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Pharmacology > Pharm Final > Flashcards

Pharm Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are 2 contradictions of antacids?

A

severe renal failure
GI obstruction

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2
Q

What are 2 examples of H2 receptor antagonists?

A

cimetidine (tagamet)
famotidine (pepcid)

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3
Q

What are 2 contraindications of H2 receptor antagonists?

A

liver and kidney dysfunction

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4
Q

What is the drug ending for PPIs?

A

-prazole

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5
Q

What group of meds are antidiarrheals? (4)

A

adsorbents
anticholinergic drugs & opiates
probiotics

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6
Q

What drugs are adsorbents? (3)

A

bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)
activated charcoal
cholestyramine

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7
Q

What drugs are anticholinergics? (3)

A

belladonna alkaloids
diphenoxylate + atropine (lomotil)
loperamide (imodium)

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8
Q

What are examples of probiotics

A

lactobacillus

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9
Q

What are 2 contraindications for antidiarrheals?

A

intestinal obstruction
colitis

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10
Q

What is a contraindication for bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)?

A

children with Reye’s syndrome

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11
Q

What are 4 S/E of bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)?

A

increased bleeding time
dark stools
blue gums
confusion

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12
Q

What meds are laxatives? (5)

A

bulk forming
emollient
hyper-osmotic
saline
stimulant

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13
Q

What meds are bulk forming laxatives? (2)

A

psyllium (Metamucil)
methylcellulose (citrucel)

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14
Q

What meds are emollient laxatives? (2)

A

docusate sodium (colace)
mineral oil

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15
Q

What meds are hyperosmotic laxatives? (2)

A

plyethylene glycol (GoLYTELY, Miralax)
lactulose

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16
Q

What meds are saline laxatives? (3)

A

magnesium citrate
magnesium hydroxide (MOM)
fleets enema

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17
Q

What meds are stimulant laxatives? (2)

A

senna (senokot)
bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

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18
Q

What is contraindicated with laxatives?

A

intestinal obstructions

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19
Q

What meds are for IBS associated diarrhea? (3)

A

alosetron (Lotronex)
Rifazimin (Xifaxan)
Eluxadoline (Viberzi)

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20
Q

What meds are for IBS associated constipation? (2)

A

lubiprostone (amitiza)
linacotide (linzess)

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21
Q

What anticholinergic reduce nausea?

A

scopolamine-transdermal

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22
Q

What antihistamines reduce nausea? (4)

A

dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
meclizine (Antivert)
hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

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23
Q

What antidopaminergics reduce nausea? (2)

A

prochlorperazine (Compazine)
promethazine (Phenergan)

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24
Q

What prokinetics reduce nausea?

A

metoclopramide (reglan)

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25
Q

What serotinin blockers reduce nausea?

A

ondansetron (Zofran)

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26
Q

What are anticholinergic S/E? (6)

A

dizziness
drowsiness
hypotension
tachycardia
headache
diarrhea

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27
Q

What is a S/E of Reglan?

A

long-term use may cause irreversible tardive dyskinesia

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28
Q

What is a S/E of serotonin blockers?

A

prolonged QT interval

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29
Q

What are 2 indications of vitamin A?

A

dietary supplements: infants, pregnant, and nursing women
skin conditions

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30
Q

What are indications of vitamin D? (7)

A

rickets
tetany
osteomalacia
prevention of osteoporosis
treatment of hypocalcemia, hypoparathyroidism, and hypophosphatemia

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31
Q

What are 2 indications of Vitamin E?

A

antioxidant
premature infants that have deficiency

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32
Q

What are 2 indications for vitamin K?

A

prophylactically to newborns
reverse effects of warfarin

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33
Q

What is the indication for vitamin B1? (6)

A

treatment of thiamine deficiency
encephalopathy
peripheral neuritis
malabsorption
chronic diarrhea
alcoholism

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34
Q

What is the indication for vitamin B2? (8)

A

treatment of riboflavin deficiency
alcoholism
malabsorption
liver disease
cutaneous, oral, and corneal changes (keratitis)
acne
migraines
microcytic anemia

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35
Q

What are the indications for vitamin B3? (2)

A

prevention and treatment of pellagra
hyperlipidemia drug

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36
Q

What are the indications for vitamin B6? (3)

A

seizures
morning sickness during pregnancy
metabolic disorders

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37
Q

What are the indications for vitamin B12? (4)

A

pernicious anemia
neurologic damage
malabsorption
poor dietary intake (vegetarians)

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38
Q

What are the indications for vitamin C? (2)

A

prevention and treatment of scurvy
urinary acidifer

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39
Q

What are some oral administration considerations of iron? (3)

A

may stain teeth
take between meals
remain upright for 30min

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40
Q

What are S/E of iron? (6)

A

n/v
diarrhea
constipation
stomach cramps and pain
black, tarry stools
orthostatic hypotension

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41
Q

What are some injectable administration considerations of iron? (3)

A

cause pain upon injection
test dose
infuse slowly

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42
Q

What 2 drugs combat iron toxicity?

A

deferiprone
deferoxamine

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43
Q

What are some administration guidelines for parenteral nutrition?

A

monitor blood glucose levels
If TPN is discontinued abruptly, administer 10% dextrose in water
infuse through filter

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44
Q

What are indications for Beta-Adrenergic Agonists? (3)

A

asthma
bronchitis
COPD

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45
Q

What are 2 contraindications of beta-adrenergic agonists?

A

uncontrolled hypertension
cardiac dysrhythmias

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46
Q

What type of beta-adrenergic agonist drug is taken every day to prevent exacerbation?

A

LABA

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47
Q

What type of beta-adrenergic agonist drug is taken during an acute asthma attack?

A

SABA

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48
Q

How do you use an inhaler?

A

wait 1-2 minutes before second inhalation

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49
Q

What meds are SABA beta-adrenergic agonists? (4)

A

albuterol (ventolin, proventil, ProAir)
levalbuterol (Xopenex)
terbutaline (Brethine)
metaproterenol (Alupent)

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50
Q

What meds are LABA beta-adrenergic agonists? (3)

A

arformoterol (Brovana)
formoterol (Foradil)
salmeterol (Serevent)

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51
Q

What is the indication for anticholinergics (long-acting muscarinic antagonists)?

A

prevention of bronchospasm in COPD

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52
Q

What are 2 contraindications for anticholinergics (long-acting muscarinic antagonists)?

A

glaucoma, prostate enlargement

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53
Q

What meds are anticholinergics (long-acting muscarinic antagonists)? (4)

A

Ipratropium (Atrovent)
Tiotropium (Spiriva)
Revefenacin (Yupelri)
Umeclidinium (Incruse Ellipta)

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54
Q

What are indications for Xanthine derivatives? (2)

A

asthma
COPD

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55
Q

What meds are Xanthine derivatives? (2)

A

theophylline
aminophylline

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56
Q

What are 4 contraindications of Xanthine derivatives?

A

uncontrolled dysrhythmias
seizures
hyperthyroidism
PUD

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57
Q

What is a nursing implication with IV administration of Xanthine derivatives?

A

too rapid infusion can cause syncope, tachycardia, seizures, and cardiac arrest

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58
Q

What are the indications for leukotriene receptor antagonists? (2)

A

long-term prevention of asthma
allergic rhinitis

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59
Q

What meds are leukotriene receptor antagonists? (3)

A

montelukast (singulair)
zafirlukast (accolate)
zileuton (zyflo)

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60
Q

What are contraindications for leukotriene receptor antagonists?

A

allergies to povidone, lactose, or cellulose

61
Q

What are 2 nursing implications for leukotriene receptor antagonists?

A

improvement in about 1 week
take in evening

62
Q

What is the indication for corticosteroids?

A

bronchospastic disorders

63
Q

What meds are corticosteriods? (5)

A

beclomethasone dipropionate (beclovent)
budesonide (Pulmicort)
FLuticasone (FLovent)
Mometasone (Asmanex)
Triamcinolon acetonide (Azmacort)

64
Q

What is a contraindication for corticosteriods?

A

systemic fungal infections

65
Q

What are 3 nursing implications for corticosteriods?

A

can be used for acute indications
rinse mouth after use
take at same time every day

66
Q

What should be taken first bronchodilators or corticosteriods?

A

bronchodilators

67
Q

What is a nursing implication for expectorants?

A

increase fluid intake

68
Q

What decongestant can be used to make meth?

A

sudafed

69
Q

What are 3 nursing implications for decongestants?

A

rebound congestion (use for no more than 3 days)
increase fluid intake
avoid caffeine

70
Q

What are S/E of decongestants? (5)

A

nervousness
insomnia
palpitations
tremor
nasal dryness

71
Q

What are S/E of beta-adrenergic agonists (bronchodilators)? (5)

A

insomnia
anorexia
tachycardia
tremor
headache

72
Q

What are the contraindications for topical antibacterial drugs?

A

if you have an allergy to sulfa drugs, you shouldn’t take silvadene

73
Q

What is a S/E of isotretinoin?

A

suicidal thoughts

74
Q

What is a nursing implication for isotretinoin?

A

requires 2 contraception methods

75
Q

What are nursing implications for administering eye drops?

A

apply pressure to inner canthus after admin
administer other eye drops at least 5 minutes apart
apply ointments in conjunctival sac

76
Q

What are nursing implications for administering ear drops?

A

lie on the opposite side of that of you affected ear for about 5 minutes
if given cold: could cause vestibular-type reaction (vomiting, dizziness)

77
Q

What meds treat middle and outer ear infections?

A

antibacterial drugs often with a steroid

78
Q

What meds treat otitis externa infections?

A

antifungal drugs

79
Q

What is the first pass effect?

A

pass through GI tract; less medication available

80
Q

What are S/E of opioids? (6)

A

constipation
N/V
pruritus
flushing
orthostatic hypotension
CNS depression

81
Q

What is a S/E of indirect-acting dopaminergic drugs?

A

headache

82
Q

What are S/E of non-dopamine dopamine receptor agonists? (4)

A

edema
insomnia
syncope
GI upset

83
Q

What are the S/E of dopamine replacement drugs? (2)

A

cardiac dysrhythmias
urinary retention

84
Q

What is a nursing implication for TCA antidepressants?

A

an overdose is lethal

85
Q

What is a nursing implication for SSRI antidepressants?

A

slowly tapered when Dc/d

86
Q

What 2 receptors are cholinergic?

A

nicotinic
muscarinic

87
Q

Where are beta 1 receptors?

A

heart

88
Q

Where are beta 2 receptors?

A

lungs

89
Q

What are contraindications for cholinergic drugs? (6)

A

GI or GU tract obstruction
hyperthyroidism
epilepsy
hypotension
bradycardia
COPD

90
Q

What is the MOA of ACE inhibitors?

A

inhibits conversion to angiotensin 2
decreases preload (blood coming back to heart)

91
Q

What are S/E of ACE inhibitors? (7)

A

angioedema
renal failure
dry NPC
fatigue
dizziness
headaches
impotence

92
Q

What lab level should be heavily monitored with ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

A

potassium

93
Q

What is the MOA of ARBS?

A

blocks vasoconstriction and secretion of aldosterone at receptor site

94
Q

What are S/E of ARBs? (6)

A

chest pain
fatigue
hypoglycemia
diarrhea
anemia
impotence

95
Q

What are S/E of vasodilators? (2)

A

thrombocytopenia
cyanide toxicity

96
Q

What is the MOA of nitrates & nitrites?

A

relax smooth muscles cells in vessels

97
Q

What are S/E of nitrates & nitrites? (3)

A

headache
postural hypotension
tachycardia

98
Q

What are nursing implications for nitrates & nitrites? (2)

A

tolerance can occur
sit when taking

99
Q

What is pt ed with nitro?

A

can take another nitro after 5 min (only 3 doses)

100
Q

What is the MOA of calcium channel blocker?

A

prevents muscle contraction and promotes vasodilation
depresses electrical conduction in heart

101
Q

What are S/E of calcium channel blockers? (8)

A

hypotension
palpitations
constipation
nausea
dyspnea
rash
flushing
peripheral edema

102
Q

What are S/E of cardiac glycosides? (9)

A

bradycardia
hypotension
headache
fatigue
confusion
anorexia
n/v
diarrhea
vison changes

103
Q

What are some nursing implications for cardiac glycosides?

A

monitor digoxin levels

104
Q

What are signs of digoxin toxicity? (4)

A

bradycardia
N/V
anorexia
blurred vision

105
Q

What medications increase the effects of digoxin? (3)

A

amiodarone
quinidine
verapamil

106
Q

What are S/E of carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics? (8)

A

hyperglycemia
hypokalemia
metabolic acidosis
drowsiness
anorexia
hematuria
urticaria
photosensitivity

107
Q

What meds increase the effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics? (7)

A

digoxin
corticosteroids
amphetamines
carbamazepine
cyclosporine
phenytoin
quinidine

108
Q

What are S/E of loop diuretics? (12)

A

hypokalemia
hyponatremia
hypochloremia
hypocalcemia
hypotension
dizziness
photosensitivity
blood disorders
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
ototoxicity
neurotoxicity
nephrotoxicity

109
Q

What med increase the effects of loop diuretics? (3)

A

vancomycin
lithium
NSAIDS

110
Q

What meds decrease the effects of loop diuretics?

A

anti-diabetic drugs

111
Q

What meds along with loop diuretics lower potassium? (2)

A

corticosteroids
digoxin

112
Q

What are S/E of osmotic diuretics? (3)

A

convulsions
thrombophlebitis
pulmonary congestion

113
Q

What are some nursing implications for osmotic diuretics? (2)

A

may crystalize when exposed to low temps
administered IV through a filter

114
Q

What are the S/E of potassium-sparing diuretics? (8)

A

dizziness
headaches
hypotension
cramps
N/V
diarrhea
urinary frequency
hyperkalemia

115
Q

What diuretics adds to lithium’s toxicity?

A

potassium-sparing diuretics
thiazide diuretics

116
Q

What med decreases the effects of potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

NSAIDS

117
Q

What are the S/E of thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics? (10)

A

hypokalemia
hypercalcemia
elevated lipids, glucose, uric acid
GI upset
skin rash
thrombocytopenia
dizziness
hypotension
headache
impotence

118
Q

What drug when taken along with thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia?

A

corticosteriods

119
Q

What meds decrease the effects of thiazide diuretics? (2)

A

oral hypoglycemia
NSAIDS

120
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

protamine sulfate

121
Q

What is the antidote for warfarin?

A

vitamin K

122
Q

What lab values do you monitor with heparin?

A

aPTT, anti-factor Xa, platelets

123
Q

What lab values do you monitor with warfarin?

A

PT/INR

124
Q

What should you educate your patient on that is taking thyroid replacement drugs?

A

give at same time every day in the morning
take on an empty stomach
therapy is life long
takes several weeks for effects

125
Q

Which insulins are rapid acting?

A

humalog
novolog

126
Q

What insulin is short acting?

A

regular insulin

127
Q

What insulin is intermediate acting?

A

NPH

128
Q

What insulin is long acting?

A

lantus
levemir

129
Q

What can NPH be combined with?

A

regular or rapid-acting insulin

130
Q

How do you mix NPH with rapid acting?

A

draw up clear before cloudy

131
Q

What is the onset of rapid-acting insulin?

A

15 min

132
Q

What is the onset of short-acting insulin?

A

30-60min

133
Q

What is the onset of intermediate-acting insulin?

A

1-2 hours

134
Q

What is the onset of long-acting insulin?

A

1-2 hours

135
Q

When is the peak of rapid-acting insulin?

A

1-2 hours

136
Q

When is the peak of short-acting insulin?

A

2.5 hours

137
Q

What is the peak of intermediate-acting insulin?

A

4-8 hours

138
Q

What is the peak of long-acting insulin?

A

none (basal)

139
Q

What is the duration of rapid-acting insulin?

A

3-5 hours

140
Q

What is the duration of short-acting insulin?

A

6-10 hours

141
Q

What is the duration of intermediate-acting insulin?

A

10-18 hours

142
Q

What is the duration of long-acting insulin?

A

24 hours

143
Q

What are the S/E of tetracycline antibiotics? (6)

A

teeth discoloration
photosensitivity
yeast
diarrhea
coagulation irregularities
rash

144
Q

What are some nursing implications for tetracycline antibiotics?

A

avoid milk products and iron

145
Q

What are indications for NSAIDS? (3)

A

antipyretic
analgesic (mild to moderate pain)
anti-inflammatory

146
Q

What are S/E of NSAIDS? (4)

A

GI intolerance
bleeding
cardiovascular disease
renal failure: inhibition of prostaglandins

147
Q

What are some nursing implications for NSAIDS?

A

stop taking at least one week prior to surgery
monitor for hyperkalemia and hypernatremia

148
Q

What are common S/E of dopamine drugs? (4)

A
  1. hypotension
  2. dizziness
  3. GI upset
  4. dark, discolored urine

Pharmacology (5 decks)

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