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Pharm one liner > Pharm one liner II > Flashcards

Pharm one liner II Flashcards

1
Q

Non-depolarizing antagonist has short duration

A

Mivacurium

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2
Q

Non-selective Alpha1blockers use to treat pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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3
Q

Non-selective Beta-blocker also used for migraine prophylaxis

A

Propranolol

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4
Q

Non-steroidal estrogen agonist causes clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina in daughters of women who used it during pregnancy

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

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5
Q

Nonselective alpha agonists that decrease aqueous production and increase aqueous outflow

A

Epinephrine, dipivefrin

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6
Q

Nonselective alpha-blocking drug, long acting and irreversible, and used to treat pheochromocytoma. Blocks 5-HT, so occasionaly used for carcinoid tumor. Blocks H1 and used in mastocytosis

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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7
Q

Nonselective alpha-blocking drug, short acting and reversible, used for rebound HTN from rapid clonidine withdrawal, and Raynaud’s phenomena

A

Phentolamine

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8
Q

NSAID available orally, IM, IV, nasally, and ophthalmically

A

Ketoralac

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9
Q

NSAID avoided in gout because low doses increases uric acid levels

A

Aspirin

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10
Q

NSAID that is used for acute condition, such as pre-op anesthesia and has limited duration (<5 days) of use due to nephrotoxicity

A

Ketoralac

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11
Q

NSAID used in gout

A

Indomethacin, ibuprofen

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12
Q

Occurs when sedative hypnotics are used chronically or at high doses

A

Tolerance

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13
Q

Often mixed with local anesthetic to

A

Reduce the loss from area of injection

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14
Q

One depolarizing blocker that causes continuous depolarization and results in muscle relaxation and paralysis, causes muscle pain postoperatively and myoglobinuria may occur

A

Succinylcholine

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15
Q

Only member of depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, causes fasciculation during induction and muscle pain after use

A

Succinylcholine

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16
Q

Only phenothiazine not exerting antiemetic effects, can cause visual impairment due to retinal deposits, and high doses have been associated with ventricular arrhythmias

A

Thioridazine

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17
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given IV and had short DOA

A

Naloxone

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18
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given orally in alcohol dependency programs

A

Naltrexone

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19
Q

Opioid associated with awareness during surgery and post-operative recall, but still used for high-risk cardiovascular surgeries

A

Fentanyl

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20
Q

Opioid available trans-dermally

A

Fentanyl

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21
Q

Opioid that can be given PO, by epidural, and IV, which helps to relieve the dyspnea of pulmonary edema

A

Morphine

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22
Q

Opioid used in the management of withdrawal states

A

Methadone

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23
Q

Opioids used in anesthesia

A

Morphine and fentanyl

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24
Q

Oral antibiotic of choice for moderate inflammatory acne

A

Minocycline

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25
Q

Oral contraceptive available in a transdermal patch

A

Ortho-Evra

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26
Q

Orthostatic hypotension and QT prolongation

A

Low potency and risperidone

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27
Q

Other side effects of Quinidine

A

Thrombocytopenic purpura, and CINCHONISM

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28
Q

Overdoses of this agent with powerful vasoconstrictive action may result in fatalities from arrhythmias, seizures, respiratory depression, or severe HTN (MI and stroke)

A

Cocaine “super-speed”

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29
Q

Partial opioid agonist, considered a strong analgesic, has a long duration of action and is resistant to naloxone reversal

A

Buprenorphine

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30
Q

Patients being treated with lithium, who are dehydrated, or taking diuretics concurrently, could develop

A

Lithium toxicity, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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31
Q

PCN active against pseudomonas

A

Carbenicillin, piperacillin and ticarcillin

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32
Q

Penicillins active against penicillinase secreting bacteria

A

Methicillin, nafcillin, and dicloxacillin

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33
Q

Peptide causing increased capillary permeability and edema

A

Bradykinin and histamine

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34
Q

Period of time of therapy after which GC therapy will need to be tapered

A

5-7 days

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35
Q

Permanently cures thyrotoxicosis, patients will need thyroid replacement therapy thereafter. Contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Radioactive iodine

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36
Q

Phenylisopropylamines that are used legitimately and abused for narcolepsy, attention deficit disorder, and weight reduction

A

Amphetamines

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37
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors that increase mortality and have been found to have NO beneficial effects

A

Amrinone and milrinone

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38
Q

Plasma concentration of a drug at a given time

A

Cp

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39
Q

Pneumonic for 3 zones of adrenal cortex

A

GFR

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40
Q

Pneumonic for beta receptors

A

You have 1 heart (Beta 1) and 2 lungs (Beta 2)

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41
Q

Population group especially sensitive to side effects of antidepressants

A

Elderly patients

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42
Q

Presynaptic Alpha 2 agonist used in HTN

A

Clonidine, and methyldopa

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43
Q

Prevention of cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Hydration and mercaptoethanesulfonate (MESNA)

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44
Q

Prevents thrombosis in patients with artificial heart valve

A

Dipyridamole

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45
Q

Primary endogenous substrate for Nitric Oxidase Synthase

A

Arginine

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46
Q

Produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Atropine and other anti-muscarinic agents

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47
Q

Produces both rapid anesthesia and recovery, has antiemetic activity and commonly used for outpatient surgery, may cause marked hypotension

A

Propofol

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48
Q

Product of proinsulin cleavage used to assess insulin production

A

C-peptide

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49
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU) mechanism of action

A

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase

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50
Q

Prostaglandin used as 2nd line treatment of erectile dysfunction

A

PGE1 (Alprostadil)

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51
Q

Prostaglandins that cause abortions

A

Prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol), PGE2, and PGF2alpha

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52
Q

Proteins that prevent action of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)

A

Infliximab and etanercept

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53
Q

Prototypical drug is atropine

A

Nonselective Muscarinic Antagonists

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54
Q

Pungent inhaled anesthetic which leads to high incidence of coughing and vasospasm

A

Desflurane

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55
Q

Pyrimidine analog that causes “Thiamine-less death” given with leucovorin rescue

A

5-flouracil (5-FU)

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56
Q

Rapid acting, crystalline zinc insulin used to reverse acute hyperglycemia

A

Regular (Humulin R)

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57
Q

Rate limiting step of alcohol metabolism

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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58
Q

Readily detected markers that may assist in diagnosis of the cause of a drug overdose include

A

Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, body temperature, sweating, bowel signs, and pupillary responses

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59
Q

Reason benzos are used cautiously in pregnancy

A

Ability to cross the placenta

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60
Q

Reason ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Uterine contractions

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61
Q

Reason fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnancy

A

Cartilage damage

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62
Q

Reason troglitazone was withdrawn from market

A

Hepatic toxicity

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63
Q

Receptors for serotonin (5HT-1) are located

A

Mostly in the brain, and they mediate synaptic inhibition via increased K+ conductance

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64
Q

Recombinant uricases that enhance uric acid metabolism

A

rasburicase, pegloticase

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65
Q

Reduce heart rate, contractility, and O2 demand

A

Beta-blockers

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66
Q

Reduce transient hyper GI motility

A

Dicyclomine, methscopolamine

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67
Q

Reduced seizure threshold

A

Low-potency typical antipsychotics and clozapine

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68
Q

Regimen used for breast cancer

A

CMF (cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, and fluorouracil) and tamoxifen if ER+

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69
Q

Regimen used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

CHOP (cyclophosphamide, oncovin(vincristine), doxorubicin and prednisone), rituximab (rituxan)

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70
Q

Relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma concentration

A

Volume of distribution (VD)

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71
Q

Removal of PCP may be aided

A

Urinary acidification and activated charcoal or continual nasogastric suction

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72
Q

Reversal of blockade by neuromuscular blockers

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

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73
Q

Route of administration of warfarin

A

Oral

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74
Q

Routes of administration of heparin

A

IV and subQ

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75
Q

SE for Felbamate

A

Aplastic anemia and acute hepatic failure

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76
Q

SE for ganciclovir

A

Myelosuppression

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77
Q

SE for Lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

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78
Q

SE for ticlopidine

A

Neutropenia and agranulocytosis

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79
Q

SE of ACE inhibitors

A

Dry cough, hyperkalemia

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80
Q

SE of acetaminophen

A

Hepatotoxicity

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81
Q

SE of AGI’s

A

Flatulence (do not use beano to tx), diarrhea, abdominal cramps

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82
Q

SE of alpha blockers

A

Orthostatic hypotension (especially with first dose) and reflex tachycardia

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83
Q

SE of Amiodarone

A

Thyroid dysfunction, photosensitivity, skin (blue smurf syndrome), corneal deposits, liver damage and pulmonary fibrosis

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84
Q

SE of amrinone

A

Thrombocytopenia

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85
Q

SE of Aspirin

A

GI bleeding

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86
Q

SE of beta blockers

A

Bradycardia, SEXUAL DYSFUNCTION, decrease in HDL, and increase in Triglycerols (TG)

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87
Q

SE of both warfarin and heparin

A

Bleeding

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88
Q

SE of CCB

A

Constipation, edema, and headache

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89
Q

SE of clonidine

A

Rebound HTN, sedation, dry mouth

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90
Q

SE of colchicine

A

Kidney and liver toxicity, diarrhea, myelosuppression

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91
Q

SE of ergot alkaloids

A

Hallucinations resembling psychosis

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92
Q

SE of gold salts

A

Dermatitis of the mouth aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis

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93
Q

SE of heparin

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

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94
Q

SE of HMG COA reductase inhibitors

A

Rhabdomyolysis and Hepatotoxicity

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95
Q

SE of hydralazine

A

Lupus-like syndrome

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96
Q

SE of hydroxychloroquine

A

Retinal destruction and dermatitis

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97
Q

SE of imipenem

A

Seizures

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98
Q

SE of INH

A

Peripheral neuritis and hepatitis

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99
Q

SE of lithium

A

Tremor, sedation, ataxia, aphasia, thyroid enlargement, and reversible diabetes insipidus

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100
Q

SE of long term (>5 days) corticosteroid therapy and remedy

A

Adrenal suppression and weaning slowly, respectively

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101
Q

SE of methyldopa

A

Positive Comb’s test, depression

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102
Q

SE of minoxidil

A

Hypertrichosis

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103
Q

SE of mirtazapine

A

Liver toxicity, increased serum cholesterol

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104
Q

SE of niacin

A

Cutaneous flush

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105
Q

SE of nitrates

A

Postural hypotension, reflex tachycardia, hot flashes, and throbbing headache due to meningeal artery dilation

106
Q

SE of penicillamine

A

Aplastic anemia and renal

107
Q

SE of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia

108
Q

SE of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, diplopia and ataxia

109
Q

SE of procainamide

A

Lupus-like syndrome

110
Q

SE of salicylates

A

Tinnitus, GI bleeding

111
Q

SE of these drugs include dependence, withdrawal syndrome, sedation, euphoria, respiratory depression nausea and vomiting, constipation, biliary spasm, increased ureteral and bladder tone, and reduction in uterine tone

A

Opioid Analgesics

112
Q

SE of Thiazolindinediones

A

Edema, mild anemia; interaction with drugs that undergo CytP450 3A4 metabolism; if used over one year, bladder Cancer; with CHF, may cause new or worsening CHF

113
Q

SE of tPA

A

Cerebral hemorrhage

114
Q

SE seen only in men with administration of ketoconazole

A

Gynecomastia

115
Q

Second generation sulfonylurea

A

Glyburide, glipizide, glimepiride, etc.

116
Q

Secondary amines that have less sedation and more excitation effect

A

Nortriptyline, Desipramine

117
Q

Sedation is a common side effect of these drugs, they lower seizure threshold, uses include BAD, acute panic attacks, phobias, enuresis, and chronic pain and their overdose can be deadly

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

118
Q

Sedative-Hypnotics action

A

Reduce inhibition, suppress anxiety, and produce relaxation

119
Q

Selective Alpha 1 blocker used for hypertension, BPH, may cause first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin

120
Q

Selective Alpha 2 blocker used for impotence (controversial effectiveness)

121
Q

Selective alpha agonists that decreases aqueous secretion

A

Apraclonidine, brimonidine

122
Q

Selective B1 Receptor blockers that may be useful in treating cardiac conditions in patients with asthma

A

Acebutolol, atenolol, esmolol, metoprolol

123
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used for prevention of osteoporosis and currently being tested for treatment of breast cancer (Stars study)

A

Raloxifene

124
Q

Selectivity of a drug for its receptor

A

Specificity

125
Q

Shock due to septicemia or myocardial infarction is made worse by

A

Increasing afterload and tissue perfusion declines

126
Q

Short acting Beta 2 agonists that is drug of choice in treatment of acute asthma but not recommended for prophylaxis

127
Q

Short acting GC’s

A

Cortisone and hydrocortisone (equivalent to cortisol)

128
Q

Side effect associated with ACEI but not ARBs

129
Q

Side effect of demeclocycline

A

Bone marrow and teeth discoloration for children under 8 years of age

130
Q

Side effect of Mitomycin

A

SEVERE myelosuppression

131
Q

Side effect of sotalol

A

prolongs QT and PR interval

132
Q

Side effect of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia hyperkalemia, and impotence

133
Q

Side effects occuring in antipsychotics that block dopamine

A

EPS, hyperprolactinemia, amennorrhea, galactorrhea, neuroleptic malignant syndrome

134
Q

Side effects of acetazolamide

A

Paresthesias, alkalization of the urine (which may ppt. Ca salts), hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, and encephalopathy in patients with hepatic impairment

135
Q

Side effects of loop (furosemide) diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and ototoxicity

136
Q

Side effects of thiazide (HCTZ) diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperlipidemia, and hyperglycemia

137
Q

Similar to clonidine and may cause hypotension

A

Tizanidine

138
Q

Site of action for zaleplon and zolpidem

A

Benzodiazepine receptor BZ1 (although are not considered benzodiazepines)

139
Q

Site of action of loop diuretics

A

Thick ascending limb

140
Q

Site of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Early distal convoluted tubule

141
Q

Slightly increased risk of breast cancer, endometrial cancer, heart disease (questionable), has beneficial effects on bone loss

142
Q

Somatostatin (SRIF) analog used for acromegaly, carcinoid, glucagonoma and other GH producing pituitary tumors

A

Octreotide

143
Q

Somatotropin (GH) analog used in GH deficiency (dwarfism)

144
Q

Some cell cycle non-specific drugs

A

Alkylating agents (eg., mechlorethamine, cyclophosphamide), antibiotics (doxorubicin, daunorubicin), cisplatin, nitrosourea

145
Q

Some cell cycle specific anti-cancer drugs

A

Bleomycin, vinca alkaloids, antimetabolites (eg., 5-FU, 6-MP, methotrexate, etoposide)

146
Q

Some of SSRIs’ therapeutic effects beside depression

A

Panic attacks, social phobias, bulimia nervosa, and PMDD premenstrual dysphoric disorder), OCD

147
Q

Some side effects of corticosteroids

A

Hyperglycemia, Osteopenia, impaired wound healing, inc. risk of infection, inc. appetite, HTN, edema, PUD, euphoria, psychosis

148
Q

Specific pharmacokinetic characteristic of amiodarone

A

Prolonged half-life, up to six weeks

149
Q

SSRI indicated for premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

Fluoxetine (Sarafem)

150
Q

SSRI with long T1/2 and can be administered once weekly for maintenance, not acute tx

A

Fluoxetine

151
Q

SSRI’s less likely to cause a withdrawal syndrome

A

Fluoxetine

152
Q

State of analgesia and amnesia produced when fentanyl is used with droperidol and nitrous oxide

A

Neuroleptanesthesia

153
Q

Strength of interaction between drug and its receptor

154
Q

Strong opioid agonists

A

Morphine, methadone, meperidine, and fentanyl

155
Q

Structurally related to acetylcholine, used to produce muscle paralysis in order to facilitate surgery or artifical ventilation. Full doses lead to respiratory paralysis and require ventilation

A

Neuromuscular blocking drugs

156
Q

Sulfonylurea NOT recommended for elderly because of very long half life

A

Chlorpropamide

157
Q

Syndrome of hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin usually caused by gastrinoma; it is associated with severe peptic ulceration and diarrhea

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

158
Q

Synthetic analog of ADH hormone used for diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

159
Q

System that increases in activity with chronic exposure and may contribute to tolerance

A

Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system MEOS

160
Q

Target plasma concentration times (volume of distribution divided by bioavailability)

A

Loading dose (Cp*(Vd/F))

161
Q

TCA used in chronic pain, a hypnotic, and has marked antimuscarinic effects

A

Amitriptyline

162
Q

TCA used in chronic pain, enuresis, and OCD

A

Imipramine

163
Q

TCA used in obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), most significant of TCA’s for risk of seizure, weight gain, and neuropsychiatric signs and symptoms

A

Clomipramine

164
Q

TCA with greatest sedation of this group, and marked antimuscarinic effects, used for sleep

165
Q

Technique used to diagnose perianal itching, and the drug used to treat it

A

Scotch tape technique and mebendazole

166
Q

THC is active ingredient, SE’s include impairment of judgment, and reflexes, decreases in blood pressure and psychomotor performance occur

167
Q

The elimination of drug that occurs before it reaches the systemic circulation

A

First pass effect

168
Q

The fraction of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation after administration

A

Bioavailability (F)

169
Q

The most common neurologic abnormality in chronic alcoholics

A

Peripheral neuropathy (also excessive alcohol use is associated with HTN, anemia, and MI)

170
Q

The most common type of drug interaction of sedative hypnotics with other depressant medications

A

Additive CNS depression

171
Q

The most important cause of acute deaths in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity

A

Respiratory failure

172
Q

The most important sign of withdrawal syndrome

A

Excessive CNS stimulation (seizures)

173
Q

The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its plasma concentration

A

Clearance (CL)

174
Q

The reason why aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infection

A

Potential for development of Reye’s syndrome

175
Q

The selective agents lose their selectivity at

A

high doses

176
Q

These agents are CNS depressants

A

Ethanol, Barbiturates, and Benzodiazepines

177
Q

These agents are congeners of Amphetamine

A

DOM, STP, MDA, and MDMA “ecstasy”

178
Q

These agents are used as antidiarrheal

A

Diphenoxylate, Loperamide

179
Q

These agents are used as antitussive

A

Dextromethorphan, Codeine

180
Q

These agents decrease blood flow or increase blood pressure, are local decongestant, and used in therapy of spinal shock (temporary maintenance of blood pressure which may help maintain perfusion)

A

Alpha1 agonists

181
Q

These agents increase blood flow and may be beneficial in treatment of acute heart failure and some types of shock

A

Beta1 agonists

182
Q

These beta blockers are less lipid soluble

A

Acebutolol and atenolol

183
Q

These Beta blockers decrease aqueous secretion

A

Timolol (nonselective), betaxolol (selective)

184
Q

These drugs strongly potentiate and prolong effect of neuromuscular blockade (NMB)

A

Inhaled anesthetics, especially isoflurane, aminoglycosides, and antiarrhythmic

185
Q

These LA’s have surface activity

A

Cocaine and benzocaine

186
Q

These prevent the action of Ach at the skeletal muscle endplate to produce a “surmountable blockade,” effect is reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors (ex. neostigmine or pyridostigmine)

A

Nondepolarizing type antagonists

187
Q

Thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone, Troglitazone (withdrawn/d from market)

188
Q

Thioamide agents used in hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU)

189
Q

Thioamide less likely to cross placenta, inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in high doses, and indicated for pregnant women in 1st trimester

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

190
Q

This agent cause increased aqueous outflow

A

Prostaglandin PGF2a (latanoprost, travoprost, unoprostone)

191
Q

This agent competes for phosphorylated cholinesterase enzyme and regenerates enzyme if organophosphate-enzymes complex has not “aged”

A

Pralidoxime

192
Q

This agent has greater affinity for muscarinic receptors and used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

193
Q

This agent may cause more severe, rapid and intense symptoms (abstinence syndrome) to a recovering addict

194
Q

This beta blocker is highly lipid soluble and may account for side effects such as nightmares

A

Propranolol

195
Q

This beta blocker is the longest acting

196
Q

This beta blocker lacks local anesthetic activity (decreases protective reflexes and increases the risk of corneal ulceration) and used in treating glaucoma

197
Q

This diuretic decreases aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3- ion. Causes drowsiness and paresthesias, alkalinization of the urine may precipitate calcium salts, hypokalemia, acidosis

A

Acetazolamide

198
Q

This is combined with L-dopa, inhibits DOPA decarboxylase (active only peripherally) which allows lower effective doses of L-dopa and allows for fewer SE’s (GI distress, postural hypotension, and dyskinesias)

199
Q

This is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

200
Q

This may antagonize activity of local anesthetics

A

Hypercalcemia

201
Q

This may enhance activity of local anesthetics

A

Hyperkalemia

202
Q

This parenteral beta blocker is a short acting

203
Q

This produces “dissociative anesthesia”, is a cardiovascular stimulant which may increases intracranial pressure, and hallucinations occur during recovery

204
Q

This route is associated with rapid tolerance and psychologic dependence

A

IV administration

205
Q

Three C’s associated with TCA toxicity

A

Coma, Convulsions, Cardiac problems (arrhythmias and wide QRS)

206
Q

Thrombolytic that can cause allergic reaction

A

Streptokinase

207
Q

Thrombolytic used for acute MI and ischemic (non hemorrhagic) CVA

A

Tissue plasmin activator

208
Q

Thrombolytics are used for

A

Pulmonary embolism and DVT

209
Q

Time it takes for amount of drug to fall to half of its value, constant in first order kinetics (majority of drugs)

A

Half-life (T1/2)

210
Q

Tolerance is marked and abstinence syndrome occurs

A

Amphetamines

211
Q

Tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except

A

Miosis, convulsions and constipation

212
Q

Topical DOC in impetigo

A

Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)

213
Q

Toxic effect of anticancer drug can be lessened by rescue agents

A

Rescue therapy

214
Q

Toxic to the liver, kidney, lungs, bone marrow, peripheral nerves, and cause brain damage in animals, sudden death has occurred following inhalation

A

Fluorocarbons and Industrial solvents

215
Q

Toxicities include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, leading to a severe interaction with aminoglycosides

216
Q

Toxicity caused by nitroprusside and treatment

A

Cyanide toxicity treated with sodium thiosulfate

217
Q

Toxicity of amphotericin

A

Nephrotoxicity

218
Q

Toxicity of anticholinergics

A

Anti-DUMBBELSS

219
Q

Toxicity of cholinergics

A

DUMBELSS (diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchoconstriction, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, salivation, and sweating)

220
Q

Toxicity of these agents include bradycardia, AV blockade, exacerbation of acute CHF, signs of hypoglycemia may be masked (tachycardia, tremor, and anxiety)

A

Beta blockers

221
Q

Treat manifestations of Parkinson’s disease and EPS

A

Benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

222
Q

Treatment for opioid addiction

A

Methadone, followed by slow dose reduction

223
Q

Treatment for TB patients (think RIPE)

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol

224
Q

Treatment of atropine overdose and glaucoma (because lipid soluable). Enters the CNS rapidly and has a stimulant effect, which may lead to convulsions

A

Physostigmine

225
Q

Treatment of motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

226
Q

Treatment of muscarinic symptoms in organophosphate overdose

227
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis and sometimes used prophylactically for organophosphate poisoning in chemical warfare

A

Pyridostigmine

228
Q

Treatment of patients with prior episodes of thrombocytopenia after a cycle of cancer chemotherapy

A

Interleukin 11 (oprelvekin)

229
Q

Treatment of resistant pseudomembranous colitis

A

ORAL vancomycin

230
Q

Treatment of withdrawal syndrome involves

A

Long-acting sedative-hypnotic or a gradual reduction of dose, clonidine or propranolol

231
Q

Treatment with cancer chemotherapy at high doses every 3-4 weeks, too toxic to be used continuously

A

Pulse therapy

232
Q

Treatments available for nicotine addiction

A

Patches, gum, nasal spray, psychotherapy, and bupropion

233
Q

Triptan available in parenteral and nasal formulation

A

Sumatriptan

234
Q

Tubocurarine is the prototype, pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium are newer short acting agent, produce competitive block at end plate nicotinic receptor, causing flaccid paralysis

A

Nondepolarizing Neuromuscular Blockers

235
Q

Two toxicities of aminoglycosides

A

nephro and ototoxicity

236
Q

Type of resistance found with vancomycin

A

Point mutation

237
Q

Ultra long acting insulin, has over a day duration of action

A

Glargine (Lantus)

238
Q

Unicyclic antidepressant least likely to affect sexual performance, used for management of nicotine withdrawal, SE’s include dizziness, dry mouth, aggravation of psychosis, and seizures

239
Q

Use of this opioid with MAOI can lead to hyperpyrexic coma, and with SSRI’s can lead to serotonin syndrome

A

Meperidine

240
Q

Used especially in postmenopausal women, dosage should be 1500 mg

241
Q

Used for Addison’s disease, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH), inflammation, allergies, and asthma (as a local inhalation)

A

Glucocorticoids

242
Q

Used for Cushing’s syndrome (increased corticosteroid) and sometimes for adrenal function test

A

Metyrapone

243
Q

Used for hairy cell leukemia; it stimulates NK cells

A

Interferon alpha

244
Q

Used for prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis in women

A

Calcium reguators Bisphosphonates: alendronate, risedronate, ibandronate, Estrogen (HRT-Hormone replacement therapy)

245
Q

Used for the symptomatic treatment of thyrotoxicosis by blocking cardiac adverse effects

A

Beta-blockers such as propranolol and esmolol

246
Q

Used in pediatrics to maintain patency of ductus arteriosis

A

PGE1 (Alprostadil)

247
Q

Used intranasally and decreases bone resorption

A

Calcitonin (salmon prep)

248
Q

Used intravenously for acute arrhythmias during surgery

249
Q

Uses of bisphosphonates

A

Osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, and osteolytic bone lesions, and hypercalcemia from malignancy

250
Q

Usual time needed for full effect of antidepressant therapy

A

2 to 3 weeks

251
Q

Vancomycin MOA

A

Binds D-Ala-D-Ala on murein monomers and prevent polymerization of the murein monomers

252
Q

Very rapid acting insulin, having fastest onset and shortest duration of action

A

Lispro (Humalog)/Apidra (glulisine)

253
Q

Vitamin given with calcium to ensure proper absorption

254
Q

Vitamin K dependent anticoagulant

A

Warfarin (PT)

255
Q

W/D from this drug causes anxiety and mental discomfort

256
Q

Warfarin is contraindicated in

257
Q

Weak opioid agonist, poor analgesic, its overdose can cause severe toxicity including respiratory depression, circulatory collapse, pulmonary edema, and seizures

A

Propoxyphene

258
Q

Well-tolerated and are first-line antidepressants

A

SSRI’s, bupropion, and venlafaxine

259
Q

When the rate of drug input equals the rate of drug elimination

A

Steady state

260
Q

Window between therapeutic effect and toxic effect

A

Therapeutic index

261
Q

Withdrawal from this drug causes lethargy, irritability, and headache

Pharm one liner (3 decks)

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