Pharm I Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Clenbuterol is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis in the dog

A

False.

Clenbuterol is used in horses and is used in the treatment of COPD, asthma, and acute bronchitis

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2
Q

Brimonidine does which of the following?

  • Miosis
  • Decreases aqueous humour formation
  • Vasodilation
  • Decreases drainage angle
A

Brimonidine decreases aqueous humour formation

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3
Q

Which of the following is false regarding Pilocarpine?

  • It’s administered directly onto the eye
  • It increases the drainage angle
  • It decreases the production of aqueous humour
  • It decreases IOP
  • Contraindicated with anterior uveitis
A

decreases the production of aqueous humour

Pilocarpine does not do that

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4
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Bethenachol?

  • It is occasionally used to treat GI obstruction
  • It increases micturition via relaxation of the detrusor m.
  • Regardless of dose, it is specific to M3 receptors
  • It is indicated for use with urethral blockage
  • None of the above
A

None of the above

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5
Q

Of the Muscarinic sub-types, which are excitatory?

  • M1 through M5 (all)
  • M2 and M4
  • M1, M3, and M5
  • All muscarinic receptors are inhibitory!
A

M1, M3, and M5

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6
Q

Succinylcholine, a muscle relaxant, is metabolized by tissue pseudocholinesterases. Upon administration to a cow and a cat, which would have a longer Mean Residence Time?

  • The cow would experience a longer MRT
  • The cat would have a longer MRT
  • They would have the same MRT
A

The cow would experience a longer MRT

Acts in one circulation time; duration of action in most species is about 2–3 minutes (except dog and ruminants = 20 minutes)

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7
Q

Which of the following reversible Achesterase inhibitors is administered directly onto the eye?

  • Neostigmine
  • Physostigmine
  • Echotiophate
  • Pyridostigmine
A

Physostigmine

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8
Q

T/F Edrophonium is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to therapeutically treat Myasthenia Gravis

A

False.

Edrophonium is used to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis

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9
Q

What would you not expect to see in a horse w/ Atropine administration?

  • Cycloplegia
  • Tachycardia
  • Adynamic ileus
  • Dry mouth
  • You would see all of the above!
A

You would see all of the above

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10
Q

Regarding Isoxsuprine, all of the following are true except:

  • Used to treat laminitis
  • Tocolytic agent
  • α2 agonist/ β1 antagonist
  • Increases deformability of RBCs
  • All of these are true
A

α2 agonist/ β1 antagonist

Isoxsuprine is actually a β2 agonist/ α1 antagonist, but I tricked you because I’m a tricky mother f***er

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11
Q

T/F: Phenoxybenzamine is the drug of choice for Pheochromocytoma

A

True

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12
Q

Which is the best choice to treat urinary incontinence in a spayed bitch?

  • Antibiotics
  • Bethenachol
  • Phenylpropanolamine
  • Pralidoxime
  • None of the above
A

Phenylpropanolamine

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13
Q

Which of the following is an anti-arrythmic, negative inotrope used to treat clinical signs associated with hyperthyroidism in the cat?

  • Atropine
  • Prazosin
  • Propanolol
  • Isoproterenol
A

Propanolol

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14
Q

Use of propranolol is contraindicated with all of these except…

  • Asthma
  • Diabetes
  • CHF
  • Co-administration of Digitalis
  • All of these conditions are contraindicated
A

All of these conditions are contraindicated!

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15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Isoproterenol?

  • Commonly used to treat bradycardia
  • The most potent positive inotrope
  • Causes uterine contraction
  • Leads to vasoconstriction
  • None of these are true
A

The most potent positive inotrope

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16
Q

Which of the following catecholamines is used topically on mucosal surfaces in order to prolong the effects of lidocaine?

  • Norepinephrine
  • Epinephrine
  • Isoproterenol
  • Dobutamine
  • None of these
A

Epinephrine

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17
Q

Using 1st order kinetics, which of the following would lead to an increase of 1 half-life?

  • Add 50% more drug
  • Add 100% more drug
  • Wait 24 hours
  • Administer an enzyme inducer such as phenobarbital
A

Add 100% more drug

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18
Q

Muscarinic receptors are SLOW and involve smooth m. contraction and glandular secretions. What type of receptors are these?

  • Ionotropic
  • Metabotropic
  • Nuclear
  • Kinase-coupled
  • Indirect
A

Metabotropic

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19
Q

Desensitization of receptors is what type of process?

  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Pharmacokinetic
  • Tachyphylaxis
  • None of the above
A

Pharmacodynamics

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20
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

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21
Q

A faster than normal heart rate at rest is known as

A

tachycardia

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22
Q

A slower than normal heart rate at rest is known as:

A

bradycardia

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23
Q

T/F: M2 receptor activation results in tachycardia

A

False

M2 receptor activation results in bradycardia

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24
Q

What drug reverses the effects of competitive neuromuscular blockers and treats myasthenia gravis?

A

Neostigmine

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25
Why is glycopyrrolate given as a pre-anesthetic rather than atropine?
Glycopyrrolate is more specific to the heart and causes less tachyarrhythmia than atropine
26
Dobutamine is a ß1 agonist that increases blood flow to all of the following arteries, **except**: * Coronary * Skeletal * Renal * Hepatic * Mesenteric
**Hepatic**
27
Which receptor do **albuterol** and **clenbuterol** work on?
**β2**
28
You are about to perform surgery on a patient with pheochromocytoma. Which drug can you administer to prevent a dynamic change in BP?
**Phenoxybenzamine**
29
Where is the site of action for Guaifenesin and Methocarbamol?
**spinal cord**
30
Which muscles are affected last when giving a neuromuscular blocker?
diaphragm mm.
31
Can atropine be used as a bronchodilator?
Yes.
32
Are catecholamines considered positive or negative inotropes?
Catecholamines are **positive inotropes** (increase the force of muscle contraction)
33
Epinephrine usually comes as a 1:1000 solution, but it should be diluted to at least ________ before it is used
**1 : 10,000** Epinephrine usually comes as a 1:1000 solution, but it should be diluted to at least **_1:10,000_** before it is used
34
T/F: Aminopentamide is the drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in small animals
False
35
Which dose of Dopamine would be appropriate for treatment of maldistributive shock? * Low dose * Low-med * Med-high * High dose
**High dose** At low dose, it is a dopamine agonist; At medium-low and medium-high doses, it is a β1 agonist. If the animal is in shock, they are not able to contract their heart as well as we'd like, so we would want to activate α1 receptors. **At high doses (10mg/kg/min), Dopamine is an α1 agonist**, and can lead to vasoconstriction and increase in BP
36
T/F: Ractopamine is used in pigs, cattle, and turkeys
**True** Ractopamine is a non-selective ß-agonist used as a *partitioning agent* (increased weight gain; increased feed efficiency; increased carcass leanness)
37
T/F: Bethenecol, Phenoxybenzamine, and Prazosin may each be used in the treatment of excessive urinary retention
**True** Bethenecol is an M3 agonist that acts to contract the detrusor and promote expulsion of urine. Phenoxybenzamine and Prazosin are alpha-antagonists and act to relax the urethral sphincter muscles
38
Which drug is commonly given with lidocaine to prolong analgesia?
epinephrine
39
You need to do an eye exam on an older dog with heart disease. Why would you not want to use **Phenylephrine** in this case?
Phenylephrine causes **reflex bradycardia**
40
**Phenylpropanolamine** is used in dogs with urinary incontinence. How does it work?
**Phenylpropanolamine** stimulates the release of NE in the urethra and neck of the bladder, enhancing urethral closure
41
You are about to preform surgery on a patient with pheochromocytoma. What drug can you administer to prevent a dynamic change in BP?
**Phenoxybenzamine**
42
You performed a necropsy on a patient. Previously the patient had been diagnosed with feline hyperthyroidism. Your patient’s heart is on the right, with the yellow arrows. What is the condition called? What could you have given this patient to prevent this condition from occurring?
**Myocardial hypertrophy** **Propanolol** is used in cases of feline hyperthyroidism to prevent myocardial hypertrophy
43
Which of the following indirect sympatholytics, blocks the release of NE? * Alpha-methyl DOPA * Reserpine * Bretylium
**_Bretylium_ **blocks NE release Alpha-methyl DOPA blocks DOPA decarboxylase; Reserpine blocks vesicular monoamine transporters
44
What is the drug of choice for treatment of **malignant hyperthermia**?
Dantrolene
45
When **Succinylcholine** is given in conjunction with catecholamines, what can the combination cause?
arrhythmias
46
What is the definition of a **veterinary drug**?
Products that are used to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent diseases
47
What is the mechanism of action for non-depolarizing (competitive) neuromuscular blockers?
Competitive antagonism with Ach for nicotinic receptors at the motor-end plate
48
T/F: Artificial respiration is not required with the administration of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
**False**
49
Bethenecol is a selective agonist for *which muscarinic receptor*?
M3
50
What is the general action of parasympatholytic drugs?
Parasympatholytics act as **muscarinic antagonists** and **prevent the actions of Ach** at PSNS target tissues
51
Which drug is considered the best in the field for treatment of anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine
52
Why is epinephrine not administered orally?
It undergoes first-pass metabolism and is not absorbed when administered orally. Epinephrine is given by inhalation or parenterally (IV, IM, SC)
53
Dopamine, depending on the dose, can acts as either a vasodilator **or** a vasoconstrictor
**True.** At a low dose, it is a dopamine receptor agonist and causes renal, mesenteric arteriole vasodilation At a high dose, it acts at alpha-1 receptors and causes vasoconstriction
54
How is dopamine administered?
**IV Infusion!** It is always given by infusion. If given extravascularly, it can cause necrosis (due to its alkalinity)
55
T/F: Nicotinic and Muscarinic receptors are **both** considered **_cholinergic receptors_**
**True**
56
What is the most widely used alpha-1 agonist in dogs suffering from urinary incontinence?
Phenylpropanolamine
57
Which adrenergic receptor does **Clenbuterol **act on?
B2
58
Name the drug(s) used to induce bronchodilation in cases of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
**Albuterol/Clenbuterol**
59
Name the beta-agonist that has been reported to increase deformability of erythrocytes
**Isoxsuprine**
60
What is the only widely used ß-adrenergic antagonist in veterinary medicine?
**Propanolol** (because it is cheap, not because it is a great drug)
61
Which species is more sensitive to dose-dependent hemolysis with **Guaifenesin**: horses or cattle?
**Cattle are more sensitive to dose-dependent hemolysis with Guaifenesin** Concentrations higher than 5% can cause hemolysis in cattle. Concentration higher than 10% can cause hemolysis in horses.
62
Regarding Guaifenesin use in food animals: What is the withdrawal time for meat? Milk?
Meat: 3 days Milk: 2 days
63
Which of the following agents can be used to enhance renal excretion of aspirin in cats? * a. atropine * b. ammonium chloride * c. epinephrine * d. sodium bicarbonate * e. methionine
**d. sodium bicarbonate**
64
Which of the following drugs is a selective alpha-1 blocker? * a. Pirenzepine * b. Phenylpropanolamine * c. Prazosin * d. Bretylium * e. Atenolol
**c. Prazosin**
65
T/F: For most drugs, the half-life (t1/2) depends on the dose of drug administered
**False**
66
Nonselective beta-adrenergic blockers may be associated with the following adverse effects **except**: * a. bradycardia * b. sedation * c. bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients * d. AV-block * e. hypertension
**e. hypertension** Non-specific Beta-adrenergic antagonists (Beta-blockers) will cause reflex HYPOtension
67
All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT * a. hypertension * b. hyperthyroidism * c. ventricular tachyarrhythmias * d. glaucoma * e. urinary incontinence
**e. urinary incontinence**
68
Which of the following would not be appropriate as part of a “Triple Drip”? * Guaifenesin * Xylazine * Ketamine * Naloxone
**Naloxone**
69
What is the most potent positive inotrope?
Isoproterenol
70
Brimonidine is more commonly a human drug, but is often used in dogs for the treatment of:
**glaucoma** Brimonidine reduces aqueous humour formation
71
Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 selective agonist used in dogs and cats primarily for the treatment of:
**hypotension and shock** Phenylephrine increases vascular resistance May observe reflex bradycardia (so don't give to heart disease patients)
72
Phenoxybenzamine is a direct-acting alpha-antagonist used primarily in patients suffering from:
**urinary retention associated with internal sphincter** Phenoxybenzamine relaxes the internal sphincter muscle. It is often given with **diazepam, **which induces skeletal muscle relaxation with the muscles around the sphincter
73
Is propanolol a positive or negative inotrope?
Propanolol is a **negative inotrope** Decreases force of contraction
74
Which drug can be used to rapidly remove competitive neuromuscular blockers (such as Ruconurium) by chelation?
**Sugammadex** Sugammadex is an agent for reversal of neuromuscular blockade by the agent rocuronium in general anaesthesia.
75
**Dantrolene** is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-receptor antagonist
Dantrolene is a **_ryanodine_**-receptor antagonist It inhibits Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, resulting in muscle relaxation **Dantrolene is the drug of choice for treatment of *malignant hyperthermia***
76
Which muscle relaxant is used as an adjunct for treatment of acute inflammation and traumatic skeletal muscle conditions?
**Methocarbamol**
77
T/F: Guaifenesin can be used orally as an expectorant
**True** Increases the amount of mucous in the respiratory tract
78
Which of the following muscle relaxants has the SHORTEST duration of action in the horse? * tubocurarine * pancuronium * vecuronium * atacurium * succinylcholine
**succinylcholine** ~2-3 minutes
79
Which of the following drugs is PREFERRED as an antidote for non-depolarizing muscle relaxant overdose? * a. physostigmine * b. pyridostigmine * c. atropine * d. epinephrine * e. neostigmine
**neostigmine**
80
T/F: Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that requires energy
**False** Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that **_does not require energy_**
81
T/F: Generally, drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein tend to have short half-lives.
**False**
82
T/F: The rate of biotransformtion of drugs by the hepatic microsomal enzyme system depends MAINLY on their lipid solubility.
**True**
83
What is the MOST common cause of acute death in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity?
Respiratory failure
84
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors may have less systemic adverse effects because of a shorter duration of action? * a. physostigmine * b. neostigmine * c. edrophonium * d. pyridostigmine * e. organophosphate
**edrophonium**
85
Which of the following vasoconstrictor drugs is LEAST likely to cause tachycardia? * a. epinephrine * b. norepinephrine * c. phenylephrine * d. ephedrine * e. pseudoephedrine
c. **phenylephrine** Phenylephrine causes reflex BRADYcardia
86
Treatment of organophosphate poisoning include the following agents **except:** * a. atropine * b. 2-PAM * c. succinylcholine * d. activated charcoal * e. artificial respiration
c. **succinylcholine**
87
**Zilpaterol** is used in which species?
**Zilpaterol** is used in _cattle_ It is a non-selective ß-agonist used a a partitioning agent
88
**Ractopamine** and **Zilpaterol** both have a withdrawal time of:
**7 days**
89
A dog in your clinic is suffering from acute organophosphate toxicosis. You administer Atropine in order to control adverse clinical signs. Which of these will fail to cease? * Salivation * Tonic muscle contractions * Diarrhea * Miosis * All of these signs will cease with Atropine administration!
**Tonic muscle contractions** Tonic muscle contractions are nicotinic effects. Atropine is a competitive **muscarinic** antagonist
90
Modern drugs used for heart disease are all ____ agonists
Modern drugs used for heart disease are all **β1-agonists**
91
T/F: All α1 agonists will cause vasodilation
**False** All α1 agonists will cause **vaso**_constriction_****