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Pharm/Med > Pharm/Med Exam II > Flashcards

Pharm/Med Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

Ethnopharmacology

A

Understanding the specific impact of cultural factors on patient drug response. (physiological, genetic and body reactions).

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2
Q

Drug polymorphism

A

Effect of patient’s age, gender, size, and body composition on pharmacokinetics (what body does to drug).

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3
Q

Cultural considerations with pharmacologics

A

Ethnopharmacology - Understanding the impact of cultural factors on patient drug response.
Drug polymorphism - how age, gender, size, body composition affect on what drug does to body (pharmacokinetics).

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4
Q

Cultural competance

A

Understanding a patient’s cultural context (their belief system, values regarding health and wellness, specific responses to drug therapies).

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5
Q

African beliefs

A

Folk medicine
Close extended family
Women play important role in HC decisions

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6
Q

Asian beliefs

A

Traditional medicine
Hot/cold food
Herbs/teas
Acupuncture/Acupressure
Close extended family
Family needs more important than individual needs

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7
Q

Hispanic beliefs

A

Good luck and living right
Illness is doing bad deed
Close extended family
All family members involved in HC decisions

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8
Q

Native Americans

A

Harmony with nature
Ill spirits cause disease
Medicine man
Close extended family
Emphasis on family

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9
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

Traditional medicine
Hot/cold foods
Teas/Herbs
Acupuncture/Acupressure

A

Asian

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10
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

Ill spirits cause disease

A

Native Americans

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11
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

Have close extended family and women play important role in HC decisions.

A

African Americans

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12
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

Use medicine man

A

Native Americans

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13
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

Use folk medicine, root doctors as healers, herbs, oils, roots

A

African

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14
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

All family members are involved in health care decisions

A

Hispanic

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15
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

Family needs are more important than individual needs

A

Asian

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16
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

View health as a result of good luck and living right. Illness when do bad deed.

A

Hispanic

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17
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

Close extended family, emphasis on family

A

Native Americans

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18
Q

What ethnic group has the following medical beliefs?

When traditional, acupuncture and acupressure, herbs, foods don’t work they come to the hospital.

A

Asians

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19
Q

Can cultural beliefs influence drug compliance?

A

Yes

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20
Q

When consideration cultural influence on drug compliance, what three factors are considered?

A

Cultural beliefs
Level of education
Ability to afford medication

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21
Q

Considering cultural beliefs in patient compliance, who has to sometimes be educated?

A

The family

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22
Q

What two genetic factors influence drug metabolism?

A

Slow or rapid acetylators
Varying levels of P-450 enzymes

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23
Q

Slow or rapid acetylators and varying levels of P-450 enzymes are two types of what?

A

Genetic factors that influence drug metabolism.

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24
Q

What is the U.S. drug related legislation that exists for legal considerations?

A

HIPAA - Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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25
Q

What is the primary purpose of the FDA?

A

The Food and Drug Administration protects the patient and ensures drug effectiveness.

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26
Q

What organization protects patients and ensures drug effectiveness?

A

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

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27
Q

What legislation was passed to protect patient information?

A

Health Insurance Accessibility and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

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28
Q

The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act was created for what purpose?

A

Regulates vitamins, herbs and homeopathics for the only purpose of ensuring safety, not effectiveness.

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29
Q

The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act covers safety not effectiveness of what?

A

Vitamins, homeopathics, herbs

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30
Q

The safety of vitamins, homeopathics and herbs are controlled by what act?

A

The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)

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31
Q

What does the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act control?

A

The safety of vitamins, homeopathics and herbs.

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32
Q

What doesn’t the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act control?

A

The effectiveness of vitamins, homeopathics and herbs.

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33
Q

What are the four phases of drug development?

A

Phase 1 - small # of healthy individuals
Phase 2 - small # of people who many benefit from the treatment
Phase 3 - Large # of patients
Phase 4 - Post-marketing studies

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34
Q

What type of group is recruited and what is the purpose of Phase I of new drug development?

A

Small group
Determine optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics (absorptions, distribution, metabolism, excretion)

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35
Q

In what phase of new drug development is this the protocol:

Determine optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics (absorptions, distribution, metabolism, excretion)

A

Phase I

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36
Q

What type of group is recruited and what is the purpose of Phase 2 of new drug development?

A

Small group
Determine effectiveness, monitor for adverse rxs, and refine dose

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37
Q

In what phase of new drug development does this occur?

Determine effectiveness, monitor for adverse rxs, and refine dose.

A

Phase 2

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38
Q

What type of group is recruited and what is the purpose of Phase 3 of new drug development?

A

Large # of patients
Identify infrequent or rare side effects, experimental design with a placebo (double blind study)

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39
Q

In what phase of new drug development does the following occur?

Identify infrequent or rare side effects, experimental design with a placebo (double blind study)

A

Phase 3

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40
Q

What is a placebo?

A

A pill with no medication in it

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41
Q

What is the purpose of Phase 4 of new drug development?

A

Severe adverse reactions drug may have, black box warning to alert consumers of the potential of severe adverse reactions. Drug could be recalled by FDA.

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42
Q

In what phase of new drug development is the following the protocol?

Severe adverse reactions drug may have, black box warning to alert consumers of the potential of severe adverse reactions. Drug could be recalled by FDA.

A

Phase 4

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43
Q

In what phase of new drug development will the FDA recall the drug?

A

Phase 4

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44
Q

In what phase of new drug development will a black box warning be made?

A

Phase 4

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45
Q

What phase of new drug development may go on for years?

A

Phase 4

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46
Q

What are the three designated classes of drug recall?

A

Class 1 - Reasonable probability of severe rex or death.
Class 2 - Less severe or temporary or reversible health effects.
Class 3 - Lease severe, not likely to cause a problem.

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47
Q

In what classification of drug recall is there a reasonable probability of severe rx or death?

A

Class I

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48
Q

In what class of drug recall is there a less severe or temporary or reversible health effects.

A

Class 2

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49
Q

What class of drug recall is the least severe and not likely to cause a reaction?

A

Class 3

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50
Q

List the classes of drug recall from most severe to least severe.

A

Class 1 - Most severe
Class 2 - Less severe
Class 3 - Least severe

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51
Q

What is the ANA?

A

The American Nurses Association

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52
Q

What does the ANA do?

A

Established code of ethics and refuses to participate in any personally unethical practices.

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53
Q

What organization establishes a code of ethics for nurses?

A

ANA - American Nurses Association

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54
Q

What are the 4 main principles of nursing code of ethics?

A

Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
Non-maleficence

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55
Q

What are the following?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
Non-maleficence

A

The principles of the nursing code of ethics.

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56
Q

What are the four qualities of the nursing process to medication administration?

A

Assessment
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation

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57
Q

In what phase of the nursing process with drug administration does a cultural assessment belong?

A

Assessment

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58
Q

What phase of the nursing process is based on individual patient needs with medication administration?

A

Planning

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59
Q

What phase of the nursing process is based on culturally competent nursing care?

A

Implementation

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60
Q

What phase of the nursing process in medication administration is based on compliance to the medication regimen?

A

Evaluation

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61
Q

What phase of the nursing process in medication administration dependent on nurses maintaining current knowledge of various cultures, activities and practices?

A

Implementation

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62
Q

What is this: a guide for “carrying out nursing responsibilities in a manner consistent with quality in nursing care and the ethical obligations of the profession”?

A

The nursing code of ethics

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63
Q

What are ethics?

A

Moral principles that dictate how a person will conduct themselves.

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64
Q

What are moral principles that dictate how a person will conduct themselves?

A

Ethics

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65
Q

Are ethical values essential for nurses?

A

Yes

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66
Q

What is recognizing each individual patient’s right to self-determination and decision-making?

A

Autonomy

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67
Q

What is autonomy?

A

Recognizing each individual patient’s right to self-determination and decision-making.

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68
Q

If the medical team might not agree in with the wishes of the patient, what will the nurse be required to do?

A

Advocate for the patient

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69
Q

What do the following influence?

Culture, age, gender, sexual orientation, general health, and social support system

A

A patient’s acceptance or refusal of medical treatment.

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70
Q

What is the nickname for the nursing code of ethics?

A

The Nightingale Pledge.

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71
Q

Who is the founder of modern nursing?

A

Florence Nightingale

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72
Q

What is beneficence?

A

Acting for the good and welfare of others and including such attributes as kindness and charity (ANA defines as compassion)

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73
Q

What is acting for the good and welfare of others, including such attributes as kindness and charity?

A

Beneficence

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74
Q

What attribute does the ANA recognized as “compassion?”

A

Beneficence

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75
Q

What is justice?

A

An element of fairness in all medical and nursing decisions and care (no preferences - ability to prioritize)

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76
Q

What is the ethical principle that relates to fairness in all medical decisions?

A

Justice

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77
Q

What is Nonmaleficence?

A

Do no harm

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78
Q

What is the ethical principle defined as “do no harm?”

A

Nonmaleficence

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79
Q

What guides everyday practice and assists in navigating the daily complexities of the healthcare profession?

A

The code of ethics

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80
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Explain what will happen after the physician has.

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81
Q

Can nurses ask for informed consent?

A

No.

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82
Q

What healthcare provider is the only one who can ask a patient for informed consent?

A

The physician.

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83
Q

To witness informed consent, the nurse has to do what?

A

Be in the room and see it.

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84
Q

What two medication administration practices require informed consent?

A

Chemotherapy
Blood products

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85
Q

Chemotherapy and blood products are two medication administration practices that require what?

A

Informed consent

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86
Q

How many people a year do medication errors harm?

A

1.5 million

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87
Q

What is a medical error?

A

Any error in any phase of clinical patient care.

88
Q

What is a medication error?

A

Any preventable adverse drug event

89
Q

What is any preventable adverse drug event?

A

A medication error

90
Q

What is any error in any phase of patient care?

A

A medical error

91
Q

What differentiates a medical error and a medication error?

A

A medication error is specifically related to medication.

92
Q

What is an adverse drug event?

A

Undesirable occurrence related to administration of or failure to administer a drug

93
Q

What is an undesirable occurrence related to administration of or failure to administer a drug

A

An adverse drug event

94
Q

What is an adverse drug reaction?

A

An unexpected unintended, undesired, or excessive response to a drug.

95
Q

What is an unexpected, unintended, undesired, or excessive response to a drug?

A

An adverse drug reaction

96
Q

What is the difference between an adverse drug event and an adverse drug reaction?

A

An event relates to administration or failure to administer a drug while an adverse drug reaction relates to the specific undesired effect that the drug has after administration.

97
Q

Are the following adverse drug events or adverse drug reactions?
Anaphylactic shock, itching/rash, diarrhea

A

Adverse drug reactions

98
Q

What to do if a patient has an adverse drug reaction to an IV medication?

A

Stop medication
Take vitals
Call rapid response team or physician

99
Q

Medication errors are preventable or non-reventable?

A

Preventable

100
Q

What protects against medication errors?

A

The 6 rights

101
Q

Drugs commonly causing adverse drug reactions?

A

CNS drugs
Anticoagulants
Chemotherapeutic drugs

102
Q

What are these three types of drugs responsible for?

CNS drugs
Anticoagulants
Chemotherapeutic drugs

A

Most common drugs that cause adverse drug reactions

103
Q

What are the two types of adverse drug reactions?

A

Allergic and idiosyncratic

104
Q

What is an allergic drug reaction?

A

Immunological hypersensitivity
Itching rash

105
Q

What is an idiosyncratic drug reaction?

A

An abnormal, unusual, unexpected response to a drug but not an allergic reaction

106
Q

What is an abnormal, unusual or unexpected response to a drug called?

A

Idiosyncratic reaction (i.e. liver damage)

107
Q

What is an immunological hypersensitivity to a drug called?

A

An allergic reaction

108
Q

With high alert medications, do what?

A

Take extra precautions - Takes 2 nurses

109
Q

When administering what type of medications do nurses take extra precautions?

A

High alert meds

110
Q

What are SALAD drugs?

A

Sound alike, look alike

111
Q

What are drugs that sound alike and look alike called?

A

SALAD drugs

112
Q

What are LASA drugs?

A

Look alike, sound alike drugs.

113
Q

What are look alike, sound alike drugs called?

A

LASA

114
Q

What are high alert drugs?

A

Drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when they are used in error.

115
Q

What are drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when they are used in error?

A

High alert drugs

116
Q

What are examples of high alert drugs?

A

Opioids and narcotics
Insulin
Heparin

117
Q

Opioids and narcotics
Insulin
Heparin
are considered what type of drugs?

A

High alert drugs

118
Q

What is the most common point in the process at which medication errors occur?

Prescribing
Dispensing
Administering
Monitoring

A

Administration
Also many errors in prescribing

119
Q

When can errors occur in the medication administration process?

A

At any step

120
Q

Four issues contributing to medication errors are?

A

Organizational issues
Educational system issues
Sociologic factors
Use of abbreviations

121
Q

The following issues contribute to what?

  • Organizational issues
  • Educational system issues
  • Sociologic factors
  • Use of abbreviations
A

Medication errors

122
Q

How to avoid educational system issues that cause medication errors?

A
  • Double check everything
  • Use only approved abbreviations
  • Instill a culture of safety early on
123
Q

How to avoid sociological factors that contribute to communication errors.

A

Communication between team members. If in doubt, ask.

124
Q

What is a “near miss” in medication administration?

A

Event or situation that did not produce patient injury, but only because of chance. Either did not reach patient, capture before reaching patient, or timely intervention (an antidote was administerted).

125
Q

What is a close call in medication administration?

A

An event or situation or error that took place but was identified and capture prior to reaching the patient (i.e. a drug a patient has an allergy to was prescribed but the pharmacist was alerted to the allergy via data entry, not administered or the wrong medication was dispensed by the pharmacy and the nurse caught it before administration).

126
Q

What is the difference between a close call and a near miss?

A

A near miss was prevented from causing harm (i.e. antidote administered) and a close call never reached the patient because a provider stopped the administration somewhere along the line.

127
Q

What type of medication error occurs when the medication was prescribed but the pharmacist recognized that the patient is allergic?

A

A close call

128
Q

What type of medication error occurs when the wrong medication was administered but either an antidote was given or somehow the drug didn’t reach the patient?

A

Near miss

129
Q

What are processes that nurses use to prevent medication errors?

A
  • Check the order three times
  • Follow the 6 rights
  • Assess patient before administration
  • Use two patient identifiers
  • Minimize verbal or telephone orders
  • List indication next to each order
  • Never assume anything about items not specified in drug order
  • When in doubt question.
  • Do not use unapproved abbreviations or acronyms
  • Check safe doses
130
Q

What are the 6 rights of medication administration?

A

Right patient
Right drug
Right dose
Right route
Right frequency
Right documentation

131
Q

What are three processes in assessing a patient before drug administration?

A
  • Take vitals
  • Glucose before insulin administration
  • Check for allergies
132
Q

Should nurses use generic or trade names when referring to medicaiton?

A

Always generic to avoid LASA drugs and SALAD.

133
Q

When preparing to administer medication should nurses multitask?

A

No, always avoid interruptions.

134
Q

How do nurses respond to medication errors?

A
  • Follow institutions policies and procedures
  • Report to physician, charge nurse, supervisor
  • Document incident report
  • Follow-up
135
Q

Why is medication reconciliation important?

A

To continue medications throughout the patient’s care at home, in nursing home and at hospital.

136
Q

Three parts of medication reconciliation (KNOW THIS)

A
  • In the assessment, document a list of medications including OTC, herbal and supplements.
  • Education, emphasize the importance of maintaining a current and complete med list.
  • Complete list at every step of health care delivery
137
Q

What process are these instrumental to?

  • Document medication list
  • Educate patient on important of maintaining a current and complete med list
  • Complete list at every step of health care delivery
A

Medication reconciliation

138
Q

Medication available as 500 mg/10mL. Patient order is to receive 1000 mg q6hrs.

What is dose?

A

1000 mg

139
Q

Medication available as 500 mg/10mL. Patient order is to receive 1000 mg q6hrs.

What is concentration?

A

500mg/10 mL

140
Q

Medication available as 500 mg/10mL. Patient order is to receive 1000 mg q6hrs.

How many mL should the nurse administer?

A

80 mL

141
Q

A nurse is administering amoxicillin 350 mg PO. Available is amoxicillin 250 mg/5mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

A

7 mL

142
Q

A nurse if providing discharge teaching to the parent of a child who is prescribed diphenhydramine 25 mg elixir every 4 hr as needed. The amount available is diphenhydramine elixir 12.5 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

A

10 mL

143
Q

A nurse if providing discharge teaching to the parent of a child who is prescribed diphenhydramine 25 mg elixir every 4 hr as needed. The amount available is diphenhydramine elixir 12.5 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per day?

A

60 mL

144
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer olanzapine 20 mg PO daily. Available is olanzapine 10 mg orally-disintegrating tablets.
How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose?

A

2 tablets

145
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer olanzapine 20 mg PO daily. Available is olanzapine 10 mg orally-disintegrating tablets. How many total tablets for 7 days?

A

14 tabs

146
Q

A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has pneumonia and a prescription for cefpodoxime 5 mg/kg PO every 12 hr for 5 days. The client weights 88 lbs. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?

A

200 mg

147
Q

A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has pneumonia and a prescription for cefpodoxime 5 mg/kg PO every 12 hr for 5 days. The client weights 88 lbs. Total dose per day?

A

400 mg

148
Q

First trimester pregnancy concerns with medication administration

A

All major organs develop within first 3 months. Fetus at most risk during this time.

149
Q

The fetus is most are risk during which part of pregnancy?

A

First trimester (first three months)

150
Q

How does diffusion work?

A

Passive movement from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration; requires no energy.

151
Q

What is the process by which a substance moves from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration.

A

Diffusion

152
Q

What movement of molecules requires no energy?

A

Diffusion

153
Q

What is the organ that connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall?

A

The placenta

154
Q

What is the placenta?

A

The organ that connects the fetus to the uterine wall.

155
Q

What is the active movement of substances between different tissues?

A

Active transport

156
Q

What method of molecules moving between tissues occurs with a pumping mechanism?

A

Active transport

157
Q

What method of molecules moving between tissues requires energy?

A

Active transport

158
Q

What method of molecules between tissues occurs with a pumping mechanism within cell membranes?

A

Active transport

159
Q

What is the difference between diffusion and active transport?

A

Diffusion happens passively with no energy. Active transport requires energy.

160
Q

What organ is involved in the exchange of nutrients between the fetus and the mother?

A

The placenta

161
Q

What are the maternal effects that affect drug administration during pregnancy?

A

Maternal physiology - liver and kidney function

162
Q

What are the properties of drugs that should be considered during pregnancy?

A

Drug chemistry and dose

163
Q

Kidney problems and liver problems affect what in medication administration?

A

How much drug is administered.

164
Q

What happens when kidney function is decreased with medication administration during pregnancy?

A

Rate of excretion is decreased and level of drug in body stays higher so there’s a better chance that the drug will reach the fetus.

165
Q

What happens when liver function is decreased with medication administration during pregnancy?

A

Rate of metabolism is decreased so the amount of drug in the body remains higher so there’s a better change that the drug will reach the fetus.

166
Q

Look at p. 37, table 3-1
In category A in pregnancy safety categories what is the risk to the fetus?

A

A - No risk

167
Q

In category D in pregnancy safety categories, what is the risk to the fetus?

A

D - Possible risk to fetus

168
Q

In category X in pregnancy safety categories, what is the risk to the fetus?

A

X- Not to be used in pregnancy

169
Q

What is a drug that is safe during pregnancy?

A

Tylenol

170
Q

With breastfeeding, what factors need to be considered for medication administartion?

A

Fat solubility
Low molecular weight
Excretion

171
Q

When doing dose calc for pediatrics, always calculate rate in which measure?

A

Kilograms

172
Q

Table 3-2 in Lilley, age range for pediatrics.
Premature/preterm
Neonate
Infant
Toddler
Preschool
School age
Adolescent

A
  • Premature/preterm <38 weeks
  • Neonate < 1 month
  • Infant 28 days to 12 months
  • Toddler 12 months to 3 years
  • Preschool 3-5 years
  • School age 6-10 years
  • Adolescent 11 years to 16 or 18 years
173
Q

What is the age range for premature infants?

A

< 38 weeks

174
Q

What is the age range for infants?

A

28 days to 12 months

175
Q

What is the age range for a toddler?

A

12 months to 3 years

176
Q

What is the age range for a preschooler?

A

3-5 years

177
Q

What is the age range for a school-aged child?

A

6 to 10 years

178
Q

What is the age range for an adolescent?

A

11 - 16/18 years

179
Q

Age range for
- Premature/preterm
- Infant
- Toddler
- Preschool
- School age
- Adolescent

A
  • Premature/preterm <38 weeks
  • Infant 28 days to 12 months
  • Toddler 12 months to 3 years
  • Preschool 3-5 years
  • School age 6-10 years
  • Adolescent 11 years to 16 or 18 years
180
Q

What percentage of water is the body of a pediatric and neonatal patient?

A

70-80% as compared to elderly.

181
Q

Pediatric and neonatal patients have a higher risk of what?

A

Drug interactions

182
Q

Why are weight-based dosages used with pediatric medication administration?

A

Because sizes within age ranges varies too much.

183
Q

What four medication administration steps are to be used for children?

A

Preparation
Positioning
Explaining
Comforting

184
Q

Preparation
Positioning
Explaining
Comforting
are four steps to use in what?

A

Medication administration to children

185
Q

What is a consideration of administering medication to elderly people?

A

Vital organ function (liver and kidney function)

186
Q

Who is considered elderly?

A

People > 65 years of age

187
Q

Geriatric or gerontology patients are how old?

A

> 65 years of age

188
Q

Polypharmacy

A

Multiple medications usually paired with OTC meds.

189
Q

What factors contribute to medication errors in the elderly?

A

Visual acuity, manual dexterity, confusion and compliance

190
Q

Visual acuity, manual dexterity, confusion and compliance are factors that contribute to what?

A

Medication errors in the elderly

191
Q

What physiologic changes in the elderly should be considered when administering meds?

A

Decreased body weight
Decreased organ function

192
Q

What two lab tests confirm kidney and liver function?

A

BUN and creatinine - kidney
Enzyme levels - liver

193
Q

Do problems with kidney and liver function result in high or low lab results in BUN/creatinine and liver enzymes?

A

Higher.

194
Q

What are the four steps in pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

195
Q

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion
are the four steps in what?

A

Pharmacokinetics

196
Q

What should be addressed during assessment with medication administration in pregnancy, pediatric, and the elderly?

A

Pregnancy - #1 question: problems in previous pregnancies, allergies
Pediatrics - don’t have allergies so MONITOR
Elderly - Allergies, OTCs, herbals, complaints about med?

197
Q

What should be done in the planning phase when dealing with pregnant, pediatric or elderly?

A

Educate patient
Promote compliance

198
Q

What is important to do in the implementation phase?

A

Demonstrate and have the patient return the demonstration

199
Q

What should be done in the evaluation phase when administering medication to pregnant, pediatric and elderly patients?

A

Did the patient tolerate the med?
Any adverse rx?
Document!

200
Q

Chapter 9 in Lilley - study definitions

A
201
Q

Domains of learning p. 73-74 in Lilley

A
202
Q

Cognitive domain

A

Level at which basic knowledge is learned and stored. Thinking portion of learning process that incorporates previous experiences and perceptions.

203
Q

What is an example of cognitive learning?

A

Educating a patient about pain medication and the patient storing that information in their memory.

204
Q

Affective domain

A

Conduct that expresses feelings, needs, beliefs, values, and opinions, emotions.

205
Q

What is an example of affective domain in medication administration?

A

The patient sharing that they stopped talking their medication because the family told them is was dangerous.

206
Q

Psychomotor domain

A

Learning a new procedure or skill - the doing domain.

207
Q

What is an example of psychomotor domain learning?

A

Demonstrating the administration of insulin and having the pat return the demonstration.

208
Q

What is the difference between teaching and learning?

A

Teaching is sharing information.
Learning is the result of effective patient education resulting in a change in behavior.

209
Q

What is the sharing of information?

A

Teaching

210
Q

What results in effective patient education that creates in a change in behavior?

A

Learning

211
Q

Categories of risk during pregnancy, lactation and reproduction.
Category A
Category B
Category C
Category D
Category X

A

A - no risk to human fetus
B - no risk to animal fetus; not studied in humans
C - risk to animal fetus; not studied in humans
D - possible risk to human fetus; risk vs. benefit should be weighed
X - Drugs not to used during pregnancy

212
Q

In the medication risk for pregnancy, what is category A?

A

A - no risk to humans

213
Q

In the medication risk for pregnancy, what is category B?

A

No risk to animal fetus; not studied in humans

214
Q

In the medication risk for pregnancy, what is category C?

A

Risk to animal fetus; not studied in humans

215
Q

In the medication risk for pregnancy, what is category D?

A

Risk to human fetus; benefits should be weighed against risks.

216
Q

In the medication risk for pregnancy, what is category X?

A

Should not be prescribed during pregnancy.

217
Q

Classification of young patients:
Premature or preterm
Neonate or newborn
Infant
Child

A

Preemie <38 weeks
Neonate <1 month
Infant 1 month to 1 year
Child 1 - 12 years

Pharm/Med (4 decks)

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