PHARM EXAM 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following drug classes can be used as the “maintenance” drug in treatment programs for heroin addicts or alcoholics?
A
Long acting opioid antagonist
2
Q
Morphine can be used to treat all of the following conditions except:
A
Psychosis
3
Q
Which of the following drug classes is often used in combination with non-opioid analgesics for treatment of moderate pain?
A
Moderate opioid agonist
4
Q
The mechanisms) of action of short-acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonists for the treatment of asthma includes:
A
bronchodilation
5
Q
Of the following treatments, which is most likely to cause oral candidiasis in a patient with asthma?
A
Inhaled corticosteroid, such as Fluticasone (Flovent) via metered dose inhaler
6
Q
Which of the following drugs is effective only on targets within the CNS?
A
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
7
Q
Which one of the following drugs irreversibly inactivates cyclooxygenaes (COX)?
A
Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
8
Q
Which of the following statements is true regarding prednisone?
A
Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
9
Q
Second generation H1 receptor antagonists used in the treatment of seasonal allergy:
A
do not cross the blood-brain barrier in appreciable amounts
10
Q
Which one of the following mechanisms in NOT responsible for the therapeutic effect of glucocorticoids in the treatment of inflammation?
A
Blocking H2 receptors
11
Q
Which of the following types of drugs is most commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A
Antibody against tumor necrosis factor TNF
12
Q
? Is a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
A
Etanercept (Enbrel)
13
Q
? Is a small molecule immunosuppressant for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis
A
Methotrexate (MTX)
14
Q
? Inhibits uric acid biosynthesis for the treatment of chronic gout
A
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
15
Q
? Is used in patients with acute gout attack
A
Indomethacin (Indocin)
16
Q
T/F An opioid partial agonist is a drug that has an agonist effect of alpha opioid receptors and an antagonist effect on mu opioid receptors
A
FALSE
17
Q
T/F A short acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist should be prescribed for a patient with occasional asthma symptoms, such as individuals subject only to intermittent episodes of exercise-induced asthma
A
TRUE
18
Q
T/F All drugs administed by aerosol route of delivery only reach the airway surface, can never be absorbed into the body, and therefore have no systemic side effects
A
FALSE
19
Q
T/F 5’lipoxygenase (5LO) is upstream of prostaglandin synthesis
A
FALSE
20
Q
Which of the following drugs directly activates mu opioid receptors?
A
Methadone (Dolophine)
21
Q
Which of the following is true about second generation H1 receptor antagonists?
A
They do not cross the blood-brain barrier to the levels observed with first generation H1 antagonists
22
Q
Infliximab is useful in treatine rheumatoid arthritis because
A
it binds to TNF-alpha and prevents the cytokine from binding to its receptor
23
Q
Cortisol
A
is characterized by neither A or B (A. is a long acting glucocorticoid B has minimal salt-retaining activity)
24
Q
Which of the following statements is TRUE about glucocorticoids?
A
Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency
25
Which one of the following drugs blocks the synthesis of ALL eicosanoids?
Prednisone (Deltasone)
26
Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as an irreversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?
Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
27
? Increases the excretion of uric acid in the treatment of gout
Probenecid (Benemid)
28
? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
Methotrexate (MTX)
29
? Antagonizes the action of IL-1 for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
Anakinra (Kineret)
30
? Is an antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors and is especially useful in treating patients with nocturnal and exercise induced asthma
Ipratropium (Atrovent)
31
? Is a short-acting agonist selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and functions as a bronchodilator
Albuterol (Provent)
32
? Is a long-acting agonist of beta-2 adrenergic receptors; rare episodes of asthma symptom exacerbations have raised concerns over its use
Salmeterol (Serevent)
33
T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is useful for treating gastric ulcers that result from chronic use of NSAIDs
FALSE
34
Methadone (Dolophine) is used for
relief of withdrawal symptoms in morphine addicts
35
Which of the following statements is false?
FALSE: Repeated use of morphine produces tolerance to the pupil-constricting and constipating effects of the drug
36
Which of the following drugs is used as a "maintenance" drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts?
Naltrexone (ReVia)
37
Which of the following drugs is useful for treating gastric ulcers due to chronic use of NSAIDs?
Misopristol (Cytotec)
38
A key difference between 1st and 2nd generation H1-histamine receptor antagonists is that the 2nd generation drugs:
don't cross the BBB efficiently
39
The mechanisms of pharmacologic glucocorticoid action include
ALL OF THE ABOVE (A. binding to intracellular receptor proteins that participate in the control of gene transcription B. increasing levels of intracellular regulators such as lipocortin and IkB which fxn to suppress inflammatory pathways C. Suppression of the fxn of several types of immune system cells
40
Which of the following immunomodulatory agents is most likely to elicit flu-like symptoms as a side-effect?
Interferon Beta-1a (Avonex
41
? Inhibits the re-absorption of uric acid for the treatment of gout
Probenecid (Benemid)
42
? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis
Methotrexate (MTX)
43
? Antagonizes the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
Etanercept (Enbrel)
44
? Inhibits xanthine oxidase, leading to decreased uric acid production for the treatment of chronic gout
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
45
? Beta-2 adrenergic receptor selective agonist
Albuterol (Provent)
46
? Bronchodilator, inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase and is also an antagonist of A3 adenosine receptors
Theophyline
47
? Membrane stabilizer and inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
Cromolyn sodium (Intal)
48
? Antagonist of M1-muscarinic cholinergic receptors that are expressed in airway smooth muscle cells
Ipratropium (Atrovent)
49
T/F Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is useful for treating inflammatory responses
FALSE
50
T/F Celecoxib (Celebrex) non-selectively blocks the actions of both COX-1 and COX-2 equally well
FALSE
51
T/F Eicosanoids regulate both vasodilation and vasoconstriction relating to inflammation
TRUE
52
T/F Compared to the glucocorticoids cortisol and dexamethasone, prednisone is intermediate in terms of duration of action, anti-inflammatory activity and mineralcorticoid effects
TRUE
53
Beclomethasone (Beclovent)
suppresses pulmonary inflammatory processes via diverse immunosuppressive effects
54
Aerosol drug delivery is
a means to treat patients with reduced total drug dosage compared to systemic administration of the same drug
55
Albuterol (Ventolin)
ALL (A. is a selective agonist for beta-2 adrenergic receptors B. is available in oral and aerosol C. can cause tachycardia D. treats either acute or chronic asthma)
56
Which of the following statements is true regarding Cetirizine (Zyrtec)?
Cetirizine (Zyrtec) binds to a cell surface receptor to exert its theraputic effect
57
Natalizumab (Tysabri)
decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS
58
? Used in the treatment of bronchial asthma and acute pulmonary edema
Theophyline (Theolair)
59
? Is used as an anchor agent for combination therapy in treating rheumatoid arthritis
Methotrexate (MTX)
60
? Is a uricosuric drug that enhances the renal excretion of uric acid
Probenecid (Benemid)
61
T/F Naltrexone (ReVia) is an opioid antagonist used as a "maintenance" drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts or alcoholics
TRUE
62
T/F Compared with morphine, the mixed opioid agonist-antagonist buprenorphine (Buprenex) produced effects that are more easily reversed by naloxone (Narcan)
FALSE
63
T/F Repeated use of morphine produces cross-tolerance to the analgesic effect of methadone (Dolophine)
TRUE
64
T/F Rofecoxib (Vioxx) is a direct, selective inhibitor of phospholipase A2
FALSE
65
T/F Both glucocorticoids (eg Prednisone) and aspirin block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism
FALSE
66
T/F Both ibuprophen (Advil) and naproxen (Alleve) block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism
TRUE
67
T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is used clinically for the chronic mgmt of asthma
TRUE
68
T/F Methylxanthines (eg theophylline) are well-tolerated bronchodilator drugs with very few side effects
FALSE
69
T/F Long term use of prednisone can lead to suppression of the hypothalmic-pituitary axis
TRUE
70
T/F Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) is a Type 1 Interferon used in the treatment of MS
FALSE
71
Loratidine (Claritan)
is a histamine-H1 receptor antagonist
72
Which statement is true regarding prednisone?
Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
73
Interferon B-1a (Avonex)
decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS
74
In the treatment of asthma, glucocorticoid
suppress multiple pulmonary inflammatory processes
75
Aerosol drug delivery for asthmatics is
a strategy to more selectively target drugs to their intended site of action compared to alternative routes of administration
76
T/F Probenecid (Benemid) is used for rapid relief from acute attakes of gouty arthritis
FALSE
77
T/F Allopurinol (Zyloprim) decreases uric acid production by inhibiting xanthine oxidase activity
TRUE
78
T/F Low does weekly therapy with methotrexate (MTX) is widely used for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
TRUE
79
T/F Etanercept (Enbrel) is a tumor necrosis factor TNF antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
TRUE
80
T/F The weak opioid agonist codeine can be used in combination with aspirin for treatment of moderate pain
TRUE
81
T/F Chronic treatment with high doses of acetaminphen (Tylenol) can produce gastric ulcers
TRUE
82
T/F Aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and naproxen (Alleve) are equally effective anti-inflammatory agents
FALSE
83
T/F The therapeutic actions of montelukast NA (Singulair) are due to its capacity to directly bind 5-LO and inhibit the formation of leukotrienes
FALSE
84
T/F Misoprostol (Cyotec) is an agonist for prostaglandin receptors present on gastric epithelial cells in the gut that stimulate the secretion of prottective mucus and bicarbonate
TRUE
85
T/F M1 muscarinic receptor antagonists such as ipratropium (Atrovent) are an excellent drug choice for a patient showing nocturnal symptoms of asthma
TRUE
86
An unexpected compensatory CV reflex that occurs when a hypertensive patient is treated with a vasodilator could involve
An increase in heart rate, an increase in the force of cardiac contraction, and an increase in sodium and water retention
87
Antihypertensive drugs lower blood pressure by reducing either total peripheral resistance and/or
either A or B (A. cardiac output B. heart rate/and or stroke volume)
88
Which of the following antihypertensive drug classes directly binds to and block L-type Ca channels
Dihydropyridines
89
Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists as antihypertensive drugs
D. have all the above properties (A. include clonidine, B. act by reducing sympathetic ouflow from the brain C. are used currently only in patients whose hypertension is not well controlled by other drugs)
90
Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for losartan (Cozaar)?
directly blocks AT1 angiotensin receptors
91
Which of the following statements accurately describes the treatment approac for patients with HBP?
ALL. (A. life style modifications B. Thiazide diuretics for patients with stage 1 HTN C. two drug combo for stage II HTN)
92
When used for the treatment of angina, nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
reduced myocardial work by decreasing preload
93
The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are
due to an excess of cardiac oxygen demany over oxygen supply
94
Non-dihydropyridine-type CA channel blocking drugs, eg verapamil (Calan) can be used as anti-anginal agents bc they
ALL of the above (A. lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm, C reduce contractility of cardiac myocytes
95
Digitalis glycosides
A and B (A. have a small therapeutic index value, B. enhance contractility by indirectly increasing the intracellular free Ca concentration in cardiac myocytes
96
Which of the following mechanisms can reduce mortality in the pharmacologic treatment of heart failure?
All (A. interference with the peripheral actions of angiotensinII B. prevention of cardiac beta-1 adrenergic receptor activation C. blockade of aldosterone receptors)
97
ACE inhibitors
ALL (A. prevent AT1 angiotensin receptors from being activated B. reduce the synthesis of angiotensin II C. increase levels of bradykinin)
98
Warfarin (Coumadin)
ALL (A. inhibits vitamin k-dependent synthesis of clotting factors, B. in contraindicated in pregnancy, C. does not elicit anticoagulation effects in vitro)
99
Synthetic heparins
preferentially inhibit active coagulation factor X(Xa)
100
Streptokinase (Streptase)
is a non-enzymatic plasminogen activator
101
Which of the following drugs inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets?
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
102
Vaughan-Williams Class I
Sodium Channel Blockers
103
Vaughn-Williams Class II
Beta receptor blockers
104
Vaughn-Williams Class III
Potassium Channel Blockers
105
Vaughn-Williams Class IV
Ca Channel Blockers
106
Which of the following are used to classify anti-arrhythmic drugs according to the Vaughn-Williams method
NONE of the abve (A. low therapeutic index, B. cost, C. pro-arrhythmic potential)
107
According to the Vaughn-Williams classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs, lidocaine is a
class I drug that is most effective on active cardiac tissue
108
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
class III drug that binds to activated channels
109
Bile acid sequestrants
act locally in the small intestine
110
Which of the following statements is true regarding LDL?
regulation of liver LDL receptor levels is the dominant mechanism for controlling LDL levels in humans
111
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
block a rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
112
Nicotinic acid (niacin)
inhibits the rate-limiting step in tri-glyceride synthesis
113
Which one of the following drugs selectively blocks the activity of 5-LO?
Zileuton (Zyflo)
114
Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as a reversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?
Naproxen (Aleve)
115
Which one of the following drugs is least expected to cause gastric ulcers?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
116
? Is an antagonist of lekotreine D4 receptors
Montelukast Na (Singulair)
117
? Is selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and causes bronchodilation
Albuterol (Provent)
118
? Inhibits IgE from binding to its receptor
Omalizumab
119
? Inhibits mast cell degranulation
Cromolyn sodium (Intal)
120
? Treats rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydofolate reductase
Methotrexate (MTX)
121
? A NSAID widely used for patients with acute gout
Indomethacin (Indocin)
122
? Blocks the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
Etanercept (Enbrel)
123
T/F Propanolol (Inderal) is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than is metoprolol (Lopressor)
FALSE
124
T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating an increase of calcium ion within the muscle cell cytosol
TRUE
125
Combination anti-anginal therapy can include beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or Ca channel blockers
TRUE
126
Current drug treatment of heart failer involces activating the neuro-humoral systems that increase peripheral vascular resistance and fluid and salt retention in order to incrase cariac output
FALSE
127
The COX-2 hypothesis states the COX-2 mediates most cellular "house-keeping" fxns whereas COX-1 mediates most adverse rxns associated with inflammation
FALSE
128
Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for lisinopril (Prinivil)
reduces angiotensin II levels
129
The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are
attributed partly to pain fibers stimulated by metabolites released from cells within ischemic tissue
130
Dihydropyridine-type Ca Channel blocking drugs eg nifedipine (Procardia) are useful anti-anginal agents bc they can
A and B (lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm)
131
Digitalis glycosides
increase the intracellular free Ca concentration in cadiac myocytes
132
The so-called "vicious cycle of heart failure" involves all of the following except:
peripheral vasodilation
133
Alteplase (Activase)
is a tissue plasminogen activtor
134
Aspirin
irreversibly inhibits COX
135
Which one of the following drugs selectively inhibits factor Xa
low molecular weight heparin
136
Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
blocks a rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
137
Nicotonic acid (niacin)
increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase
138
Which of the following is true about glucocorticoids?
Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency
139
Ipratropium (Atrovent)
D. has none of the above (A. suppresses pulmonary inflam processes B. is an antaginist of leukotriene receptors C. binds to and inhibits ion channels controlling mast cell degranulation)
140
Which one of the following drugs blocks arachidonic acid synthesis
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
141
Which one of the following drugs is useful for the long term management of asthma
Montelukast Na (Singulair)
142
Which one of the following drugs has gastic ulcers as one of its major side effects?
Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
143
T/F Metoprolol is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than propranolol
TRUE
144
T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating the production of the second messengers cAMP and cGMP
FALSE
145
T/F Cholestryamine (Questran is the first choice drug for any patient with elevated LDL levels
FALSE
146
T/F Zileuton (Zyflo) is commonly used in the treatment of COPD
FALSE
147
T/F Combination anti-anginal therapy can include using beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or CCBs
TRUE
148
Which of the following physiological reflexes is LEAST likely to occur in a hypertensive pt taking a short acting dihydropyridine CCB for the first time
reduced sympathetic nervous system activity
149
Which of the following statements best explains what determines arterial blood pressure
A and B( A. MAP = CO x TPR B. MAP = SV x HR x TPR
150
The main objective of drug therapy in patients diagnosed with primary hypertension is to
bring their BP back down witin the normal range
151
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
prolongs the cardiac action potential and increases the QT interval
152
? An AT1 receptor antagonist that blocks angiotensin II's effects in resistance arterioles and in the adrenal gland
Losartan (Cozaar)
153
? A non-selective antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors
Propranolol (inderal)
154
? Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme, blocking the formation of angiotensin II from angiotensin 1
Lisinopril (Prinivil)
155
? Causes transient reduction in total body fluid volume, but when that diuretic effect diminished, the drug has a sustained antihypertensive effect
Hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)
156
? Decreases fat soluble vitamin absorption as a side effect
bile acid sequestrant
157
? The most effective pharmacologic inducer of HDL levels
niacin
158
? Inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis in the hepatocyte
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
159
? Selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes
ezetimibe (zetia)
160
Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists are useful antianginal drugs because they
attenuate exercise-induced tachycardia
161
When used for the treatment of angina, which of the following statements about nitroglycerin is false?
it directly reduces caridac rate and contractility (FALSE about nitroglyerin)
162
Which of the following mechanisms do not contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure
blocked of cardiac slow calcium channels
163
When used for the treatment of heart failure, which of the following statements about ACE inhibitors is FALSE
the decrease venous capacitance
164
T/F The mechanism of action of drugs used for the treatment of angina pectoris that is precipitated by exercise or emotional stress is dilation of coronary arteries and restoration of blood flow to the ischemic myocardium
FALSE
165
T/F Currrent drugs of choice for the treatment of heart failure act primarily to increase the force of cardiac contraction
FALSE
166
All of the following mechanisms contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure except
increased excretion of salt and water produced by diuretics
167
When used for the treatment of heart failure, potential side effects associated with the use of ACE inhibitors include
A and B, cough and hyperkalemia
168
The preferred pharmacological therapy for the treatment of heart failure is directed toward
reducing the workload of the heart
169
Which of the following statements about nitroglycerin (nitrostat) is false?
It reduces sympathetic activity to the heart
170
Calcium channel blockers are useful for the treatment of angina pectoris because they
A and B. reduce afterload and reduce coronary artery vasospasm
171
Which of the following physiological mechanisms does NOT contribute to the antianginal efficacy of the beta-adrenergic blocking drugs?
relaxation of venuos smooth muscle
172
Nicotinic acid (niacin)
increases VLDL catabolism
173
Minoxidil
ALL. (A. binds to and opens potassium channels, causing membrane hyperpolarization and indirectly impairing Ca conductance through L-type Ca2+ channels B. is so powerful that its use is restricted to severe hypertension, hypertensive emergencies, and hypertension uncontrolled by other drugs
174
T/F The principle means by which cardiac glycosides (eg digitalis) bring about circulatory improvement in CHF is by direct dilation of renal arterioles, thereby promoting the excretion of excess extracellular fluid volume.
FALSE
175
T/F Most drugs used to treat typical angina increase total coronary blood flow and the amount of oxygen delivered to the heart
FALSE
176
T/F Low molecular weight heparin selectively inhibits thrombin
FALSE
177
Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs
increase the PR interval on the electrocardiogram
178
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
blocks K+ channels
179
Arrhythmias due to re-entry
ALL. (A. can be treated with adenosine (Adenocard) B. may result from MI C. result from improper conduction of action potentials)
180
Which of the following mechanisms to not contribute to the beneficial effects of ACE inhibitors when they are used for the treatment of heart failure?
increased intracellular Ca concentration in the cardiac myocytes
181
When used for the treatment angina pectoris, which if the following statements about organic nitrates is FALSE?
They markedly dilate myocardial coronary arterioles in the ischemic zone
182
The mechanism for minoxidil's (loniten) antihypertensive action involves
hyperpolarizing vascular smooth muscle cell membranes
183
Cholestyramine (Qeustran)
acts locally in the small intestine
184
When used for the treatment of angina pectoris, which of the following drug combinations has the greatest potential to produce adverse effects on cardiac performance?
verapamil and propranolol
185
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with MI?
propafenone (Rhythmol)
186
Class I antiarrhythmic drugs
are more effective in rapidly beating myocardium
187
Ezetimibe
acts locally in the small intestine
188
Cardiovascular reflexes resulting from vasodilation can include
increased heart rate
189
The antihypertensive mechanism of action of clinidine (Catapres) involves
activation of CNS alpha-2 adrenergic receptors leading to a reduction in sympathetic ouflow from the brain
190
? Blocks the synthesis of thromboxane A2 (TXA2) in platelets
Aspirin
191
? Inhibits vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of clotting factors
Warfarin (Coumadin)
192
? Preferentially inhibits coagulation factor Xa
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
193
? Prevents binding of fibrinogen to glycoprotein Iib/Iia receptors on platelets
Abciximad (ReoPro)
194
? Short-acting forms of this CCB are contraindicated in patients with underlying coronary vascular disease
Nifedipine (Procardia)
195
? A venous and arterial vasodilator that is administered intravenously for hypertensive emergencies
Sodium Nitroprusside
196
? An antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors
Propranolol (inderal)
197
? At therapeutic levels the CCB can bind to and inhibit both cardiac and smooth muscle L-type calcium channels
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
198
T/F The typical dose of beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists that is used for the initial treatment of heart failure is equilavent to that used for the initial treatment of hypertension
FALSE
199
T/F Atorcastatin (Lipitor) selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes
FALSE
200
T/F Nicotinic acid (niacin) inhibits the rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
FALSE
201
T/F Mild hypertension never requires therapeutic intervention, which should be strictly reserved for patients diagnosed with either moderate or severe hypertension
FALSE
202
In patients with heart failure, aldosterone receptor antagonists would likely have which of the following effects on the action of digitalis glycosides?
Inhibit digitalis glycoside action
203
Centrally acting antihypertensive drugs
ALL. (A. include the alpha2 adrenergic receptor agonist clonidine (Catapres) B. have several unpleasant side-effects C. reduce sympathetic outflow D. are usually reserved for use in patients whose hypertention is not well-controlled by other drugs)
204
Thiazide diuretics reduce blood pressure in hypertensive patient by
reducing peripheral vascular resistance
205
ACE inhibitors
reduce angiotensin II levels
206
One mechanism of the antihypertensive action of beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonists is to
reduce cardiac output
207
? Impairs adenosine disphosphate (ADP) mediated platelet activation
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
208
? Preferentially activates plasminogen in the thrombus
Alteplase (Activase)
209
? Can slow sinus rhythm and may cause hypotension
verapamil (calan)
210
? Shortens the atrial action potential by activating a K+ channel
Adenosine (Adenocard)
211
? Used to treat ventricular arrhyhmias and prolongs the refractory period
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
212
? Can increase pacing thresholds and slow conduction velocity
propafenone (Rhythmol)
213
T/F A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinatrate can reduce mortality in African-Americans with severe heart diasease
TRUE
214
T/F The homogenous form of familial hypercholesterolemia is successfully treated with HMG reductase inhibitors
FALSE
215
T/F Cholestyramine (Questran) inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
FALSE
216
T/F High levels of cholesterol within hepatocytes lead to a decrease in the transcription of the LDL receptor gene
TRUE
217
T/F Treatment with minoxidil (loniten) is considered a first line therapy for the treatment of mild hypertension
FALSE
218
T/F A common reflex response to pharmacologic vasodilation. Irrespective of the drug used, is an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity
TRUE
219
After ingestion into the stomach, which of the following drugs used for treatment of angina pectoris is most susceptible to first-pass metabolism in the liver?
Isosorbide Dinitrate (Sorbitrate)
220
Captopril (Capoten)
inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
221
? A class IV antiarrhythmic drug that slows sinus rhythm and AV nodal conduction velocity
verapamil (calan)
222
? A drug with prominent local anesthetic properties that is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias
lidocaine
223
? Antiarrythmic drug that prolongs the QT interval on the electrocardiogram
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
224
Class II antiarrhythmic drug used in the treatment of supraventricular arryhthmias
Propranolol (inderal)
225
Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept) is an effective immunosuppresant drug bc it
Inhibits inosine monophospahte dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
226
Prednisone
binds to FK8P12 to exert its immunosuppresive action
227
The calcineurin pathway is essential for
nuclear import of the transcription of NFAT
228
Binding of cytokines to immune cells can lead to activation of mTOR and the subsequent phosphorylation of p7056 kinase, which is necessary for cell cycle progression. This activation of mTOR is prevented by
sirolimus (Rapamune)
229
Inhibition of the phosphatase calcineurin is important for the immunosuppresive action of
A and B (cyclosporin A (Sandimmune) and Tacrolimus (Prograf)
230
Azathioprine (Imuran)
acts as an immunosuppresive by none of the above mechanisms (A. ihibits the immune response of foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets B. stimulates the response of T cells to cytokines C. inhibits translocation of the transcription factor NF-KB to the nucleus D. binds to an immunophilin to exert its immunosuppressive action)
231
Daclizumad (Zenapax)
blocks interleukin 2 signaling
232
Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)
inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
233
Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)
inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
234
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
blocks antigen recognition
235
Prednisone (Deltasone)
can inhibit the nuclear import of the transcription factor NF-KB
236
Sirolimus (Rapamune) is an effective immunosuppresant drug because it
binds to the immunophilin FKBP12
237
? Blocks antigen recognition
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
238
? Inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)
239
? Is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)
240
? Is an inhibitor of mTOR
Sirolimus (Rapamune)
241
Tacrolimus (Prograf)
inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
242
Prednisone (Deltasone)
inhibits the immune response to foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets
243
? Provides relief from acute gouty attacks
Indomethacin (Indocin)
