Pharm Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Competitive muscarinic receptor blockers

A
  • atropine, scopolamine, propantheline, are sometimes used to control salivary secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atropine

A
  • competitive muscarinic receptor blocker
    blocks vagal reflexive control of heart rate => results in tachycardia
  • don’t use anti-cholinergics in glaucoma pts bc it will increase their intra-occ pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Physostigmine

A
  • reversible anticholinesterase, - acts both centrally and peripherally, has some direct Ach like activity at neuromuscular junction, in addition to prolonging the activity of endogenous Ach
  • lipid-soluble drug that is absorbed very well orally
  • used to treat glacoma and Alzhmers
  • sometimes for treating xerostomia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neostigmine

A
  • reversible anticholinesterase, - acts peripherally only, has some direct ACh-like activity at NMJ => prolongs activity of endogenous ACh, sometimes for treating xerostomia
  • also used for managing myasthenia gravis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Direct acting cholinergic agonists

A

pilocarpine, choline esters (drugs end in either choline or -ol for ester), may be used for xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pralidoxime

A

enzyme regenerator used in organophosphate toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Organophosphates and insecticides irreversibly inhibit

A

cholinesterase

- causing respiratory paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Organophosphates

A

malathion and parathion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Synthetic versions of atropine

A

methantheline and propantheline both act only peripherial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what muscarinic receptor blockers can relieve some symptoms of Parkinson Disease

A

Atropine and scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what autonomic can be used to diagnose myathenia graves

A

Edrophonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Succinylcholine

A
  • agonist at nicotinic receptors,
  • depolarizing NMJ blocker subject to rapid inactivation by plasma pseudocholinesterase,
  • used to prevent laryngospasm
    paralyzing dose causes muscle relaxation
  • used to relax muscles during surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

d-tubocurarine

A
  • antagonist at nicotinic Rs
  • blocks the receptor site from ACh
  • non-depolarizing neuromuscular junction blocker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cevimeline

A

cholinergic agonist to treat xerostomia and Sjogrens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ganglionic blockers

A

mecamylamine and trimethaphan produce orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Signs of cholinergic crisis

A
  • bradycardia
  • larimation
  • salivation
  • voluntary muscle weakness
  • diarrhea
  • bronchoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What would you use to treat cholinergic crisis

A

atrophine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the symptoms of scopolamine overdose

A
  • disorientation
  • confusion
  • hallucinations
  • burning dry mouth
  • hypertherma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How would you treat scopolamine overdose

A

physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does betulirum toxin prevent

A

release for Ach

- Botox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Signs of Cholinergic Stimulation effects

A
  • miosis (constriction of pupils)
  • decrease intraocular pressure
  • bradycardia
  • vasodilation
  • increase salivation
  • increase acid secretion
  • increase spasmodic activity of GI tract
  • increase urination
    -bronchoconstriction
  • lacrimation
  • sweating
  • muscle tremors
  • ataxia (loss of bodily movement
    ACRONYM: SLUD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of Epinephrine injection

A

increase BP

1) myocardial stimulation
2) increase HR
3) vasoconstriction due to alpha receptor stimulation increase blood flow to muscle b/c beta2 receptor vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ephedrine

A
  • causes release of stored norepinephrine and acts at receptor itself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Amphetamine

A
  • stimulates release of stored norepinephrine and stimulates alpha receptors in CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
TCA antidepressant
- norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibition
26
MAO inhibitors
- blocks enzymatic destruction of monoamines (EPI, NE, Dopamine, & Serotonin)
27
Alpha1 receptor stimulation
vasoconstriction, urinary retention, mydriasis
28
Alpha2 receptor stimulation
hypotention, reduces sympathetic outflow from CNS
29
Beta1 receptor stimulation
- increased heart rate, increased force of contraction, - located in kidney, increase renin i.e. increase BP positive inotropic (modified force and speed) and chronotropic (HR) actions - mainly NE
30
Beta2 receptor stimulation
bronchodilation, vasodilation, dilation of skeletal muscle
31
Levodopa with Carbidopa
- levodopa: is a dopamine precursor that can cross the blood brain barrier - carbidopa: is a dopa decarboxylase converter blocker - used to treat Parkinson's
32
Phentolamine
nonselective alpha blocker, will cause vasodilation
33
Isopreterenol
beta2 receptor stimulator
34
Methoxamine
vasoconstrictor that stimulates alpha 1 receptors
35
Albuterol
beta2 agonist for bronchodilatory effects
36
Physiological antagonism
- two drugs produce opposite effects but don't act on the same receptor - ex: epinephrine and histamine, epinephrine and nitroglycerin
37
Idiosyncratic reactions
- genetically determined abnormal responses to a drug, are most unpredictable because may not be shown until drug is taken for the first time by a pt - ex: succinylcholine and atypical plasma cholinesterase
38
Benzodiazepines
- modulates the action of inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA, many form active metabolites, is most common drug group given for oral sedation - ex: diazepam, chlordiazepoxide
39
Benzodiazepines > barbiturates
less addiction potential, less profound CNS depression, larger therapeutic index, less respiratory depression
40
Benzodiazepine adverse effects
IV injection of diazepam can cause irritation like thrombophletbitis due to solvent (propylene glycol)
41
Diazepam
benzodiazepine, Valium, is given most commonly for oral sedation
42
Triazolam
benzodiazepine, Halcion, is ultrashort acting version
43
Midazolam
benzodiazepine, water soluble (doesn't cause thrombophlebitis), shorter acting than valium because it doesn't have active metabolites, has more rapid and predictable onset of action when given IM than valium
44
Barbiturates
CNS depressants, will depress all levels of CNS, they are sedatives, not analgesic, will often induce excessive salivation and bronchial secretion and require use of anticholinergic drug to reduce these, are metabolized by the liver, are classified according to duration of action
45
Thiopental
action is terminated by redistribution of drug out of the brain, will enter and exit the brain rapidly, thus quick onset and short duration of action
46
Phenobarbital
long acting barbiturate
47
Barbiturate toxicity
overdose kills you because of respiratory depression
48
Barbiturate contraindications
- intermittent porphyria: will enhance porphyrin synthesis and will aggravate the disease - undiagnosed severe pain: may make the pain worse and result in arousal, rage, delirium emphysema
49
Barbiturate toxicity treatment
need to maintain open airway, increase input of afferent stimuli, maintain respiration, administer CNS stimulant
50
1st generation antipsychotic drugs
Phenothiazine(Chlorpromazine) or Haloperidol, specific D2 (dopamine) receptor blocker
51
Side effects of 1st generation antipsychotic drugs
anticholinergic effects and anti-a-adrenergic effects (xerostomia and postural hypotension), and extrapyramidal stimulation resulting in tardive dyskinesia, may have jaundice due to allergic reaction
52
2nd generation antipsychotic drugs
Clozapine, block dopamine receptors and serotonin 5HT receptors, treat negative and positive symptoms, have fewer extrapyramidal side effects
53
Antipsychotics
mostly dopaminergic receptor blockers in the brain
54
Chlorpromazine
prototypic phenothiazine, used in treatment of schizophrenia
55
Tricycline antidepressants
Imipramine or Amitriptyline, are reuptake inhibitors for amine neurotransmitters, were most commonly used in the past, are strong anticholinergics
56
MAO inhibitors
Tranylcypromine or Phenylene
57
SSRI antidepressant drugs
Fluoxetine/Prozac or Trazadone, much more commonly used now, block amine reuptake or alterations of receptor number
58
Side effects of SSRI antidepressant drugs
anticholinergic side effects
59
Lithium
drug of choice for manic phase of manic depression (bipolar disorder)
60
Corticosteroids or glucocorticoids
suppress immune system in addition to anti-inflammatory activity, so latent infection like TB may go systemic and opportunistic infections like Candidiasis may become more of a problem
61
Side effects of corticosteroids or glucocorticoids
gastric ulcers, immunosuppression, acute adrenal insufficiency (dec in cortisol & aldo), osteoporosis, hyperglycemia, redistribution of body fat
62
General anesthesia onset and rate of induction
inversely proportional to solubility of anesthetic in the blood(more bl soluble, the more must be given to reach critical level), also influenced by pulmonary ventilation, blood supply to lungs, concentration of anesthetic in inspired mixture
63
Halothane
associated with hepatotoxicity, may use atropine before to reduce salivation and bronchial secretions
64
Stages of anesthesia
I: analgesia II: delirium III: surgical anesthesia IV: medullary paralysis (once you start depressing medullary centers, pt will stop breathing and die)
65
Moderate acting anesthetics
prilocaine, mepivacaine, lidocaine
66
Long acting anesthetics
bupivacaine, tetracaine, etidocaine
67
Lidocaines interaction with propranolol
interacts with propranolol by slowing down heart via beta receptor blockade and keeping lidocaine in the circulation longer and causing toxicity and by competing for the same enzyme in the liver
68
Antibiotics interaction with coumarin
deplete vitK sources so will enhance coumarin anticoagulants
69
Antibiotics interaction with oral conctraceptives
suppress normal flora involved in active steroids from bile conjugates => more rapid excretion of steroid from body
70
Macrolide interactions
- inhibit metabolism of drugs like seldane, digoxin - erythromycin blocks the metabolism of seldane to antihistamine metabolity => will stay unmetabolized and cause cardiac arrhythmias
71
H1 antihistamines
Tx derm manifests of an allergy (cholpheniramine), pre-op med for sedation, aniemetic and anticholinergic effects (promethazine), control parkinsons sx (diphenhydramine)
72
H2 antihistamines
Reduce gastric acid secretion (cimetidine)
73
Promethazine
most common pre-op antihistamine med
74
Diphenhydramine
used to control sx of parkinsons bc cholinergic and dopaminergic tracts interact in the brain, and thus anticholinergics will enhance dopaminergic fxns. antihis drugs have anticholinergic properties.
75
what is the physiologic antagonist if histamine?
epi
76
Drug used to tx trigeminal nueralgia?
carbamazepine and phenytoin
77
Epi as a VC... main bad SE?
cardiac arrythmia
78
how do sulfonyl ureas cause insulin secretion? | what effect to alpha and beta agonists, and cholinergics, have on insulin secretion?
direct stimulation of panc beta cells | alpha - dec insulin; beta - inc insulin; mAch - inc insulin
79
Drug induced gingival hyperplasia
- anticonvulsants (phenytoin, phenobarbital, lamotrigine, valproate, vigabatrin, ethosuximide, topiramate and primidone) - calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and verapamil. - cyclosporine, an immunosuppresant
80
Best drug to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines
Flumazenil