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pharm final Flashcards

1
Q

3 types of names every drug has?

A

Chemical, generic, and trade

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2
Q

The term used to describe when one-half of the original amount of a drug has been removed from or inactivated in the body

A

half-life

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3
Q

The study of drugs and their interactions with living systems?

A

Pharmacology

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4
Q

The best route to get 100% bio-availability

A

IV

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5
Q

The physiologic reason why you must give 6.5mg of nitroglycerin orally to get the same effect as 0.15mg sublingually?

A

The first pass effect

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6
Q

Other than pain, the most important nursing assessment to make prior to administering morphine?

A

respiratory rate / respirations

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7
Q

Primary organ damages as a result of acute acetaminophen toxicity?

A

Liver

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8
Q

Fentanyl (Duragesic) patches are typically changed at this frequency

A

72 hours or 3 days

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9
Q

Other than nausea, the most common GI side effect of opioids?

A

Constipation

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10
Q

Drug of choice for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression?

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

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11
Q

Primary neurotransmitter of PNS?

A

acetylcholine

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12
Q

Effects of an Alpha-1 agonist on blood vessels?

A

Vasoconstriction

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13
Q

Have a short duration of action, cannot be given orally, and do not cross the BBB?

A

Catecholamines

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14
Q

Drug of choice for cholinergic crisis?

A

Atropine

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15
Q

What each of the letters in the acronym SLUDGE means?

A 
INCREASE
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
GI motility/secretions
Emesis
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16
Q

The prototype loop diuretic

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

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17
Q

Of hydrochlorothiazide and spironolactone, the one that you dont have to encourage increase intake of potassium with?

A

Spironolactone

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18
Q

Prototype osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral edema?

A

Mannitol

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19
Q

According to JVC VII quidelines, this is the first drug or classification of drugs of choice to treat hypertension without other compelling indicators

A

Hydrochlorothiazide or the thiazide diuretic

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20
Q

Effects of aldosterone on NA+, H2O, and K+

A

Retention of Na+ and H2O; promotes excretion of K+

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21
Q

The organ at risk for toxicity when doxorubicin (Adriamycin) is admnistered?

A

Heart (cardiotoxicity)

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22
Q

Most common class of lipid lowering agents; unexplained muscle aches should be reported.

A

Statins

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23
Q

Antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

Vitamin K

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24
Q

Primary side effect of the fibrates-lipid lowering agents

A

Gall-stones

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25
Q

Primary side effect of the bile acid sequestrants-lipid lowering agents

A

Constipation

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26
Q

Used to treat viral infections as well as Parkinson’s disease

A

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

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27
Q

Anti-epileptic agent that commonly causes gingival hyperplasia with long term use

A

phenytoin (Dilantin)

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28
Q

Naturally occuring precursor of dopamine that does cross the BBB?

A

levodopa

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29
Q

A newer anti-epileptic drug approved only for adjunctive therapy of partial seizures; also used as an adjuvant to treat neuropathic pain.

A

gapapentin (Neurotin)

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30
Q

This group of drugs was once used commonly for depression, but are used less frequently now due to the risk of fatal cardiac dysrhytmias with an overdose?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

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31
Q

A powerful analgesic, but minimal anti-inflammatory actions; offers pain relief equivalent to opioids; indicated for short term used only - 5 days

A

ketorolac (Toradol)

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32
Q

Drug proven successful in preventing gastric ulcers associated with NSAIDS use

A

misoprostol (Cytotec)

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33
Q

The effects on platelet coagulation of a nonselective COX inhibitor

A

decrease

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34
Q

The only COX 2 selective inhibitor still available

A

Celecoxib (Celebrex)

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35
Q

Three primary effects of COX 1

A
  • Protection of gastric mucosa
  • Supports renal function
  • Promotes platelet aggregation
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36
Q

What the BODY does the drug?

A

Pharmacokinetics

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37
Q

What the DRUG does to the body?

A

Pharmacodynamics

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38
Q

Duration of action of drugs that are tightly protein bound?

A

Long

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39
Q

Delivery of action of drug that are tightly protein bound?

A

Distribution

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40
Q

What are ALT and AST?

A

Liver enzymes

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41
Q

Results of nonselective beta 2 agonist on the lungs?

A

Bronchodilation

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42
Q

What Alpha 2 agonist inhibit the release of this catecholamine?

A

Norepinephrine

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43
Q

Word used to describe effects on contractility on the heart?

A

inotropic

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44
Q

Class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, HF, migraine, HA, and stage fright?

A

Beta Blockers

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45
Q

Another word used to describe drugs that mimic the effects of the SNS?

A

Sympathomimetics

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46
Q

Number of half-lives it takes to reach steady state?

A

4

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47
Q

The major dose-limiting factor for interferon therapy?

A

Fatigue

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48
Q

Rationale for giving pyridoxine alone with isoniazid (INH)

A

Prevention of peripheral neuropathy

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49
Q

The only category of laxative that is safe for long-term use?

A

Bulk-forming laxative

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50
Q

Labs that must be monitored when administering cyclosporine?

A

BUN and Creatinine

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51
Q

An electrolyte imbalance that increases a client’s risk for digoxin toxicity

A

hypokalemia

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52
Q

Nitrates should not be taken concurrently with drugs used for erectile dysfunction because of risk of what?

A

Dangerous hypotension

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53
Q

The potassium sparing diuretic given to nearly all clients with HF?

A

spironolactone (Aldactone)

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54
Q

Reason why ACE inhibitors are believed to be a good choice for BP control in diabetic clients?

A

renoprotective qualities

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55
Q

A chronic cough can be a troublesome side effect of this class of antihypertensives?

A

ACE inhibitors

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56
Q

Target goal of hemoglobin A1C in diabetic clients?

A

6.5-7.0

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57
Q

Onset of action (in minutes) of lispro (humalog) insulin?

A

5-15 minutes

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58
Q

Type of insulin typically referred to as basal insulin?

A

Lantus and Levemir

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59
Q

Lab value that should be monitored following any type of “dye” procedure when a client takes metformin?

A

creatinine

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60
Q

Hypoglycemia symptoms include?

A

HA, confusion, drowsiness, fatigue, and feeling hot (flush)

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61
Q

Effect of antihistamine on the blood vessel?

A

Vasoconstriction

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62
Q

Common problem with overuse of nasal decongestion?

A

rebound congestion

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63
Q

An anticholinergic inhaler used for bronchodilation?

A

ipratropium (atrovent)

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64
Q

Rationale for using corticosteroids for respiratory disorders such as asthma? How do they help?

A

Provide potent anti-inflammatory effects

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65
Q

Cross-sensitivity can occur with PCN allergy and this group of antibiotics?

A

cephalosporins

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66
Q

Classification of antibiotics commonly used to treat urinary tract infections because of its high concentration in the kidneys?

A

sulfonamides

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67
Q

Two organs of increased risk of toxicity for clients receiving aminoglycosides?

A

kidneys and ears

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68
Q

This should be avoided when a client is receiving metronidiazole (Flagyl)?

A

Alcohol

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69
Q

The word used to describe an infection caused by large doses of antibiotics that kill the normal flora?

A

super/suprainfection

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70
Q

The lab value that must be monitored frequently when administering clozapine (Clozaril)?

A

WBC count

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71
Q

What are the 2 types of chemotherapy agents?

A
  1. Cell cycle specific

2. Non cell cycle specific

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72
Q

(T/F) Chemotherap drugs are more effective to cells that have a high growth fraction (Rapid proliferation).

A

True. Sounds like this is a good thing but really means its hard to get ahead of the growth

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73
Q

What is the implication to chemotherapy drugs having a low therapeutic index?

A

The low therapeutic index is dose limiting. There is a fine line between therapeutic levels and toxic levels.

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74
Q

What is Nadir?

A

The lowest level of WBC following chemo treatment

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75
Q

What percentage of malignant cells must be killed for a cancer to be “cured”?

A

100%

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76
Q

Why is there a poor response to chemo from solid tumors?

A

They typically have a low growth fraction and so they are less responsive to cytotoxic drugs

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77
Q

They typically have a low growth fraction and so they are less responsive to cytotoxic drugs?

A

Solid tumors

Wear gloves when handling the drug

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78
Q

What are the obstacles to successful chemotherapy?

A
  1. Toxicity to normal cells
  2. Nadir- can require interruption to scheduled chemotherapy.
  3. Cure requires 100% of malignant cells to be killed.
  4. Absence of early detection
  5. Poor response of solid tumors
  6. Drug resistance
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79
Q

What are the general toxicities of chemotherapy

A
  1. Bone marrow suppression
  2. Digestive tract injury
  3. Alopecia
  4. Reproductive toxicity
  5. Hyperuricemia (increased blood uric acid)
  6. Local injury from extravasation
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80
Q

What are the results of bone marrow suppression?

A
  1. Neutropenia
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Anemia
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81
Q

What digestive tract injuries are caused by chemotherapy?

A
  1. Stomatitis- inflammation of the stoma (oral cavity-mouth)
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Nausea/vomiting
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82
Q

What do antimetabolities, folic acid antagonism do?

A

Inhibit formation of folic acid which is needed for cell reproduction

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83
Q

What is Methotrexate? What is the antidote for it?

A
  1. A common folic acid antagonism drug

2. Leucovorin

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84
Q

What type of drugs are toxic only to cells that are passing through a particular phase of the cell cycle?

A

cell Cycle-Specific Antineoplastic Drugs

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85
Q

What are purine antagonism used predominately used for?

A

Leukemias and Lymphomas

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86
Q

What do Mitotic inhibitors do?

A

Each drug inhibits mitosis in some way.

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87
Q

What is a critical administration issue for Vincristine?

A

It must NEVER be given intrathecally (directly into spinal canal)

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88
Q

What type of drug is paclitaxel (Taxol)?

A

A chemotherapy drug

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89
Q

What is a nursing consideration for cisplatin (Platinol)? Why?

A

Requires extensive hydration to minimize risk of neprotoxicity

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90
Q

What would you want to monitor in a patient who is taking cisplatin (Platinol) or cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

A

BUN and creatinine

91
Q

What do Topoisomerase inhibitors treat?

A

ovarian and colorectal cancer

92
Q

What is Topoisomerase inhibitors common drug? What does it cause?

A

irinotecan (Camptosar)

causes severe diarrhea

93
Q

What are Antineoplastic enzymes used to treat?

A

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

94
Q

What are the 2 types of Alkylating drugs?

A

cispatin (Platinol)

cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

95
Q

What must be done when taking cisplatin (Platinol) and cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

A

extensive hydration to minimize risk of nephrotoxicity

96
Q

What are Cytotoxic antibiotics used for? Route?

A

Treat cancer, not infections Parenterally, generally IV

97
Q

What precaution should a nurse take who is administering a cytotoxic antibitotic?

A

wear gloves

98
Q

What is a common drug for cytotoxic antibiotics?

A

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

99
Q

What is the primary concern for Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)?

A

cardiotoxicity

100
Q

What is doxorubicin (Adriamycin) cardiotoxicity related to? Why?

A

The total cumulative dose. There is a lifetime max on this drug.

101
Q

What should you be sure to tell a patient who is taking doxorbicin (Adriamycin)?

A

Urine may turn a reddish color for a few days

102
Q

Is doxorubicin (Adriamycin) related cardiotoxicity going to acute or delayed?

A

Both

103
Q

What is stanard treatment for chronic myeloid leukemia?

A

Imatinib (Gleevac)

104
Q

What are drugs that alter body’s response to disease (cancer, autoimmune disease)?

A

Biologic response modifiers

105
Q

What do Biologic Response Modifiers do to the body’s immune system?

A

can enhance or restrict

106
Q

What drugs promote synthesis or various types of major blood components ?

A

Hematopoietic drugs

107
Q

Are hematopoietic drugs directly toxic to cancer cells?

A

No, but they do have benefits in cancer treatments

108
Q

What do hematopoietic drugs do?

A

decrease the duration of chemotherapy induced anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia

109
Q

What must the patient have for epoetin alpha (Epogen, Procit) to be effective?

A

adequate stores of iron

110
Q

When should epoetin alpha (Epogen, Procrit) not be given to cancer patients?

A

Hgb is >12

111
Q

What does filgrastin (Neupogen) do?

A

increases body production of granulocytes

112
Q

What is filgrasin (Neupogen) used for?

A

Prevent / treat febrile neutropenia

113
Q

When should filgrastin (Neupogen) be given?

A

Before a patient develops an infection

114
Q

What is oprelvekin (Neumega) used for?

A

prevention of chemotherapy induced severe thrombocytopenia

115
Q

What are inferons used for?

A

treat viruses and to treat cancer

116
Q

What are interferons common adverse effect?

A

flu-like symptoms and fatigue

117
Q

How are interferons given?

A

parenterally

118
Q

What are Monoclonal antibodies used for?

A

treat cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, MS

119
Q

What do Monoclonal antibodies end in?

A

-mab

120
Q

What does xi before -mab mean?

A

comes from non-human source

121
Q

What does zu before -mab mean?

A

comes from human source

122
Q

What does tu in the name mean?

A

targets a tumor directly

123
Q

What does cu in the name mean?

A

targets vessels and inhibits angiogenesis (cutting off the blood supply to a tumor)

124
Q

What does li in the name mean?

A

targets the immune system

125
Q

What does vi in the name mean?

A

targets virus

126
Q

What is cetuximab (Erbitux) used for?

A

metastatic colon cancer

127
Q

What is trastuzuman (Herception) used for?

A

used in breast cancer

128
Q

What does bevacizumab (Avastin) do?

A

inhibits angiogenesis

129
Q

What is rituximab (Rituxan) used for?

A

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

130
Q

What is palixizumba used for?

A

prevention of RSV infections in select populations

131
Q

What is alemtuzumab (Campath) used for?

A

treat chronic lymphocytic leukemias

132
Q

What is gemtuzumab ozogamicin (Mylotarg) used for?

A

treat acute myelocytic leukemias

133
Q

What do Disease Modifying Antirheumatoid Arthritis Drugs (DMARDS) exhibit?

A
  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Anti-arthritis
  • Immunomodulating effects
134
Q

What are the primary concerns with immunosuppressants?

A
  1. Increased risk of infection

2. Increased risk of neoplasms

135
Q

What do immunosuppressants do?

A

inhibits immune response

136
Q

What are the two primary indications for immunosuppressants?

A
  • Prevention of organ rejection in transplant clients

- Treatment of autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, MS, systemic lupus

137
Q

What effect can immunosuppressants have on vaccines?

A

reduce their effectiveness

138
Q

What are the special considerations for administration of immunosuppressants?

A
  1. Don’t take on an empty stomach to avoid GI upset

2. Don’t mix oral solutions in a styrofoam cup because meds can adhere to sides

139
Q

What special instructions should be given to female patients receiving immunosuppressants?

A

Use contraception during treatments and for up to 12 weeks after treatment ends

140
Q

What is an allogenic transplant?

A

A transplant between genetically nonidentical individuals of the same species

141
Q

What is the drug of choice for preventing organ rejection following allogenic transplantation?

A

cyclosporine

142
Q

What drug is often given in conjunction with cyclosporine and why?

A

Glucocorticoids because they are also immunosuppressants so you are doubling up

143
Q

What is very common concern with cyclosporine? How can you monitor for it? What can you do if it happens?

A
  1. Nephrotoxicity
  2. Monitor BUN and creatinine levels
  3. It is usually reversible following dosage reduction
144
Q

How is cyclosporine administered?

A

IV or oral

145
Q

Why should a patient starting cyclosporine have a baseline?

A

oral assessment performed, it can cause gingival hyperplasia

146
Q

What effect can grapefruit juice have on cyclosporine?

A

It can inhibit metabolism of cyclosporine and which will raise the serum levels and increase the risk of toxicity

147
Q

What can Azathioprine (Imuran) cause?

A

bone marrow suppression
reduced fertility
alopecia

148
Q

What is a major concern for Azathioprine (Imuran)

A
  • Leukopenia (neutropenia)

- Thrombocytopenia

149
Q

What is the route of administration for CellCept

A

SC

150
Q

What is unique about orthoclone OKT3?

A

It is the only drug available for reversal and prevention of graft rejection

151
Q

What is a major adverse effect of orthoclone OKT3? What do you do to monitor for it?

A
  1. Pulmonary edema

2. Get a chest X-ray within 24 hours of starting treatment

152
Q

What must be done prior to starting orthoclone OKT3?

A

You must get a baseline weight to monitor for heart and lung issues

153
Q

What are antifungal used in?

A

Systemic and topical fungal infections

154
Q

What are general toxicities of antifungals?

A
  1. Hepatotoxicity

2. Nephrotoxicity

155
Q

What must be monitored in patients taking antifungals?

A
  1. BUN
  2. Creatinine
  3. Liver enzymes
156
Q

What is amphotericin used to treat?

A

progressive and potentially fatal systemic fungal infections

157
Q

What condition in a patient would indicate caution should be used in Rx amphotericin B? Why?

A
  1. Renal impairment

2. Nephrotoxicity is a serious adverse effect that occurs in 80+% of patients recieving amphotercin B IV

158
Q

What are the “other” common side effects of amphotericin B? What can be done to decrease the effects?

A
  1. HA
  2. chills
  3. fever
  4. hypotension
  5. nausea/vomiting
  6. premedicate with hydrocortisone or ibuprofen
  7. slow administration
159
Q

What must you monitor the IV site of amphotericin B for?

A

extravasation

160
Q

What is fluconazole (Diflucan) for?

A

suppress vulvovaginal candidiasis

161
Q

What is special about fluconazole ( Diflucan)? What does that make it effective in treating?

A
  1. It can penetrate the CSF

2. Crytomeningitis

162
Q

What is nystatin (Mycostatin) used to Tx and how is it administered?

A
  1. Thrust- oral (Swish and swallow)
  2. Diaper rash- topically
  3. Yeast infection- intravaginally
163
Q

If a patient is NPO how should you administer nystatin?

A

dip a spongette in the nystatin and treat the mouth

164
Q

What drug(s) is/are used to Tx Aspergillus?

A
  1. caspofungin (Cacidas)

2. voriconazole (VFEND)

165
Q

A patient has just been admitted to the hospital and has been prescribed an antibiotic. What is the first thing a nurse should do?

A

Obtain a culture BEFORE starting the antibiotics. Cultures obtained after antibiotics are started will be inaccurate. Once the culture has been collected start the antibiotics.

166
Q

Define Empiric Therapy

A

giving an antibiotic BEFORE a culture has identified a specific causative organism

167
Q

Define Definitive Therapy?

A

giving antibiotics AFTER a culture has grown and the specific causative organism has been identified

168
Q

What is a superinfection / suprainfection?

A

A side effect of antibiotic therapy where the antibiotics reduce or eliminate normal bacterial flora allowing other bacteria or fungus to take over and cause infection.

169
Q

If a patient on antibiotics gets diarrhea what should the nurse be aware of?

A

the patient could develop a C. diff infection

170
Q

What are the 2 main factors contributing to antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Over-prescribing of antibiotics

2. Patients not completing the entire course of prescribed antibiotics

171
Q

What are the categories of beta-lactam antibiotics?

A
  1. PCN
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Carbapenems
  4. Monobactams
172
Q

What is beta-lactamase?

A

an enzyme that makes bacteria resistant to antibiotics

173
Q

What is the most common cause of drug allergy?

A

PCN

174
Q

Is PCN a bactericidal or bacteriostatic? What is it most effective against?

A

Bactericidal

gram-positive organism

175
Q

What does PCN have cross reactivity to?

A

cephalosporin

176
Q

Does a PCN allergy contraindicate the use of cephalosporin?

A

not unless anaphylaxis was involved

177
Q

What is clavulanic acid?

A

a beta lactamase inhibitor

178
Q

What is tazoactam?

A

a beta lactamase inhibitor

179
Q

What is sulbactum?

A

a beta lactamase inhibitor

180
Q

What is important to remember about nafcillin?

A

it is extremely irritating to veins

181
Q

How many generations of cephalosporins are there?

A

5

182
Q

What changes from one generation to the next?

A

As you progress from first generation to later generation you get:

  1. Increased effectiveness against gram-negative organisms
  2. Increase resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases
  3. Increased ability to cross the brain barrier
183
Q

When a client is going to be taking a cephalosporin what should you tell them regarding drinking alcohol?

A

It depends. Some cephalosporins can cause a reaction with alcohol so you should check the specific one they will be taking and if there is a reaction teach about it

184
Q

What generation of cephalosporin starts to cross the blood brain barrier?

A

third generation

185
Q

Are carbapenems bacterial or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

186
Q

With carbapenems there is an increased risk for what?

A

drug induced seizures

187
Q

Which carbapenem has the highest risk of seizures?

A

imipenem/cilastatin (Primax)

188
Q

Are tetracyclines bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

189
Q

What is the effect of administering tetracyclines with antacids?

A

it decreases absorption. The same is true for milk and calcium

190
Q

What happens to children younger than 8 years old who are administered tetracyclines?

A

Their teeth can be discolored

191
Q

What is a common side effect of tetracycline?

A

photosensitivity

192
Q

Are sulfonamides bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

193
Q

Where do sulfonamides achieve a high concentration and what are they used to treat?

A
  1. the kidneys

2. UTI

194
Q

What are nursing considerations for sulfonamides?

A
  1. Allergic reactions are common
  2. Photosensitivity is common
  3. Delayed reactions are common
  4. You must encourage increased fluid intake to avoid crystalluria
195
Q

Are aminoglycosides bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

196
Q

What should be monitored in a patient taking an aminoglycoside and why?

A

Hearing (tinnitus, feeling of fullness in ears) becuase ototoxicity is an adverse effect. Check BUN and creatinine levels because nephrotoxicity is an adverse effect

197
Q

How good is the bioavailability of quinolones?

A

Excellent, almost as good orally as parentally

198
Q

What is the generic suffic for quinolones?

A

flaxacin

199
Q

What are the side effects of quinolones?

A
  1. Prolonged QT / cardiac dysrhythmias

2. joint rupture / tendonitis

200
Q

What should you monitor in a patient taking clindamycin (Cleocin)?

A
  1. CBC

2. watch for C.diff

201
Q

What is linezolid (Zyvox) use to treat?

A

VRE

202
Q

What is nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) commonly used for?

A

UTIs

203
Q

What are the general considerations for antibiotics?

A
  1. give on time
  2. don’t give with antacids, milk, or calcium as these will decrease absorption
  3. hypersensitivity reaction may be delayed
  4. oral contraceptives may be ineffective
204
Q

What is the most common use for anti-malarial in the USA?

A

for prophylaxis for people traveling to high risk regions

205
Q

What is the prevention protocol for antimalarial drugs?

A

Varies from med to med but…

  1. commonly starts 2 weeks before exposure and continues for several weeks.
  2. may be taken one time / week
  3. take with at least 6-8 oz of water
206
Q

Which type of organism does metronidazole (Flagyl) have especially good activity against? give examples…

A
  1. anaerobic organisms

2. peptostreptococcus spp, Eubacterium spp, Bacteroidsspp, Clostridium spp

207
Q

What is metrondiazole (Flagyl) used for?

A

intraabdominal, gynecological, and protozoal infection

protozoal infections such as amebiasis and trichomoniasis

208
Q

What route of administration is given of metronidazole (Flagyl) to treat antibiotic related colitis?

A

oral

209
Q

What are the available routes of administration for metronidazole (Flagyl)?

A

oral and injectable forms

210
Q

What are the adverse effects of metronidazole (Flagyl)?

A
  1. dizziness
  2. HA
  3. GI discomfort
  4. nasal congestion
  5. reversible neutropenia
  6. reversible thrombocytopenia
211
Q

When are antivirals most effective?

A

when viruses are replicating

212
Q

What is the action of antiviral agents?

A

interfere with DNA replication of the virus

213
Q

What are the uses for antiviral agents?

A

herpes simplex (I & II)
RSV
HIV/AIDS
influence A & B

214
Q

Nursing implications for antivirals agents?

A

gloves if contact with lesions

monitor IV use carefully; prevent phlebitis

215
Q

What is acyclovir (Zovirax) used for? How do you administer it? Check levels?

A
  • Herpes simplex
  • Take with full glass of water to prevent crystallization of the drug nephron
  • BUN and creatinine
216
Q

What is ribavirin (Vizarole) used for? Administered when? Contraindication?

A
  • RSV
  • by inhalation
  • toxic to fetus during pregnancy
217
Q

What is amantadine (Symmetrel) used for?

A

Influenza A

218
Q

What is gancicolvir (Cytovene) used for? Side effects?

A
  • CMV

- Bone marrow suppression

219
Q

What is zostavax?

A

Vaccine for prevention of herpes shingles in patient 60+ years old

220
Q

What are HIV/AIDS drugs focus?

A

preventing viral replication (decrease viral load)

221
Q

When is viral load considered to be an undetectable viral load?

A

viral load less than 50 copies/mL

222
Q

What is the current mode of treating HIV/AIDS?

A

highly active antiretroviral therapy

223
Q

What are fusion inhibitors used for?

A

inhibits viral fusion (process by which HIV)

Pharm (6 decks)

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