Pharm one liner I Flashcards

1
Q

Agent that is a partial agonist for the 5-HT1A receptor

A

Buspirone

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2
Q

Alpha agonist used to produce mydriasis and reduce conjunctival itching and congestion caused by irritation or allergy, it does not cause cycloplegia

A

Phenylephrine

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3
Q

Atropine fever is the most dangerous effect and can be lethal in this population group

A

Infants

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4
Q

Prolonged exposure to this inhaled anesthetic may lead to megaloblastic anemia

A

Nitrous oxide

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5
Q

“Date rape drug”

A

Flunitrazepam (rohypnol)

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6
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating

A

Diphendydramine

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7
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is least sedating

A

Chlorpheniramine

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8
Q

2nd generation antihistamines

A

Fexofenadine, loratadine, and cetirizine

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9
Q

3 zones of adrenal cortex and their products

A

Glomerulosa (mineralocorticoids), fasciculata (glucocorticoid=GC), and reticularis (adrenal androgens)

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10
Q

5 alpha-reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride (Proscar and Propecia respectively)

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11
Q

5HT-1D/1B agonist used for migraine headaches

A

Sumatriptan, naratriptan, and rizatriptan

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12
Q

5ht-3 antagonist that has been MOST associated with QRS and QTc prolongation and should not be used in patients with heart disease

A

Dolasetron

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13
Q

5HT-3 antagonist used in chemotherapeutic induced emesis

A

Ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron and palonosetron

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14
Q

5HT2 antagonist mediate synaptic excitation in the CNS and smooth muscle contraction

A

Ketanserin, cyproheptadine, and ergot alkaloids (partial agonist of alpha and serotonin receptors)

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15
Q

A class of endogenous substances that include histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, and vasoactive peptides that work in autocrine or paracrine manner

A

Autacoids

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16
Q

A1a-selective blocker used for BPH

A

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

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17
Q

Ability of a drug to produce maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Full agonist

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18
Q

Ability of drug to produce the maximal biologic effect

A

Efficacy

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19
Q

Ability to bind irreversibly to the active site or bind to a site distinctly separate from the agonist binding site

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

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20
Q

Ability to bind reversibly to the same site as the drug and without activating the effector system

A

Competitive antagonist

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21
Q

Ability to produce less than maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Partial agonist

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22
Q

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

pregnancy and with hyperkalemia

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23
Q

Acetaminophen only has what activity?

A

Antipyretic and analgesic activity

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24
Q

ACTH analog used for diagnosis of patients with corticosteroid abnormality

A

Cosyntropin

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25
Q

Activation of these receptors close Ca2+ ion channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release and pain transmission

A

Presynaptic mu, delta, and kappa receptors

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26
Q

Activation of these receptors open K+ ion channels to cause membrane hyperpolarization

A

Postsynaptic Mu receptors

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27
Q

Additive effects when Sedative-Hypnotics used in combination with these agents

A

CNS depressants

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28
Q

Adenosine’s MOA

A

Activates acetylcholine sensitive K+ channels in SA and AV node

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29
Q

ADH agonist used for central diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

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30
Q

Agent can blocking muscarinic receptors

A

Pancuronium

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31
Q

Agent decreases the excitatory actions of cholinergic neurons. May improve tremor and rigidity but have LITTLE effect on bradykinesia. Atropine-like side effects

A

Benztropine

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32
Q

Agent effective in physiologic and essential tremor

A

Propranolol

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33
Q

Agent for pernicious anemia

A

Cyanocobalamin (Vit B12)

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34
Q

Agent more frequently associated with extrapyramidal side effects that can be treated with benzodiazepine, diphenhydramine or muscarinic blocker

A

Haloperidol

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35
Q

Agent of choice for the treatment of hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

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36
Q

Agent similar to cisplatin, less nephrotoxic, but greater myelosuppression

A

Carboplatin

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37
Q

Agent that competes for alcohol dehydrogenase in the case of methanol overdose

A

Ethanol

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38
Q

Agent that inhibits hepatic metabolism, is hepatotoxic and teratogen that can cause neural tube defects and gastrointestinal distress

A

Valproic acid

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39
Q

Agent that inhibits xanthine oxidases and used to treat chronic gout

A

Allopurinol, febuxostat

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40
Q

Agent that is metabolized to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase and microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

A

Ethanol

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41
Q

Agent that is teratogen and causes a fetal syndrome

A

Alcohol

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42
Q

Agent to treat hypochromic microcytic anemias

A

Ferrous sulfate

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43
Q

Agent to treat torsades de pointes

A

Magnesium sulfate

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44
Q

Agent undergoing Hofmann elimination (breaking down spontaneously)

A

Atracurium

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45
Q

Agent used for acute muscle spasm

A

Cyclobenzaprine

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46
Q

Agent used for anemias associated with renal failure

A

Erythropoietin

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47
Q

Agent used for closure of patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

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48
Q

Agent used for megaloblastic anemia (but does NOT reverse neurologic symptoms) and decrease neural tube defects during pregnancy

A

Folic acid

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49
Q

Agent used for neurological deficits in megaloblastic anemia

A

Vitamin B12

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50
Q

Agent used in acutely decompensated CHF resembling natriuretic peptide

A

Nesiritide (Natrecor)

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51
Q

Agent used in CHF that is a selective alpha and nonselective beta blocker

A

Carvedilol

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52
Q

Agent used in drug therapy of Parkinson’s instead of Dopamine which has low bioavailability and does not cross the BBB

A

L-dopa

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53
Q

Agent used in the treatment of alcoholism, if alcohol is consumed concurrently, acetaldehyde builds up and results in nausea, headache, flushing, and hypotension

A

Disulfiram

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54
Q

Agent used neutropenia especially after chemotherapy

A

G-CSF (filgrastim) and GM-CSF (sargramostim)

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55
Q

Agent used to treat chronic gout by increasing uric acid excretion through inhibition of URAT1 anion transporter

A

Probenecid

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56
Q

Agent used to treat MI and to reduce incidence of subsequent MI

A

Aspirin

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57
Q

Agent with zero-order kinetics

A

Ethanol, theophylline, tolbutamide, warfarin, aspirin, phenytoin

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58
Q

Agent with greater affinity to 5HT2A receptor; reserved for refractory schizophrenia, and can cause weight gain and agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

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59
Q

Agent with long duration of action and is sost likely to cause histamine release

A

Tubocurarine

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60
Q

Agents acting in the CNS or in the skeletal muscle, used to reduce abnormally elevated tone caused by neurologic or muscle end plate disease

A

Spasmolytic drugs

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61
Q

Agents for reduction of postpartum bleeding

A

Oxytocin and ergonovine

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62
Q

Agents having active metabolites, long half lives, and a high incidence of adverse effects

A

Diazepam, Flurazepam, chlordiazepoxide, and clorazepate

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63
Q

Agents having higher sedation and antimuscarinic effects than other TCA’s

A

Tertiary amines

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64
Q

Agents may exacerbate tardive dyskinesias (may be irreversible and there is no treatment)

A

Muscarinic blockers

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65
Q

Agents that inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase

A

Disulfiram, metronidazole, certain sulfonylureas and cephalosporins

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66
Q

Agents used for SIADH

A

Tolvaptan and conivaptan

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67
Q

Agents used in Huntington’s Disease

A

Tetrabenazine (amine depleting drug), Haloperidol (antipsychotic)

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68
Q

Agents used in Tourette’s dx

A

Haloperidol or pimozide

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69
Q

Agents used in treatment of carcinoid tumor

A

Cyproheptadine

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70
Q

Alkylating agent that produces disulfiram-like reaction with ethanol

A

Procarbazine

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71
Q

Alkylating agent, vesicant that causes tissue damage with extravasation

A

Mechlorethamine

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72
Q

All antidepressants have roughly the same efficacy in treating depression, agents are chosen based on these criterion

A

Side-effect profile and prior pt response

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73
Q

All opioids except this agent (which has a muscarinic blocking action) cause pupillary constriction

A

Meperidine

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74
Q

Almost all local anesthetics have this property and sometimes require the administration of vasoconstrictors (ex. Epinephrine) to prolong activity

A

Vasodilation

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75
Q

Alpha 1 agonist toxicity

A

Hypertension

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76
Q

Alpha 1selective blockers

A

Prazosin, terazosin and doxazosin (-AZOSIN ending)

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77
Q

Alpha cells in the pancreas

A

Produce glucagon

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78
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor associated with elevation of LFT’s

A

Acarbose

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79
Q

Alternative anticoagulant used if HIT develops

A

Lepirudin

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80
Q

Amino acid derivative for treatment of Type II diabetes

A

Nateglinide

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81
Q

Aminoglycoside that is least ototoxic

A

Streptomycin

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82
Q

Aminoglycosides used with loop diuretics potentiate this adverse effect

A

Ototoxicity

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83
Q

Amount of drug necessary to elicit a biologic effect compared with another drug

A

Potency

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84
Q

Amphetamine agents

A

Dextroamphetamines and methamphetamine

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85
Q

An early generation tetracyclin that may be used for chronic persistant SIADH

A

demeclocycline

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86
Q

An electrolyte that is lost in the urine by acute treatment with loop diuretics but can be retained by thiazides

A

Calcium

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87
Q

An isomer of T3 which may be used in myxedema coma

A

Liothyronine (T3)

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88
Q

Anabolic steroid that has potential for abuse

A

Nandrolone and stanozolol

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89
Q

Analog of hypoxanthine, needs HGPRTase for activation

A

6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)

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90
Q

Anemia caused by trimethoprim

A

Megaloblastic anemia

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91
Q

Another pneumonic for anticholinergic toxicity

A

“dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, blind as a bat”

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92
Q

Anti-androgen used for hirsutism in females

A

Cyproterone acetate

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93
Q

Anti-androgen used for prostate cancer

A

Flutamide (Eulexin)

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94
Q

Anti-arrhythmic with <10 second duration of action

A

Adenosine

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95
Q

Anti-arrhythmics that decrease mortality

A

B-blockers

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96
Q

Anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients

A

Sulfonamides

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97
Q

Anti-emetics used in association with anti-cancer drugs that are 5-HT3 (serotonin receptor subtype ) antagonist

A

Odansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, palonosetron

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98
Q

Anti-estrogen used for estrogen receptor + breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

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99
Q

Anti-malarial drug used in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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100
Q

Anti-Parkinson’s drug which increases intraocular pressure and is contraindicated in closed angle glaucoma

A

Levodopa

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101
Q

Anti-progesterone used as abortifacient

A

Mifepristone (RU-486)

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102
Q

Anti-psychotics available in depot preparation

A

Fluphenazine and haloperidol

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103
Q

Anti-psychotics shown not to cause tardive dyskinesia

A

Clozapine and quetiapine

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104
Q

Anti-rheumatic agent also used for ulcerative colitis

A

Sulfasalazine

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105
Q

Anti-seizure agent that exhibits non-linear metabolism, highly protein bound, causes fetal hydantoin syndrome, and stimulates hepatic metabolism

A

Phenytoin

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106
Q

Anti-seizure agent that induces formation of liver drug-metabolism enzymes, is teratogen and can cause craniofacial anomalies and spina bifida

A

Carbamazepine

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107
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for bipolar affective disorder (BAD)

A

Valproic acid, carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin

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108
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for pain of neuropathic orgin

A

Gabapentin

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109
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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110
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used as alternative drugs for mood stabilization

A

Carbamazepine, gabapentin, lamotrigine, and valproic acid

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111
Q

Anti-seizure medication also used in the prevention of migraines

A

Valproic acid

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112
Q

Anti-thyroid drugs

A

Thioamides (methimazole, propylthiouracil), potassium iodide, radioactive iodine (131I)

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113
Q

Anti-viral agents associated with Stephen Johnson syndrome

A

Nevirapine, amprenavir

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114
Q

Anti-viral with a dose limiting toxicity of pancreatitis

A

Didanosine

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115
Q

Antiarrhythmic effective in most types of arrhythmia

A

Amiodarone

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116
Q

Antiarrhythmic that exhibits Class II and III properties

A

Sotalol

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117
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute pyelonephritis

A

Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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118
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

Nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, fosfomycin

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119
Q

Antibiotic causing red-man syndrome, and prevention

A

Vancomycin, can be prevented by infusion at a slow rate and antihistamines

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120
Q

Anticancer drug also used in RA, produces acrolein in urine that leads to hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

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121
Q

Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy

A

Heparin

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122
Q

Antidepressant also used for sleep that causes priapism

A

Trazodone

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123
Q

Antidepressant associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Amoxapine

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124
Q

Antidepressant associated with seizures and cardiotoxicity

A

Maprotiline

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125
Q

Antidepressant having stimulant effects similar to SSRI’s and can increase blood pressure

A

Venlafaxine

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126
Q

Antidepressant inhibiting norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine reuptake

A

Venlafaxine

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127
Q

Antidepressant which is inhibitor of CYP450 enzymes and may be associated with hepatic failure

A

Nefazodone

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128
Q

Antidepressant with MOA as alpha 2 antagonist, has effects on both 5-HT and NE, blocks histamine receptors, and is sedating

A

Mirtazapine

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129
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen toxicity

A

N-acetylcysteine

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130
Q

Antidote for arsenic, mercury, and gold poisoning

A

Dimercaprol

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131
Q

Antidote for beta-blocker overdose and hypoglycemia

A

Glucagon

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132
Q

Antidote for digoxin toxicity

A

Digibind

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133
Q

Antidote for hyperkalemia

A

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

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134
Q

Antidote for methotrexate toxicity

A

Leucovorin

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135
Q

Antidote for severe CV toxicity of theophylline

A

Beta blockers

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136
Q

Antidote for severe lead poisoning (with encephalopathy)

A

Dimercaprol AND CaEDTA (edetate calcium disodium)

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137
Q

Antidote for thrombolytics

A

Aminocaproic acid

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138
Q

Antidote for tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), streptokinase

A

Aminocaproic acid

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139
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose (antagonist that reverses the CNS effects)

A

Flumazenil

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140
Q

Antidote to reverse actions of heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

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141
Q

Antidote to reverse actions of warfarin

A

Vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma

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142
Q

Antidote used for acetaminophen (APAP) toxicity

A

N-acetylcysteine

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143
Q

Antidote used for anticholinergic poisoning

A

Physostigmine

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144
Q

Antidote used for benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Flumazenil

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145
Q

Antidote used for beta agonist toxicity (eg. Metaproterenol)

A

Esmolol

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146
Q

Antidote used for carbon monoxide poisoning

A

100% O2 and hyperbaric O2

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147
Q

Antidote used for cyanide poisoning

A

Nitrites, sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin (cyanokit)

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148
Q

Antidote used for digitalis toxicity

A

Digibind (also need to d/c digoxin, normalize K+, and lidocaine if pt. Is arrhythmic)

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149
Q

Antidote used for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine Sulfate

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150
Q

Antidote used for iron salt toxicity

A

Deferoxamine

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151
Q

Antidote used for lead poisoning (without encephalopathy)

A

Dimercaprol, Edetate calcium disodium, or succimer

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152
Q

Antidote used for methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity

A

Ethanol

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153
Q

Antidote used for opioid toxicity

A

Naloxone (IV), naltrexone (PO)

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154
Q

Antidote used for organophosphate/anticholinesterase poisoning

A

Atropine, pralidoxime (2-PAM)

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155
Q

Antidote used for tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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156
Q

Antidote used for warfarin toxicity

A

Vitamin K and Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

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157
Q

Antidote used in Wilson’s disease (copper poisoning)

A

Penicillamine

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158
Q

Antidote useful for some drug induced Torsade de pointes

A

Magnesium sulfate

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159
Q

Antiestrogen drugs used for fertility and breast cancer respectively

A

Clomiphene and tamoxifen

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160
Q

Antifungal agent used for inhibition of all gonadal and adrenal steroids

A

Ketoconazole

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161
Q

Antiglaucoma organophosphate, indicated but not used much clinically anymore due to long duration of action

A

Echothiophate

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162
Q

Antihistamine that is indicated for allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia

A

Diphenhydramine

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163
Q

Antiplatelet drug reserved for patients allergic to aspirin

A

Ticlopidine

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164
Q

Antiprogestin used as potent antagonist of GC receptor

A

Mifepristone

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165
Q

Antipsychotic having the weakest autonomic effects

A

Haloperidol

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166
Q

Antipsychotics having the strongest autonomic effects

A

Chlorpromazine or Thioridazine

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167
Q

Antipsychotics that reduce positive symptoms only

A

Older antipsychotics

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168
Q

Antipsychotics, reserpine at high doses, and MPTP (by-product of illicit meperidine analog) and is irreversible

A

Drug induced Parkinsonism

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169
Q

Antivirals associated with neutropenia

A

Ganciclovir, zidovudine, saquinavir, and interferon

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170
Q

Antivirals that are teratogens

A

Delavirdine, efavirenz, and ribavirin

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171
Q

Approved for use in severe pulmonary HTN

A

PGI2 (epoprostenol)

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172
Q

Arterial vasodilator that works by opening K+ channels

A

Minoxidil

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173
Q

Aspirin reduces mortality in unstable angina by

A

Platelet aggregation inhibition

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174
Q

Atypical antipsychotic causing high prolactin levels

A

Risperidone

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175
Q

Available bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate, etidronate, risedronate, pamidronate, tiludronate, and zoledronic acid

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176
Q

Barbiturate used for the induction of anesthesia

A

Thiopental

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177
Q

Barbiturates decrease the effectiveness of many other drugs via this pharmacokinetics property

A

Liver enzyme INDUCTION

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178
Q

Barbiturates may precipitate this hematologic condition

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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179
Q

Barbiturates MOA

A

Increase the DURATION of GABA-mediated chloride ion channels

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180
Q

Barbiturates, phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampin all do this

A

Induce CYP450

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181
Q

Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, it accelerates recovery from benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

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182
Q

Benzodiazepine that has efficacy against absence seizures and in anxiety states, such as agoraphobia

A

Clonazepam

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183
Q

Benzodiazepine that is used for anesthesia

A

Midazolam

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184
Q

Benzodiazepine that undergo extrahepatic conjugation (which are useful in older or hepatically impaired)

A

Lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam

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185
Q

Benzodiazepine used adjunctively in anesthesia

A

Midazolam

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186
Q

Benzodiazepine with useful relaxant effects in skeletal muscle spasticity of central origin

A

Diazepam

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187
Q

Benzodiazepines that are the most effective in the treatment of panic disorder

A

Alprazolam and Clonazepam

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188
Q

Beta 1 agonist toxicity

A

Sinus tachycardia and serious arrhythmias

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189
Q

Beta 1 agonists used in acute CHF

A

Dobutamine and dopamine

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190
Q

Beta 2 agonist toxicity

A

Skeletal muscle tremor

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191
Q

Beta 2 agonist used to suppress premature labor, but cardiac stimulatory effects may be hazardous to mother and fetus

A

Terbutaline

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192
Q

Beta blockers are used for which type of anginal attack

A

Classic

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193
Q

Beta blockers partial agonist activity (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity) cause some bronchodilation and may have an advantage in treating patients with asthma

A

Pindolol and acebutolol

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194
Q

Beta blockers work in CHF by

A

Reducing progression of heart failure (never use in acute heart failure)

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195
Q

Beta cells are found

A

Islets of Langerhans

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196
Q

Beta cells in the pancreas

A

Produce insulin

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197
Q

Beta-blockers should be used cautiously in

A

Asthma (bronchospastic effects), diabetes (block signs of hypoglycemia) and peripheral vascular disease

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198
Q

Biguanide

A

Metformin

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199
Q

Binds tubulin and prevents the disassembly of microtubules during the M phase of the cell cycle inducing mitotic arrest

A

Paclitaxel (taxol)

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200
Q

Bisphosphonates that cannot be used on continuous basis because it caused osteomalacia

A

Etidronate

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201
Q

Block glycoprotein IIb/IIIa involved in platelet cross-linking

A

Abciximab, tirofiban and eptifibatide

202
Q

Block L-type calcium channel

A

Calcium channel blockers

203
Q

Blows DNA (breaks DNA strands), limiting SE is pulmonary fibrosis

204
Q

Bronchodilation in asthma and COPD

A

Ipratropium, tiotropium

205
Q

Can be effective for short term therapy of thyroid storm, but after several weeks of therapy causes an exacerbation of hyperthyroidism

A

Iodide salts (potassium iodide)

206
Q

Captopril and enalapril (-OPRIL ending) are

A

ACE inhibitors

207
Q

Carbamate with intermediate action and used as off-label for postoperative paralytic ileus and urinary retention

A

Neostigmine

208
Q

Carbamazepine may cause

A

Agranulocytosis

209
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

Acetazolamide

210
Q

Cardioselective Beta 1-blockers

A

Atenolol, acebutolol, and metoprolol

211
Q

Cause dizziness, tachycardia, hypotension, and flushing

A

Organic nitrites

212
Q

Causes acne, premature closure of epiphyses, masculinization in females, hepatic dysfunction, MI, and increases in libido and aggression

213
Q

Causes bone marrow suppression

A

Methotrexate

214
Q

CCB are DOC for

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

215
Q

CCB with predominate effect on arteriole dilation

A

Nifedipine

216
Q

Cephalosporin causes kernicterus in neonates

A

Ceftriaxone or cefuroxime

217
Q

Cephalosporins able to cross the BBB

A

Cefixime (2nd) and 3rd generation

218
Q

Cheap wide spectrum antibiotic DOC of otitis media

A

Amoxicillin

219
Q

Chelating agent used in acute iron toxicity

A

Deferoxamine

220
Q

Chelating agent used in Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

221
Q

Cholestyramine and colestipol are

A

Bile acid-binding resins

222
Q

Cholinomimetics that increase outflow, open trabecular meshwork, and cause ciliary muscle contraction

A

Pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine

223
Q

Chronic high dose abuse of nicotine leads to

A

Psychotic state, overdose causes agitation, restlessness, tachycardia, hyperthermia, hyperreflexia, and seizures

224
Q

Chronic orthostatic hypotension can be treated with

225
Q

Cimetidine, ketoconazole, isoniazid, and grapefruit all do this

A

Inhibit CYP450

226
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics are

A

B-blockers

227
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic that exhibits properties of all 4 classes

A

Amiodarone

228
Q

Class of anti-arrhythmics that has a pro-arrhythmic effect (CAST trial), therefore are used as last line agents

A

Class IC (flecainide, propafenone, moricizine)

229
Q

Class of antibiotics that have 10% cross sensitivity with penicillins

A

Cephalosporins

230
Q

Class of drugs that may cause cross-sensitivity with thiazide diuretics

A

Sulfonamides

231
Q

Class of drugs that reversibly inhibit COX

232
Q

Class of drugs that works by inhibiting absorption of intestinal cholesterol and can be given concurrently with the Statins

A

Ezetimibe (Zetia)

233
Q

Clinical response that may fluctuate in tx of Parkinson’s dx

A

“On-off-phenomenon”

234
Q

Clinical use for H2 blockers

A

Acid reflux disease, duodenal ulcer and peptic ulcer disease

235
Q

Clinical uses of these agents include treatment of HTN, angina, arrhythmias, and chronic CHF

A

Beta blockers

236
Q

Combined alpha and beta blocking agents that may have application in treatment of CHF

A

Labetalol and carvedilol

237
Q

Common mechanism by which overdose result in death

A

Depression of medullary and cardiovascular centers

238
Q

Common SE of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia and hyperkalemia

239
Q

Common SE of sulfonylureas, repaglinide, and nateglinide

A

Hypoglycemia

240
Q

Common SE of tamoxifen and raloxifene

A

Hot flashes

241
Q

Common side effect of hypnotic agents

242
Q

Common side effect of Rifampin

A

Orange urine discoloration

243
Q

Common toxicities of cisplatin

A

Nephro and ototoxicity

244
Q

Commonly abused LA which has cardiovascular toxicity including severe hypertension with cerebral hemorrhage, cardiac arrhythmias, and myocardial infarction

245
Q

Concentration in the plasma times (clearance divided by bioavailability)

A

Maintenance dose (Cp*(CL/F))

246
Q

Concurrent use of fibrates and statins increases risk of

A

Rhabdomyolysis

247
Q

Condition will result from in combination of MAOI with tyramine containing foods (ex. wine, cheese, and pickled meats)

A

Hypertensive crisis

248
Q

Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time

A

Zero order kinetics

249
Q

Constant low dose of estrogen and increasing dose of progestin for 21 days (last 5 days are sugar pills or iron prep)

A

Combination oral contraceptives (OC)

250
Q

Constant percentage of drug metabolized per unit time

A

First order kinetics

251
Q

Constant proportion of cell population killed rather than a constant number

A

Log-kill hypothesis

252
Q

Contraindications to use of atropine

A

Infants, closed angle glaucoma, prostatic hypertrophy

253
Q

Converted to more active form DHT by 5 alpha-reductase

A

Testosterone

254
Q

Converts asparagine to aspartate and ammonia, denies cancer cells of essential AA (asparagine)

A

L-asparaginase

255
Q

COX 2 inhibitors may have reduced risk of

A

Gastric ulcers and GI Bleeding

256
Q

COX 2 inhibitors should be used cautiously in pts with

A

Pre-existing cardiac or renal disease

257
Q

Cutaneous flush due to niacin can be reduced by pretreatment with

258
Q

Cystitis, postoperative bladder spasms, or incontinence

A

Oxybutynin, dicyclomine

259
Q

Decrease intestinal absorption of cholesterol

A

Bile acid-binding resins

260
Q

Decreases liver triglycerol synthesis

261
Q

Delta cells in the pancreas

A

Produce Somatostatin

262
Q

Difference between aspirin and other NSAIDS

A

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase

263
Q

Difference between COX1 and COX2

A

COX 1 is constitutive while COX 2 may be induced during inflammation, although COX 2 is constitutive in some tissues

264
Q

Different steps of Phase I

A

Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

265
Q

Digoxin is used in

A

Atrial fibrillation and CHF

266
Q

Digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by

A

Hypokalemia

267
Q

Direct vasodilator of arteriolar smooth muscle

A

Hydralazine

268
Q

Disease caused by excess ergot alkaloids

A

St. Anthony’s Fire

269
Q

Distribution of histamine receptors H1, H2, and H3

A

Smooth muscle and mast cells; stomach, heart, and mast cells; nerve endings, CNS respectively

270
Q

Diuretic used as first line for treatment of hypertension

271
Q

Diuretic used as prophylactic for mountain sickness and glaucoma

A

Acetazolamide

272
Q

Diuretic used in hypertensive patients with renal failure

A

Loop diuretics (furosemide, ethacrynic acid, butmetanide)

273
Q

Diuretic used to antagonize aldosterone receptors

A

Spironolactone

274
Q

Diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure

275
Q

Diuretic used to treat primary aldosteronism

A

Spironolactone, eplerenone

276
Q

Diuretics work in CHF by

A

Reducing preload

277
Q

DMARDs are slow acting drugs for

A

Rheumatic disease

278
Q

DOC for bipolar affective disorder

279
Q

DOC for CMV retinitis

A

Ganciclovir

280
Q

DOC for digoxin induced arrhythmias

281
Q

DOC for febrile seizures

A

Phenobarbital

282
Q

DOC for giardia, bacterial vaginosis, pseudomembranous colitis, and trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

283
Q

DOC for herpes and its MOA

A

Acyclovir; activates thymidine kinase

284
Q

DOC for influenza A and B

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

285
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia by acting on the sarcoplasmic reticulum or skeletal muscle

A

Dantrolene

286
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia that may be caused by use of halogenated anesthetics

A

Dantrolene

287
Q

DOC for management of acute Ventricular arrhythmias

288
Q

DOC for N. gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

289
Q

DOC for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

290
Q

DOC for RSV

291
Q

DOC for status epilepticus

292
Q

Dopamine agonist used in hyperprolactinemia

A

Bromocriptine

293
Q

Dose which is lethal to 50% of the population

294
Q

Dose which is toxic in 50% of the population

295
Q

Dose which produces therapeutic response in 50% of the poopulation

296
Q

Drug causes teeth discoloration

A

Tetracycline

297
Q

Drug causing depletion of substance P (vasodilator)

298
Q

Drug increases the renal clearance hence decreases levels of lithium

A

Theophylline

299
Q

Drug notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

300
Q

Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder, NOT effective in acute anxiety

301
Q

Drug of choice for Legionnaires’ disease

A

Azithromycin (or macrolides)

302
Q

Drug of choice for leprosy

303
Q

Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid

304
Q

Drug of choice for tx of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Metronidazole

305
Q

Drug that causes contraction of the uterus

306
Q

Drug that causes gray baby syndrome and aplastic anemia

A

Chloramphenicol

307
Q

Drug that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and is used in ethylene glycol exposure

A

Fomepizole

308
Q

Drug that selectively inhibits COX 2

309
Q

Drug used concurrently with toxic anticancer agents to reduce renal precipitation of urates

A

Allopurinol

310
Q

Drug used for African sleeping sickness

311
Q

Drug used for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

312
Q

Drug used in cancer therapy causes Cushing-like symptoms

A

Prednisone

313
Q

Drug used in Chagas disease

A

Nifurtimox

314
Q

Drug used in ergot alkaloids overdose, ischemia and gangrene

A

Nitroprusside

315
Q

Drug used in exoerythrocytic cycle of malaria

A

Primaquine

316
Q

Drug used in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene

317
Q

Drug used supraventricular arrhythmias

318
Q

Drugs available in combination with metformin

A

Acroplus Met progutazone and metformin, Janumet and Janumet XR Sitagliptin and Metformin, Glyburide, glipizide, and rosiglitazone

319
Q

Drugs of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide and valproic acid

320
Q

Drugs of choice for generalized tonic-clonic and partial seizures

A

Valproic acid, Phenytoin and Carbamazepine

321
Q

Drugs of choice for status epilepticus

A

IV diazepam (or lorazapam) followed by phenytoin

322
Q

Drugs that can be used for infantile spasms

A

Corticosteroids

323
Q

Drugs that have a high margin of safety is indicated by

A

High therapeutic index

324
Q

Drugs that have a narrow margin of safety is indicated by

A

Low therapeutic index

325
Q

Drugs used in the management of angina

A

Aspirin, Nitrates, CCB, and Beta blockers

326
Q

During Phase I these agents worsen the paralysis by succinylcholine, but during phase II they reverse the blockade produced by succinylcholine

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

327
Q

Effective in preventing TIA’s

A

Clopidogrel and ticlopidine

328
Q

Endogenous insulin

A

Normal C-peptide

329
Q

Enhances dopaminergic neurotransmission SE’s include CNS excitation, acute toxic psychosis and livedo reticularis

A

Amantadine

330
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes acetaldehyde to acetate

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

331
Q

Enzyme which theophylline inhibits

A

Phosphodiesterase

332
Q

Epinephrine and dipivefrin are used for

333
Q

Ergot alkaloid that is a partial agonist at D2 receptors in the brain, used for patients who are refractory or cannot tolerate levodopa, causes erythromelalgia

A

Bromocriptine

334
Q

Ergot alkaloid used as an illicit drug

335
Q

Estrogen mostly used in oral contraceptives (OC)

A

Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol

336
Q

Example of three antidepressants that are indicated for obsessive compulsive disorder

A

Clomipramine, fluoxetine and fluvoxamine

337
Q

Examples of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (AGI)

A

Acarbose, miglitol

338
Q

Except for these agents all SSRI have significant inhibition of CytP450 enzymes

A

Citalopram and its metabolite escitalopram

339
Q

Extrapyramidal dysfunction is more common with these agents, which block this subtype of dopamine receptor

A

Older antipsychotic agents, D2 receptors

340
Q

Facilitates GABA presynaptic inhibition

341
Q

Fibrates (gemfibrozil) increase activity of

A

Lipoprotein lipase

342
Q

Fibrates are contraindicated in

343
Q

First generation sulfonylurea

A

Chlorpropamide, tolbutamide, tolazamide, etc.

344
Q

Fluoride released by metabolism of this inhaled anesthetic may cause renal insufficiency

A

Methoxyflurane

345
Q

For rebound HTN from rapid clonidine withdrawal

A

Phentolamine

346
Q

Four main actions of NSAIDS

A

Anti-inflammatory, analgesia, antipyretic and antiplatelet activity

347
Q

GABA agonist in the spinal cord

348
Q

Ganglion blockers that were indicated (but not anymore) for severe hypertension

A

Hexamethonium, trimethaphan

349
Q

Generation of antihistamine that has the most CNS effects

A

First generation due to being more lipid-soluble

350
Q

GHRH analog used as diagnostic agent

A

Sermorelin

351
Q

GnRH agonist used for infertility or different types of CA depending on pulsatile or steady usage respectively

A

Leuprolide

352
Q

GnRH antagonist with more immediate effects, used for infertility

353
Q

Good hypnotic activity with less CNS SE than most benzodiazepines

A

Zolpidem, zaleplon

354
Q

H1 antagonist used in motion sickness

A

Dimenhydrinate and other 1st generation

355
Q

H1 blocker that is also a serotonin antagonist

A

Cyproheptadine

356
Q

H2 blocker that causes the most interactions with other drugs

A

Cimetidine

357
Q

Heparin (PTT) increases activity of

A

Antithrombin 3

358
Q

HIV antiviral class known to have severe drug interactions by causing inhibition of metabolism

A

Protease inhibitors

359
Q

HIV med used to reduce transmission during birth

A

AZT (zidovudine)

360
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are contraindicated in

361
Q

Hormone inhibiting prolactin release

362
Q

How drug or foods (grapefruit juice) increase statin effect

A

Inhibit Cytochrome P450 3A4

363
Q

Hyperglycemic agent that increases cAMP and results in glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, reverses hypoglycemia, also used to reverse severe beta-blocker overdose and smooth muscle relaxation

364
Q

Important drug interaction with chloral hydrate

A

May displace coumadin from plasma proteins

365
Q

Important in muscle and adipose tissue for glucose transport across muscles and TG storage by lipoprotein lipase activation

366
Q

Important in synthesis of glucose to glycogen in the liver

367
Q

Increase bone density, also being tested for breast CA tx.

A

Raloxifene (SERM-selective estrogen receptor modulator)

368
Q

Increased risk of developing cataracts

A

Quetiapine

369
Q

Indirect-Acting ACh Agonist, alcohol, short DOA and used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

370
Q

Inhalant anesthetics

A

NO, chloroform, and diethyl ether

371
Q

Inhaled anesthetic causes peripheral vasodilation

A

Isoflurane

372
Q

Inhaled anesthetic that may sensitize the myocardium to arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines and has produced hepatitis

373
Q

Inhaled anesthetic with a low blood/gas partition coefficient

A

Nitrous oxide

374
Q

Inhaled anesthetics are myocardial depressants

A

Enflurane and halothane

375
Q

Inhaled anesthetics metabolized by liver enzymes which has a major role in the toxicity of these agents

A

Halothane and methoxyflurane

376
Q

Inhaled anesthetics, less likely to lower blood pressure than other agents, and has the smallest effect on respiration

A

Nitrous oxide

377
Q

Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

A

ACE inhibitors

378
Q

Inhibit synaptic activity of primary afferents and spinal cord pain transmission neurons

A

Ascending pathways

379
Q

Inhibitor of leukotrienes (LTD4) receptors and used in asthma

A

Zafirlukast and montelukast

380
Q

Inhibitor of lipoxygenase

381
Q

Inhibitor of MAO type B which metabolizes dopamine, used adjunct to levodopa or as sole agent in newly diagnosed pt’s

A

Selegiline

382
Q

Inhibitors of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), used as adjuncts in Parkinson’s dx and cause acute hepatic failure (monitor LFT’s)

A

Entacapone and Tolcapone

383
Q

Inhibits conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone therefore inhibiting corticosteroid synthesis

A

Aminoglutethimide

384
Q

Insecticide organophosphate

A

Malathion, parathion

385
Q

Interaction with this drug requires dose reduction of 6-MP

A

Allopurinol

386
Q

Interferes with activity of T-lymphocytes

A

Hydroxychloroquine

387
Q

Intermediate acting GC’s

A

Prednisone, methylprednisolone, prednisolone, oaramethasone, fluprednisone and triamcinolone

388
Q

Inversely related to potency of anesthetics

A

Minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration (MAC)

389
Q

Irreversible, nonselective COX inhibitor

A

Aspirin (or other salicylates)

390
Q

IV barbiturate used as a pre-op anesthetic

A

Thiopental

391
Q

IV Drug used Hypertensive Crisis

A

Nitroprusside

392
Q

LA causing methemoglobinemia

A

Prilocaine

393
Q

Laboratory value required to be monitored for patients on valproic acid

A

Serum ammonia and LFT’s

394
Q

Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, sweating, weakness, gooseflesh, nausea, and vomiting, tremor, muscle jerks, and hyperpnea are signs of this syndrome

A

Abstinence syndrome

395
Q

Lactam that can be used in PCN allergic patients

396
Q

Life threatening cardiac event that prolong QT leads to

A

Torsades de pointes

397
Q

Limiting side effect of Quinidine

A

Prolongs QT interval

398
Q

Lithium is associated with this congenital defect

A

Cardiac anomalies and is contraindicated in pregnancy or lactation

399
Q

Local anesthetic with vasoconstrictive property, favored for head, neck, and pharyngeal surgery

400
Q

Long acting beta 2 agonist used in asthma

A

Salmeterol

401
Q

Long acting GC’s

A

Betamethasone, dexamethasone, and paramethasone

402
Q

Long acting insulin

A

Ultralente (humulin U)

403
Q

Long acting sympathomimetic, sometimes used to improve urinary continence in children and elderly with enuresis

404
Q

Longer acting benzodiazepines used in the management of withdrawal states of alcohol and other drugs

A

Chlordiazepoxide and Diazepam

405
Q

Longer acting Beta 2 agonists is recommended for prophylaxis of asthma

A

Salmeterol

406
Q

Longer acting local anesthetics which are less dependent on vasoconstrictors

A

Tetracaine and bupivacaine

407
Q

Losartan and valsartan block

A

AT1 receptors

408
Q

Main route of metabolism for benzodiazepines

409
Q

Major drug interaction with Quinidine

A

Increases concentration of Digoxin

410
Q

Major effect of benzodiazepines on sleep at high doses

A

REM is decreased

411
Q

Major indication for H1 receptor antagonist

A

Use in IgE mediated allergic reaction (allergic rhinitis, urticaria)

412
Q

Major nutritional side effect of bile acid-binding resins

A

Impair absorption of fat soluble vitamin absorption (A,D,E,K)

413
Q

Major route of elimination for Lithium

414
Q

Major SE of bisphosphonates

A

Chemical esophagitis

415
Q

Major SE of zileuton

A

Liver toxicity

416
Q

Major side effect of insulin

A

Hypoglycemia

417
Q

MAOI should not be administered with SSRI’s or potent TCA’s due to development of this condition

A

Serotonin syndrome

418
Q

May protect against doxorubicin cardio-toxicity by chelating iron

A

Dexrazoxane

419
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes intracellular receptors

A

Steroid and hormones

420
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes ligand gated ion channels

A

Acetylcholine, nicotine

421
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic enzymatic activity

A

Insulin, EGF, TGFbeta, PDGF, ANP

422
Q

Mechanism of action of amiloride

A

Inhibit epithelial sodium channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct

423
Q

Mechanism of action of loop diuretics

A

inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter

424
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin)

A

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to domain V of 23S rRNA of 50S ribosome subunit

425
Q

Mechanism of action of spironolactone

A

Inhibit mineralocorticoid receptor and inhibit Na/K-ATPase and ENaC synthesis

426
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracycline

A

Decreases protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome and prevent binding of tRNA to A site

427
Q

Mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Inhibit Na+/Cl- cotransport

428
Q

Mechanisms of action for Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine

A

Sodium blockade

429
Q

Mediator of tissue pain, edema, inactivated by ACE, and may be a contributing factor to the development of angioedema

A

Bradykinin

430
Q

Meglitinide

A

Repaglinide

431
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients

432
Q

Method to reduce salicylate intoxication

A

Alkalinize urine, dialysis

433
Q

Methyldopa is contraindicated in

A

Geriatrics due to its CNS (depression) effects

434
Q

Methylxanthine derivative used as a remedy for intermittent claudication

A

Pentoxifylline

435
Q

Metronidazole SE if given with alcohol

A

Disulfiram-like reaction

436
Q

Microtubule inhibitor that causes peripheral neuropathy, foot drop (eg. ataxia), and “pins and needles” sensation

A

Vincristine

437
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Fludrocortisone and deoxycorticosterone

438
Q

MOA action of cromolyn

A

Blocks opening of Cl channels to prevent mast cell degranulation

439
Q

MOA and effect of nitric oxide

A

Stimulates cGMP which leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

440
Q

MOA for benzodiazepines and barbiturates

A

GABA-related targets

441
Q

MOA for Diazepines

A

increase the FREQUENCY of GABA-mediated chloride ion channel opening

442
Q

MOA for Ethosuximide

A

Calcium channels

443
Q

MOA for Valproic acid at high doses

A

Affect calcium, potassium, and sodium channels

444
Q

MOA of AGI’s

A

Act on intestine, delay absorption of glucose

445
Q

MOA of aspirin

A

Irreversibly blocks COX1 and COX2

446
Q

MOA of Bisphosphonates

A

Inhibits osteoclast bone resorption

447
Q

MOA of both generations

A

Insulin release from pancreas by modifying K+ channels

448
Q

MOA of Cardiac glycosides (eg. digoxin)

A

Indirectly increase intracellular calcium and cardiac contractility by inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase

449
Q

MOA of cisplatin

A

Alkylating agent

450
Q

MOA of class I A (eg. Procainamide), class IB (eg. Lidocaine), and class IC (eg. Flecainide) antiarrhythmics

A

Sodium channel blockers

451
Q

MOA of class III antiarrhythmics

A

Potassium channel blockers

452
Q

MOA of class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium channel blockers

453
Q

MOA of Colchicine (used in acute gout)

A

Selective inhibitor of microtubule assembly

454
Q

MOA of corticosteroids

A

Induce lipocortins to 1. inhibit phospholipase A2, 2. repress COX-2 gene and enzyme expression, 3. repress cytokines that activate COX-2

455
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV

456
Q

MOA of general anesthetics

A

Unclear, thought to increase the threshold for firing of CNS neurons

457
Q

MOA of gold salts

A

Alter activity of macrophages and suppress phagocytic activity of PMNs

458
Q

MOA of Leflunomide (newer agent)

A

Inhibiting Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase which leads to decreased pyrimidine synthesis

459
Q

MOA of local anesthetics (LA’s)

A

Block voltage-dependent sodium channels

460
Q

MOA of lovastatin (STATIN)

A

inhibits HMG COA reductase

461
Q

MOA of metformin

A

Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption; increase insulin sensitivity

462
Q

MOA of nateglinide

A

Stimulates rapid and transient release of of insulin through closure of the ATP-sensitive K+ channel

463
Q

MOA of nitrates

A

Relax vascular smooth muscle, at low doses dilate veins and at high doses dilate arterioles

464
Q

MOA of NSAIDS

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase (cox)

465
Q

MOA of nystatin

A

Bind ergosterol in fungal cell membrane

466
Q

MOA of penicillin

A

Block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase and block peptidoglycan cross-linkage

467
Q

MOA of repaglinide

A

Insulin release from pancreas; faster and shorter acting than sulfonylurea

468
Q

MOA of sildenafil (Viagra)

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterase-5, enhancing effects of nitric oxide-activated increases in cGMP

469
Q

MOA of sulfonamides

A

Inhibit dihydropteroate synthase

470
Q

MOA of thiazolindinediones

A

Stimulate PPAR-gamma receptor to regulate CHO and lipid metabolism

471
Q

MOA of thrombolytics

A

Lyse thrombi by catalyzing the formation of plasmin which binds fibrin

472
Q

Moderate opioid agonists

A

Codeine, hydrocodone, and oxycodone

473
Q

Monitoring parameter to obtain before initiation of STATINS

474
Q

MOPP regimen used in Hodgkin’s disease (HD)

A

Mechlorethamine+ oncovorin (vincristine)+ procarbazine, and prednisone

475
Q

Most common SE of fibrates

476
Q

Most common side effect of 1st generation antihistamines

A

Sedation, anticholinergic

477
Q

Most commonly abused in health care professionals

A

Heroin, morphine, oxycodone, meperidine and fentanyl

478
Q

Most dangerous of the currently popular hallucinogenic drugs, OD leads to nystagmus, marked hypertension, and seizures, presence of both horizontal and vertical nystagmus is pathognomonic

479
Q

Most frequent route of metabolism

A

Hepatic enzymes

480
Q

Most important potential SE of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

481
Q

Most important toxic effects of most local anesthetics

A

CNS toxicity

482
Q

Most inhaled anesthetics SE

A

Decrease arterial blood pressure

483
Q

Most useful in patients with significant anxiety, phobic features, hypochondriasis, and resistant depression

A

Monamine oxidase inhibitors

484
Q

Muscarinic antagonist used in COPD

A

Ipratropium, tiotropium

485
Q

Muscarinic that is very lipid soluble and used in glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

486
Q

Muscarinic used to treat dry mouth in Sjogren’s syndrome

A

Pilocarpine or Cevimeline

487
Q

Name 3 Phase II conjugation reactions

A

Glucuronidation, acetylation, glutathione conjugation, glycine conjugation, sulfation, methylation, water conjugation

488
Q

Neurologic SE of benzodiazepines

A

Anterograde amnesia

489
Q

Neurotoxicity with isoniazid (INH) prevented by

A

Administration of Vit. B6 (pyridoxine)

490
Q

Neurotransmitters affected by the action of antidepressants

A

Norepinephrine and serotonin

491
Q

Newer alpha 2 agonist (apraclonidine and brimonidine) treat glaucoma

A

Reduce aqueous synthesis

492
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotic used for bipolar disorder, known to cause weight gain, and adversely affect diabetes

A

Olanzapine

493
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotics that also improve some of the negative symptoms and help acute agitation

A

Olanzapine and aripiprazole

494
Q

Newer NSAIDs that selectively inhibit COX-2

495
Q

Nitrate free intervals are needed due to

496
Q

Nitrate used for acute anginal attacks

A

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets

497
Q

Nitrate used to prevent further attacks

A

Oral and transdermal forms of nitroglycerin

498
Q

Nitroprusside vasodilates

A

Arteries and veins

499
Q

Nitrosoureas with high lipophilicity, used for brain tumors

A

Carmustine (BCNU) and lomustine (CCNU)

500
Q

Non ergot agents used as first-line therapy in the initial management of Parkinson’s

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole