Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RUSVM Pharmacology I > Pharm I Exam II > Flashcards

Pharm I Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Clenbuterol is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis in the dog

A

False.

Clenbuterol is used in horses and is used in the treatment of COPD, asthma, and acute bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brimonidine does which of the following?

  • Miosis
  • Decreases aqueous humour formation
  • Vasodilation
  • Decreases drainage angle
A

Brimonidine decreases aqueous humour formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is false regarding Pilocarpine?

  • It’s administered directly onto the eye
  • It increases the drainage angle
  • It decreases the production of aqueous humour
  • It decreases IOP
  • Contraindicated with anterior uveitis
A

decreases the production of aqueous humour

Pilocarpine does not do that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Bethenachol?

  • It is occasionally used to treat GI obstruction
  • It increases micturition via relaxation of the detrusor m.
  • Regardless of dose, it is specific to M3 receptors
  • It is indicated for use with urethral blockage
  • None of the above
A

None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Of the Muscarinic sub-types, which are excitatory?

  • M1 through M5 (all)
  • M2 and M4
  • M1, M3, and M5
  • All muscarinic receptors are inhibitory!
A

M1, M3, and M5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Succinylcholine, a muscle relaxant, is metabolized by tissue pseudocholinesterases. Upon administration to a cow and a cat, which would have a longer Mean Residence Time?

  • The cow would experience a longer MRT
  • The cat would have a longer MRT
  • They would have the same MRT
A

The cow would experience a longer MRT

Acts in one circulation time; duration of action in most species is about 2–3 minutes (except dog and ruminants = 20 minutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following reversible Achesterase inhibitors is administered directly onto the eye?

  • Neostigmine
  • Physostigmine
  • Echotiophate
  • Pyridostigmine
A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F Edrophonium is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to therapeutically treat Myasthenia Gravis

A

False.

Edrophonium is used to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would you not expect to see in a horse w/ Atropine administration?

  • Cycloplegia
  • Tachycardia
  • Adynamic ileus
  • Dry mouth
  • You would see all of the above!
A

You would see all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Regarding Isoxsuprine, all of the following are true except:

  • Used to treat laminitis
  • Tocolytic agent
  • α2 agonist/ β1 antagonist
  • Increases deformability of RBCs
  • All of these are true
A

α2 agonist/ β1 antagonist

Isoxsuprine is actually a β2 agonist/ α1 antagonist, but I tricked you because I’m a tricky mother f***er

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F: Phenoxybenzamine is the drug of choice for Pheochromocytoma

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is the best choice to treat urinary incontinence in a spayed bitch?

  • Antibiotics
  • Bethenachol
  • Phenylpropanolamine
  • Pralidoxime
  • None of the above
A

Phenylpropanolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is an anti-arrythmic, negative inotrope used to treat clinical signs associated with hyperthyroidism in the cat?

  • Atropine
  • Prazosin
  • Propanolol
  • Isoproterenol
A

Propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Use of propranolol is contraindicated with all of these except…

  • Asthma
  • Diabetes
  • CHF
  • Co-administration of Digitalis
  • All of these conditions are contraindicated
A

All of these conditions are contraindicated!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Isoproterenol?

  • Commonly used to treat bradycardia
  • The most potent positive inotrope
  • Causes uterine contraction
  • Leads to vasoconstriction
  • None of these are true
A

The most potent positive inotrope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following catecholamines is used topically on mucosal surfaces in order to prolong the effects of lidocaine?

  • Norepinephrine
  • Epinephrine
  • Isoproterenol
  • Dobutamine
  • None of these
A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Using 1st order kinetics, which of the following would lead to an increase of 1 half-life?

  • Add 50% more drug
  • Add 100% more drug
  • Wait 24 hours
  • Administer an enzyme inducer such as phenobarbital
A

Add 100% more drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Muscarinic receptors are SLOW and involve smooth m. contraction and glandular secretions. What type of receptors are these?

  • Ionotropic
  • Metabotropic
  • Nuclear
  • Kinase-coupled
  • Indirect
A

Metabotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Desensitization of receptors is what type of process?

  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Pharmacokinetic
  • Tachyphylaxis
  • None of the above
A

Pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A faster than normal heart rate at rest is known as

A

tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A slower than normal heart rate at rest is known as:

A

bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: M2 receptor activation results in tachycardia

A

False

M2 receptor activation results in bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drug reverses the effects of competitive neuromuscular blockers and treats myasthenia gravis?

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is glycopyrrolate given as a pre-anesthetic rather than atropine?

A

Glycopyrrolate is more specific to the heart and causes less tachyarrhythmia than atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dobutamine is a ß1 agonist that increases blood flow to all of the following arteries, except:

  • Coronary
  • Skeletal
  • Renal
  • Hepatic
  • Mesenteric
A

Hepatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which receptor do albuterol and clenbuterol work on?

A

β2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

You are about to perform surgery on a patient with pheochromocytoma. Which drug can you administer to prevent a dynamic change in BP?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where is the site of action for Guaifenesin and Methocarbamol?

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which muscles are affected last when giving a neuromuscular blocker?

A

diaphragm mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Can atropine be used as a bronchodilator?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Are catecholamines considered positive or negative inotropes?

A

Catecholamines are positive inotropes

(increase the force of muscle contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Epinephrine usually comes as a 1:1000 solution, but it should be diluted to at least ________ before it is used

A

1 : 10,000

Epinephrine usually comes as a 1:1000 solution, but it should be diluted to at least 1:10,000 before it is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: Aminopentamide is the drug of choice for treatment of diarrhea in small animals

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which dose of Dopamine would be appropriate for treatment of maldistributive shock?

  • Low dose
  • Low-med
  • Med-high
  • High dose
A

High dose

At low dose, it is a dopamine agonist; At medium-low and medium-high doses, it is a β1 agonist. If the animal is in shock, they are not able to contract their heart as well as we’d like, so we would want to activate α1 receptors. At high doses (10mg/kg/min), Dopamine is an α1 agonist, and can lead to vasoconstriction and increase in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T/F: Ractopamine is used in pigs, cattle, and turkeys

A

True

Ractopamine is a non-selective ß-agonist used as a partitioning agent (increased weight gain; increased feed efficiency; increased carcass leanness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F: Bethenecol, Phenoxybenzamine, and Prazosin may each be used in the treatment of excessive urinary retention

A

True

Bethenecol is an M3 agonist that acts to contract the detrusor and promote expulsion of urine.

Phenoxybenzamine and Prazosin are alpha-antagonists and act to relax the urethral sphincter muscles

38
Q

Which drug is commonly given with lidocaine to prolong analgesia?

A

epinephrine

39
Q

You need to do an eye exam on an older dog with heart disease. Why would you not want to use Phenylephrine in this case?

A

Phenylephrine causes reflex bradycardia

40
Q

Phenylpropanolamine is used in dogs with urinary incontinence. How does it work?

A

Phenylpropanolamine stimulates the release of NE in the urethra and neck of the bladder, enhancing urethral closure

41
Q

You are about to preform surgery on a patient with pheochromocytoma. What drug can you administer to prevent a dynamic change in BP?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

42
Q

You performed a necropsy on a patient. Previously the patient had been diagnosed with feline hyperthyroidism. Your patient’s heart is on the right, with the yellow arrows.

What is the condition called?

What could you have given this patient to prevent this condition from occurring?

A

Myocardial hypertrophy

Propanolol is used in cases of feline hyperthyroidism to prevent myocardial hypertrophy

43
Q

Which of the following indirect sympatholytics, blocks the release of NE?

  • Alpha-methyl DOPA
  • Reserpine
  • Bretylium
A

**Bretylium **blocks NE release

Alpha-methyl DOPA blocks DOPA decarboxylase; Reserpine blocks vesicular monoamine transporters

44
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

45
Q

When Succinylcholine is given in conjunction with catecholamines, what can the combination cause?

A

arrhythmias

46
Q

What is the definition of a veterinary drug?

A

Products that are used to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent diseases

47
Q

What is the mechanism of action for non-depolarizing (competitive) neuromuscular blockers?

A

Competitive antagonism with Ach for nicotinic receptors at the motor-end plate

48
Q

T/F: Artificial respiration is not required with the administration of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

A

False

49
Q

Bethenecol is a selective agonist for which muscarinic receptor?

A

M3

50
Q

What is the general action of parasympatholytic drugs?

A

Parasympatholytics act as muscarinic antagonists and prevent the actions of Ach at PSNS target tissues

51
Q

Which drug is considered the best in the field for treatment of anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine

52
Q

Why is epinephrine not administered orally?

A

It undergoes first-pass metabolism and is not absorbed when administered orally.

Epinephrine is given by inhalation or parenterally (IV, IM, SC)

53
Q

Dopamine, depending on the dose, can acts as either a vasodilator or a vasoconstrictor

A

True.

At a low dose, it is a dopamine receptor agonist and causes renal, mesenteric arteriole vasodilation

At a high dose, it acts at alpha-1 receptors and causes vasoconstriction

54
Q

How is dopamine administered?

A

IV Infusion!

It is always given by infusion. If given extravascularly, it can cause necrosis (due to its alkalinity)

55
Q

T/F: Nicotinic and Muscarinic receptors are both considered cholinergic receptors

A

True

56
Q

What is the most widely used alpha-1 agonist in dogs suffering from urinary incontinence?

A

Phenylpropanolamine

57
Q

Which adrenergic receptor does **Clenbuterol **act on?

A

B2

58
Q

Name the drug(s) used to induce bronchodilation in cases of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

A

Albuterol/Clenbuterol

59
Q

Name the beta-agonist that has been reported to increase deformability of erythrocytes

A

Isoxsuprine

60
Q

What is the only widely used ß-adrenergic antagonist in veterinary medicine?

A

Propanolol

(because it is cheap, not because it is a great drug)

61
Q

Which species is more sensitive to dose-dependent hemolysis with Guaifenesin: horses or cattle?

A

Cattle are more sensitive to dose-dependent hemolysis with Guaifenesin

Concentrations higher than 5% can cause hemolysis in cattle.

Concentration higher than 10% can cause hemolysis in horses.

62
Q

Regarding Guaifenesin use in food animals: What is the withdrawal time for meat? Milk?

A

Meat: 3 days

Milk: 2 days

63
Q

Which of the following agents can be used to enhance renal excretion of aspirin in cats?

  • a. atropine
  • b. ammonium chloride
  • c. epinephrine
  • d. sodium bicarbonate
  • e. methionine
A

d. sodium bicarbonate

64
Q

Which of the following drugs is a selective alpha-1 blocker?

  • a. Pirenzepine
  • b. Phenylpropanolamine
  • c. Prazosin
  • d. Bretylium
  • e. Atenolol
A

c. Prazosin

65
Q

T/F: For most drugs, the half-life (t1/2) depends on the dose of drug administered

A

False

66
Q

Nonselective beta-adrenergic blockers may be associated with the following adverse effects except:

  • a. bradycardia
  • b. sedation
  • c. bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients
  • d. AV-block
  • e. hypertension
A

e. hypertension

Non-specific Beta-adrenergic antagonists (Beta-blockers) will cause reflex HYPOtension

67
Q

All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT

  • a. hypertension
  • b. hyperthyroidism
  • c. ventricular tachyarrhythmias
  • d. glaucoma
  • e. urinary incontinence
A

e. urinary incontinence

68
Q

Which of the following would not be appropriate as part of a “Triple Drip”?

  • Guaifenesin
  • Xylazine
  • Ketamine
  • Naloxone
A

Naloxone

69
Q

What is the most potent positive inotrope?

A

Isoproterenol

70
Q

Brimonidine is more commonly a human drug, but is often used in dogs for the treatment of:

A

glaucoma

Brimonidine reduces aqueous humour formation

71
Q

Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 selective agonist used in dogs and cats primarily for the treatment of:

A

hypotension and shock

Phenylephrine increases vascular resistance

May observe reflex bradycardia (so don’t give to heart disease patients)

72
Q

Phenoxybenzamine is a direct-acting alpha-antagonist used primarily in patients suffering from:

A

urinary retention associated with internal sphincter

Phenoxybenzamine relaxes the internal sphincter muscle. It is often given with **diazepam, **which induces skeletal muscle relaxation with the muscles around the sphincter

73
Q

Is propanolol a positive or negative inotrope?

A

Propanolol is a negative inotrope

Decreases force of contraction

74
Q

Which drug can be used to rapidly remove competitive neuromuscular blockers (such as Ruconurium) by chelation?

A

Sugammadex

Sugammadex is an agent for reversal of neuromuscular blockade by the agent rocuronium in general anaesthesia.

75
Q

Dantrolene is a _________-receptor antagonist

A

Dantrolene is a ryanodine-receptor antagonist

It inhibits Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, resulting in muscle relaxation

Dantrolene is the drug of choice for treatment of malignant hyperthermia

76
Q

Which muscle relaxant is used as an adjunct for treatment of acute inflammation and traumatic skeletal muscle conditions?

A

Methocarbamol

77
Q

T/F: Guaifenesin can be used orally as an expectorant

A

True

Increases the amount of mucous in the respiratory tract

78
Q

Which of the following muscle relaxants has the SHORTEST duration of action in the horse?

  • tubocurarine
  • pancuronium
  • vecuronium
  • atacurium
  • succinylcholine
A

succinylcholine

~2-3 minutes

79
Q

Which of the following drugs is PREFERRED as an antidote for non-depolarizing muscle relaxant overdose?

  • a. physostigmine
  • b. pyridostigmine
  • c. atropine
  • d. epinephrine
  • e. neostigmine
A

neostigmine

80
Q

T/F: Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that requires energy

A

False

Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that does not require energy

81
Q

T/F: Generally, drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein tend to have short half-lives.

A

False

82
Q

T/F: The rate of biotransformtion of drugs by the hepatic microsomal enzyme system depends MAINLY on their lipid solubility.

A

True

83
Q

What is the MOST common cause of acute death in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity?

A

Respiratory failure

84
Q

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors may have less systemic adverse effects because of a shorter duration of action?

  • a. physostigmine
  • b. neostigmine
  • c. edrophonium
  • d. pyridostigmine
  • e. organophosphate
A

edrophonium

85
Q

Which of the following vasoconstrictor drugs is LEAST likely to cause tachycardia?

  • a. epinephrine
  • b. norepinephrine
  • c. phenylephrine
  • d. ephedrine
  • e. pseudoephedrine
A

c. phenylephrine

Phenylephrine causes reflex BRADYcardia

86
Q

Treatment of organophosphate poisoning include the following agents except:

  • a. atropine
  • b. 2-PAM
  • c. succinylcholine
  • d. activated charcoal
  • e. artificial respiration
A

c. succinylcholine

87
Q

Zilpaterol is used in which species?

A

Zilpaterol is used in cattle

It is a non-selective ß-agonist used a a partitioning agent

88
Q

Ractopamine and Zilpaterol both have a withdrawal time of:

A

7 days

89
Q

A dog in your clinic is suffering from acute organophosphate toxicosis. You administer Atropine in order to control adverse clinical signs. Which of these will fail to cease?

  • Salivation
  • Tonic muscle contractions
  • Diarrhea
  • Miosis
  • All of these signs will cease with Atropine administration!
A

Tonic muscle contractions

Tonic muscle contractions are nicotinic effects. Atropine is a competitive muscarinic antagonist

90
Q

Modern drugs used for heart disease are all ____ agonists

A

Modern drugs used for heart disease are all β1-agonists

91
Q

T/F: All α1 agonists will cause vasodilation

A

False

All α1 agonists will cause vasoconstriction**

RUSVM Pharmacology I (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions