q 
When are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory?
A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
C. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
D. None of them above
A

C

67
Q

At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 1 mg/L. The total body
clearance is (Cl2) 100 ml/min. What is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied in
every 12 hour?
A. 7.2 mg
B. 72 mg
C. 50 mg
D. 100 mg

A

B

68
Q

A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole
A. Has to have at least 28 WP for meat
B. Must not be used in food producing animals
C. Cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated
D. Requires 0 days WP in food producing animals

A

B

69
Q

A drug included in 2377/790EEC Annex II has a withdrawal period of:
A. 7 days
B. Must not be administrated to food producing animals
C. 0 days
D. 28 days

A

C

70
Q 
Which drugs are normally not used in the veterinary practice?
A. Schedule 1 drugs
B. Schedule 2 drugs
C. Schedule 3 drugs
D. Schedule 4 drugs
A

A

71
Q 
What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopeia’s?
A. Indication in veterinary medicine
B. Identification methods
C. Dosage of the drug in humans
D. Indications in human medicine
A

B

72
Q

In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual
components) has to be given in the inscription part
A. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
B. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
C. Prescription of a formulate official medicine
D. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

A

D

73
Q 
How long after the first use can drugs from multi dose injection bottles be used?
A. At most 14 days
B. At most 28 days
C. At most 7 days
D. No such requirement is official
A

A

74
Q

Which of the following is the licensed name of the drug
A. Amoxicillin
B. 7-amino-3,3-dimethyl-oxo-4-carboxylic acid
C. Betamox inj AUV
D. None of them above

A

C

75
Q 
The most frequent active ingredient of intraruminal boluses
A. NSAID
B. Anthelminthic
C. Growth promotor
D. Antibiotic
A

B

76
Q 
Which active substance is appropriate for analgesia (painkiller) as a transdermal
patch?
A. Fentanyl
B. Naloxone
C. Metamizole
D. Butorphanol
A

A

77
Q 
A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I, administrated to dairy cattle’s
should have a WP of at least
A. At most 28 days WP
B. At least 28 days WP
C. At most 7 days WP
D. At least 7 days WP
A

D

Pharma exam (3 decks)

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