Pharm I Final Exam Crossword Puzzle Answers Flashcards

1
Q

Urinary excretion of a weak acid will be increased in this kind of urine:

A

alkaline

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2
Q

Diffusion hypoxia can occur on recovery from nitrous oxide and is called the _____ effect

A

fink

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3
Q

An anesthetic induction agent that suppresses adrenal function:

A

etomidate

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4
Q

Ketamine blocks this receptor:

A

NMDA

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5
Q

An anesthetic induction agent that is a neurosteroid:

A

alphaxalone

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6
Q

Apomorphine induces emesis in dogs not through opioid receptors but instead ______ receptors in the CRTZ

A

dopamine

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7
Q

This gene encodes the P-glycoprotein efflux pump:

A

MDR1

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8
Q

An ‘enzyme inducer’ typically increases the activity of the Cytochrome ____ group of microsomal enzymes

A

P450

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9
Q

Drug class with inconsistent sedation but good muscle relaxation, useful in old and ‘sick’ patients:

A

benzodiazepine

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10
Q

This route of administration is assumed to have 100% bioavailability

A

IV

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11
Q

Specific reversal agent for carfentanil:

A

naltrexone

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12
Q

A prodrug gets converted to an active drug by this mechanism:

A

bioactivation

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13
Q

Oxybutinin and propantheline cause the detrusor muscle of the bladder to _______

A

relax

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14
Q

Diazepam should not be used via this route because of poor absorption and pain:

A

IM

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15
Q

Pilocarpine will cause the pupil to do this:

A

constrict

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16
Q

The endogenous ligand for NMDA receptors:

A

glutamate

17
Q

In this state a drug cannot easily cross lipid membranes:

A

ionized

18
Q

The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS:

A

GABA

19
Q

Neostigmine, edrophonium and carbamate insecticides are all examples of this type of parasympathomimetics

A

indirect

20
Q

Atropine ophthalmic should not be used in in patients with ______

A

Glaucoma

21
Q

Glomerular filtration is a (passive/active) process:

A

passive

22
Q

Synthetic mixed agonist/antagonist that is available in injectable and oral formulations:

A

butorphanol

23
Q

A class of sedatives that is known to cause ‘epinephrine reversal’

A

phenothiazines

24
Q

The most common Phase II reaction:

A

glucoronidation

25
Q

Combined with Tiletamine in the product ‘Telazol’

A

zolazepam

26
Q

The most common negative effect of acepromazine:

A

hypotension

27
Q

2% lidocaine solution contains ___ mg/mL lidocaine

A

20

28
Q

Alpha-2 agonists can cause profound:

A

bradycardia

29
Q

The ______ of drug eliminated per unit of time is consistent for drugs that follow first-order elimination

A

proportion

30
Q

Opioid that also has activity at NMDA receptors

A

methadone

31
Q

As Vd increases half-life ________

A

increases

32
Q

Reversal agent for xylazine, not a good choice to reverse dexmedetomidine

A

yohimbine

33
Q

The metabolic process by which an orally administered drug is absorbed but very little reaches systemic circulation, as with morphine:

A

first pass

34
Q

Nitrous oxide provides (good/poor) muscle relaxation:

A

poor

35
Q

A form of transmembrane transport that requires energy input (direct or indirect) to function:

A

active