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General Pharm > PHARM EXAM 3 > Flashcards

PHARM EXAM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following drug classes can be used as the “maintenance” drug in treatment programs for heroin addicts or alcoholics?

A

Long acting opioid antagonist

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2
Q

Morphine can be used to treat all of the following conditions except:

A

Psychosis

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3
Q

Which of the following drug classes is often used in combination with non-opioid analgesics for treatment of moderate pain?

A

Moderate opioid agonist

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4
Q

The mechanisms) of action of short-acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonists for the treatment of asthma includes:

A

bronchodilation

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5
Q

Of the following treatments, which is most likely to cause oral candidiasis in a patient with asthma?

A

Inhaled corticosteroid, such as Fluticasone (Flovent) via metered dose inhaler

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6
Q

Which of the following drugs is effective only on targets within the CNS?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

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7
Q

Which one of the following drugs irreversibly inactivates cyclooxygenaes (COX)?

A

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding prednisone?

A

Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis

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9
Q

Second generation H1 receptor antagonists used in the treatment of seasonal allergy:

A

do not cross the blood-brain barrier in appreciable amounts

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10
Q

Which one of the following mechanisms in NOT responsible for the therapeutic effect of glucocorticoids in the treatment of inflammation?

A

Blocking H2 receptors

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11
Q

Which of the following types of drugs is most commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Antibody against tumor necrosis factor TNF

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12
Q

? Is a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Etanercept (Enbrel)

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13
Q

? Is a small molecule immunosuppressant for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis

A

Methotrexate (MTX)

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14
Q

? Inhibits uric acid biosynthesis for the treatment of chronic gout

A

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

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15
Q

? Is used in patients with acute gout attack

A

Indomethacin (Indocin)

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16
Q

T/F An opioid partial agonist is a drug that has an agonist effect of alpha opioid receptors and an antagonist effect on mu opioid receptors

A

FALSE

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17
Q

T/F A short acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist should be prescribed for a patient with occasional asthma symptoms, such as individuals subject only to intermittent episodes of exercise-induced asthma

A

TRUE

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18
Q

T/F All drugs administed by aerosol route of delivery only reach the airway surface, can never be absorbed into the body, and therefore have no systemic side effects

A

FALSE

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19
Q

T/F 5’lipoxygenase (5LO) is upstream of prostaglandin synthesis

A

FALSE

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20
Q

Which of the following drugs directly activates mu opioid receptors?

A

Methadone (Dolophine)

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21
Q

Which of the following is true about second generation H1 receptor antagonists?

A

They do not cross the blood-brain barrier to the levels observed with first generation H1 antagonists

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22
Q

Infliximab is useful in treatine rheumatoid arthritis because

A

it binds to TNF-alpha and prevents the cytokine from binding to its receptor

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23
Q

Cortisol

A

is characterized by neither A or B (A. is a long acting glucocorticoid B has minimal salt-retaining activity)

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about glucocorticoids?

A

Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency

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25
Q

Which one of the following drugs blocks the synthesis of ALL eicosanoids?

A

Prednisone (Deltasone)

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26
Q

Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as an irreversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?

A

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)

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27
Q

? Increases the excretion of uric acid in the treatment of gout

A

Probenecid (Benemid)

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28
Q

? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

A

Methotrexate (MTX)

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29
Q

? Antagonizes the action of IL-1 for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Anakinra (Kineret)

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30
Q

? Is an antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors and is especially useful in treating patients with nocturnal and exercise induced asthma

A

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

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31
Q

? Is a short-acting agonist selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and functions as a bronchodilator

A

Albuterol (Provent)

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32
Q

? Is a long-acting agonist of beta-2 adrenergic receptors; rare episodes of asthma symptom exacerbations have raised concerns over its use

A

Salmeterol (Serevent)

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33
Q

T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is useful for treating gastric ulcers that result from chronic use of NSAIDs

A

FALSE

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34
Q

Methadone (Dolophine) is used for

A

relief of withdrawal symptoms in morphine addicts

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35
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A

FALSE: Repeated use of morphine produces tolerance to the pupil-constricting and constipating effects of the drug

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36
Q

Which of the following drugs is used as a “maintenance” drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts?

A

Naltrexone (ReVia)

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37
Q

Which of the following drugs is useful for treating gastric ulcers due to chronic use of NSAIDs?

A

Misopristol (Cytotec)

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38
Q

A key difference between 1st and 2nd generation H1-histamine receptor antagonists is that the 2nd generation drugs:

A

don’t cross the BBB efficiently

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39
Q

The mechanisms of pharmacologic glucocorticoid action include

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE (A. binding to intracellular receptor proteins that participate in the control of gene transcription B. increasing levels of intracellular regulators such as lipocortin and IkB which fxn to suppress inflammatory pathways C. Suppression of the fxn of several types of immune system cells

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40
Q

Which of the following immunomodulatory agents is most likely to elicit flu-like symptoms as a side-effect?

A

Interferon Beta-1a (Avonex

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41
Q

? Inhibits the re-absorption of uric acid for the treatment of gout

A

Probenecid (Benemid)

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42
Q

? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis

A

Methotrexate (MTX)

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43
Q

? Antagonizes the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Etanercept (Enbrel)

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44
Q

? Inhibits xanthine oxidase, leading to decreased uric acid production for the treatment of chronic gout

A

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

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45
Q

? Beta-2 adrenergic receptor selective agonist

A

Albuterol (Provent)

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46
Q

? Bronchodilator, inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase and is also an antagonist of A3 adenosine receptors

A

Theophyline

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47
Q

? Membrane stabilizer and inhibitor of mast cell degranulation

A

Cromolyn sodium (Intal)

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48
Q

? Antagonist of M1-muscarinic cholinergic receptors that are expressed in airway smooth muscle cells

A

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

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49
Q

T/F Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is useful for treating inflammatory responses

A

FALSE

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50
Q

T/F Celecoxib (Celebrex) non-selectively blocks the actions of both COX-1 and COX-2 equally well

A

FALSE

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51
Q

T/F Eicosanoids regulate both vasodilation and vasoconstriction relating to inflammation

A

TRUE

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52
Q

T/F Compared to the glucocorticoids cortisol and dexamethasone, prednisone is intermediate in terms of duration of action, anti-inflammatory activity and mineralcorticoid effects

A

TRUE

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53
Q

Beclomethasone (Beclovent)

A

suppresses pulmonary inflammatory processes via diverse immunosuppressive effects

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54
Q

Aerosol drug delivery is

A

a means to treat patients with reduced total drug dosage compared to systemic administration of the same drug

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55
Q

Albuterol (Ventolin)

A

ALL (A. is a selective agonist for beta-2 adrenergic receptors B. is available in oral and aerosol C. can cause tachycardia D. treats either acute or chronic asthma)

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56
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Cetirizine (Zyrtec)?

A

Cetirizine (Zyrtec) binds to a cell surface receptor to exert its theraputic effect

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57
Q

Natalizumab (Tysabri)

A

decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS

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58
Q

? Used in the treatment of bronchial asthma and acute pulmonary edema

A

Theophyline (Theolair)

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59
Q

? Is used as an anchor agent for combination therapy in treating rheumatoid arthritis

A

Methotrexate (MTX)

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60
Q

? Is a uricosuric drug that enhances the renal excretion of uric acid

A

Probenecid (Benemid)

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61
Q

T/F Naltrexone (ReVia) is an opioid antagonist used as a “maintenance” drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts or alcoholics

A

TRUE

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62
Q

T/F Compared with morphine, the mixed opioid agonist-antagonist buprenorphine (Buprenex) produced effects that are more easily reversed by naloxone (Narcan)

A

FALSE

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63
Q

T/F Repeated use of morphine produces cross-tolerance to the analgesic effect of methadone (Dolophine)

A

TRUE

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64
Q

T/F Rofecoxib (Vioxx) is a direct, selective inhibitor of phospholipase A2

A

FALSE

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65
Q

T/F Both glucocorticoids (eg Prednisone) and aspirin block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism

A

FALSE

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66
Q

T/F Both ibuprophen (Advil) and naproxen (Alleve) block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism

A

TRUE

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67
Q

T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is used clinically for the chronic mgmt of asthma

A

TRUE

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68
Q

T/F Methylxanthines (eg theophylline) are well-tolerated bronchodilator drugs with very few side effects

A

FALSE

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69
Q

T/F Long term use of prednisone can lead to suppression of the hypothalmic-pituitary axis

A

TRUE

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70
Q

T/F Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) is a Type 1 Interferon used in the treatment of MS

A

FALSE

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71
Q

Loratidine (Claritan)

A

is a histamine-H1 receptor antagonist

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72
Q

Which statement is true regarding prednisone?

A

Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis

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73
Q

Interferon B-1a (Avonex)

A

decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS

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74
Q

In the treatment of asthma, glucocorticoid

A

suppress multiple pulmonary inflammatory processes

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75
Q

Aerosol drug delivery for asthmatics is

A

a strategy to more selectively target drugs to their intended site of action compared to alternative routes of administration

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76
Q

T/F Probenecid (Benemid) is used for rapid relief from acute attakes of gouty arthritis

A

FALSE

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77
Q

T/F Allopurinol (Zyloprim) decreases uric acid production by inhibiting xanthine oxidase activity

A

TRUE

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78
Q

T/F Low does weekly therapy with methotrexate (MTX) is widely used for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

TRUE

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79
Q

T/F Etanercept (Enbrel) is a tumor necrosis factor TNF antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

TRUE

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80
Q

T/F The weak opioid agonist codeine can be used in combination with aspirin for treatment of moderate pain

A

TRUE

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81
Q

T/F Chronic treatment with high doses of acetaminphen (Tylenol) can produce gastric ulcers

A

TRUE

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82
Q

T/F Aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and naproxen (Alleve) are equally effective anti-inflammatory agents

A

FALSE

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83
Q

T/F The therapeutic actions of montelukast NA (Singulair) are due to its capacity to directly bind 5-LO and inhibit the formation of leukotrienes

A

FALSE

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84
Q

T/F Misoprostol (Cyotec) is an agonist for prostaglandin receptors present on gastric epithelial cells in the gut that stimulate the secretion of prottective mucus and bicarbonate

A

TRUE

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85
Q

T/F M1 muscarinic receptor antagonists such as ipratropium (Atrovent) are an excellent drug choice for a patient showing nocturnal symptoms of asthma

A

TRUE

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86
Q

An unexpected compensatory CV reflex that occurs when a hypertensive patient is treated with a vasodilator could involve

A

An increase in heart rate, an increase in the force of cardiac contraction, and an increase in sodium and water retention

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87
Q

Antihypertensive drugs lower blood pressure by reducing either total peripheral resistance and/or

A

either A or B (A. cardiac output B. heart rate/and or stroke volume)

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88
Q

Which of the following antihypertensive drug classes directly binds to and block L-type Ca channels

A

Dihydropyridines

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89
Q

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists as antihypertensive drugs

A

D. have all the above properties (A. include clonidine, B. act by reducing sympathetic ouflow from the brain C. are used currently only in patients whose hypertension is not well controlled by other drugs)

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90
Q

Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for losartan (Cozaar)?

A

directly blocks AT1 angiotensin receptors

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91
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the treatment approac for patients with HBP?

A

ALL. (A. life style modifications B. Thiazide diuretics for patients with stage 1 HTN C. two drug combo for stage II HTN)

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92
Q

When used for the treatment of angina, nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)

A

reduced myocardial work by decreasing preload

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93
Q

The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are

A

due to an excess of cardiac oxygen demany over oxygen supply

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94
Q

Non-dihydropyridine-type CA channel blocking drugs, eg verapamil (Calan) can be used as anti-anginal agents bc they

A

ALL of the above (A. lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm, C reduce contractility of cardiac myocytes

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95
Q

Digitalis glycosides

A

A and B (A. have a small therapeutic index value, B. enhance contractility by indirectly increasing the intracellular free Ca concentration in cardiac myocytes

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96
Q

Which of the following mechanisms can reduce mortality in the pharmacologic treatment of heart failure?

A

All (A. interference with the peripheral actions of angiotensinII B. prevention of cardiac beta-1 adrenergic receptor activation C. blockade of aldosterone receptors)

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97
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

ALL (A. prevent AT1 angiotensin receptors from being activated B. reduce the synthesis of angiotensin II C. increase levels of bradykinin)

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98
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

ALL (A. inhibits vitamin k-dependent synthesis of clotting factors, B. in contraindicated in pregnancy, C. does not elicit anticoagulation effects in vitro)

99
Q

Synthetic heparins

A

preferentially inhibit active coagulation factor X(Xa)

100
Q

Streptokinase (Streptase)

A

is a non-enzymatic plasminogen activator

101
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets?

A

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

102
Q

Vaughan-Williams Class I

A

Sodium Channel Blockers

103
Q

Vaughn-Williams Class II

A

Beta receptor blockers

104
Q

Vaughn-Williams Class III

A

Potassium Channel Blockers

105
Q

Vaughn-Williams Class IV

A

Ca Channel Blockers

106
Q

Which of the following are used to classify anti-arrhythmic drugs according to the Vaughn-Williams method

A

NONE of the abve (A. low therapeutic index, B. cost, C. pro-arrhythmic potential)

107
Q

According to the Vaughn-Williams classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs, lidocaine is a

A

class I drug that is most effective on active cardiac tissue

108
Q

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

A

class III drug that binds to activated channels

109
Q

Bile acid sequestrants

A

act locally in the small intestine

110
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding LDL?

A

regulation of liver LDL receptor levels is the dominant mechanism for controlling LDL levels in humans

111
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

A

block a rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

112
Q

Nicotinic acid (niacin)

A

inhibits the rate-limiting step in tri-glyceride synthesis

113
Q

Which one of the following drugs selectively blocks the activity of 5-LO?

A

Zileuton (Zyflo)

114
Q

Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as a reversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?

A

Naproxen (Aleve)

115
Q

Which one of the following drugs is least expected to cause gastric ulcers?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

116
Q

? Is an antagonist of lekotreine D4 receptors

A

Montelukast Na (Singulair)

117
Q

? Is selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and causes bronchodilation

A

Albuterol (Provent)

118
Q

? Inhibits IgE from binding to its receptor

A

Omalizumab

119
Q

? Inhibits mast cell degranulation

A

Cromolyn sodium (Intal)

120
Q

? Treats rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydofolate reductase

A

Methotrexate (MTX)

121
Q

? A NSAID widely used for patients with acute gout

A

Indomethacin (Indocin)

122
Q

? Blocks the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Etanercept (Enbrel)

123
Q

T/F Propanolol (Inderal) is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than is metoprolol (Lopressor)

A

FALSE

124
Q

T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating an increase of calcium ion within the muscle cell cytosol

A

TRUE

125
Q

Combination anti-anginal therapy can include beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or Ca channel blockers

A

TRUE

126
Q

Current drug treatment of heart failer involces activating the neuro-humoral systems that increase peripheral vascular resistance and fluid and salt retention in order to incrase cariac output

A

FALSE

127
Q

The COX-2 hypothesis states the COX-2 mediates most cellular “house-keeping” fxns whereas COX-1 mediates most adverse rxns associated with inflammation

A

FALSE

128
Q

Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for lisinopril (Prinivil)

A

reduces angiotensin II levels

129
Q

The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are

A

attributed partly to pain fibers stimulated by metabolites released from cells within ischemic tissue

130
Q

Dihydropyridine-type Ca Channel blocking drugs eg nifedipine (Procardia) are useful anti-anginal agents bc they can

A

A and B (lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm)

131
Q

Digitalis glycosides

A

increase the intracellular free Ca concentration in cadiac myocytes

132
Q

The so-called “vicious cycle of heart failure” involves all of the following except:

A

peripheral vasodilation

133
Q

Alteplase (Activase)

A

is a tissue plasminogen activtor

134
Q

Aspirin

A

irreversibly inhibits COX

135
Q

Which one of the following drugs selectively inhibits factor Xa

A

low molecular weight heparin

136
Q

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

A

blocks a rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

137
Q

Nicotonic acid (niacin)

A

increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase

138
Q

Which of the following is true about glucocorticoids?

A

Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency

139
Q

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

A

D. has none of the above (A. suppresses pulmonary inflam processes B. is an antaginist of leukotriene receptors C. binds to and inhibits ion channels controlling mast cell degranulation)

140
Q

Which one of the following drugs blocks arachidonic acid synthesis

A

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

141
Q

Which one of the following drugs is useful for the long term management of asthma

A

Montelukast Na (Singulair)

142
Q

Which one of the following drugs has gastic ulcers as one of its major side effects?

A

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)

143
Q

T/F Metoprolol is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than propranolol

A

TRUE

144
Q

T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating the production of the second messengers cAMP and cGMP

A

FALSE

145
Q

T/F Cholestryamine (Questran is the first choice drug for any patient with elevated LDL levels

A

FALSE

146
Q

T/F Zileuton (Zyflo) is commonly used in the treatment of COPD

A

FALSE

147
Q

T/F Combination anti-anginal therapy can include using beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or CCBs

A

TRUE

148
Q

Which of the following physiological reflexes is LEAST likely to occur in a hypertensive pt taking a short acting dihydropyridine CCB for the first time

A

reduced sympathetic nervous system activity

149
Q

Which of the following statements best explains what determines arterial blood pressure

A

A and B( A. MAP = CO x TPR B. MAP = SV x HR x TPR

150
Q

The main objective of drug therapy in patients diagnosed with primary hypertension is to

A

bring their BP back down witin the normal range

151
Q

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

A

prolongs the cardiac action potential and increases the QT interval

152
Q

? An AT1 receptor antagonist that blocks angiotensin II’s effects in resistance arterioles and in the adrenal gland

A

Losartan (Cozaar)

153
Q

? A non-selective antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors

A

Propranolol (inderal)

154
Q

? Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme, blocking the formation of angiotensin II from angiotensin 1

A

Lisinopril (Prinivil)

155
Q

? Causes transient reduction in total body fluid volume, but when that diuretic effect diminished, the drug has a sustained antihypertensive effect

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)

156
Q

? Decreases fat soluble vitamin absorption as a side effect

A

bile acid sequestrant

157
Q

? The most effective pharmacologic inducer of HDL levels

A

niacin

158
Q

? Inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis in the hepatocyte

A

HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

159
Q

? Selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes

A

ezetimibe (zetia)

160
Q

Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists are useful antianginal drugs because they

A

attenuate exercise-induced tachycardia

161
Q

When used for the treatment of angina, which of the following statements about nitroglycerin is false?

A

it directly reduces caridac rate and contractility (FALSE about nitroglyerin)

162
Q

Which of the following mechanisms do not contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure

A

blocked of cardiac slow calcium channels

163
Q

When used for the treatment of heart failure, which of the following statements about ACE inhibitors is FALSE

A

the decrease venous capacitance

164
Q

T/F The mechanism of action of drugs used for the treatment of angina pectoris that is precipitated by exercise or emotional stress is dilation of coronary arteries and restoration of blood flow to the ischemic myocardium

A

FALSE

165
Q

T/F Currrent drugs of choice for the treatment of heart failure act primarily to increase the force of cardiac contraction

A

FALSE

166
Q

All of the following mechanisms contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure except

A

increased excretion of salt and water produced by diuretics

167
Q

When used for the treatment of heart failure, potential side effects associated with the use of ACE inhibitors include

A

A and B, cough and hyperkalemia

168
Q

The preferred pharmacological therapy for the treatment of heart failure is directed toward

A

reducing the workload of the heart

169
Q

Which of the following statements about nitroglycerin (nitrostat) is false?

A

It reduces sympathetic activity to the heart

170
Q

Calcium channel blockers are useful for the treatment of angina pectoris because they

A

A and B. reduce afterload and reduce coronary artery vasospasm

171
Q

Which of the following physiological mechanisms does NOT contribute to the antianginal efficacy of the beta-adrenergic blocking drugs?

A

relaxation of venuos smooth muscle

172
Q

Nicotinic acid (niacin)

A

increases VLDL catabolism

173
Q

Minoxidil

A

ALL. (A. binds to and opens potassium channels, causing membrane hyperpolarization and indirectly impairing Ca conductance through L-type Ca2+ channels B. is so powerful that its use is restricted to severe hypertension, hypertensive emergencies, and hypertension uncontrolled by other drugs

174
Q

T/F The principle means by which cardiac glycosides (eg digitalis) bring about circulatory improvement in CHF is by direct dilation of renal arterioles, thereby promoting the excretion of excess extracellular fluid volume.

A

FALSE

175
Q

T/F Most drugs used to treat typical angina increase total coronary blood flow and the amount of oxygen delivered to the heart

A

FALSE

176
Q

T/F Low molecular weight heparin selectively inhibits thrombin

A

FALSE

177
Q

Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs

A

increase the PR interval on the electrocardiogram

178
Q

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

A

blocks K+ channels

179
Q

Arrhythmias due to re-entry

A

ALL. (A. can be treated with adenosine (Adenocard) B. may result from MI C. result from improper conduction of action potentials)

180
Q

Which of the following mechanisms to not contribute to the beneficial effects of ACE inhibitors when they are used for the treatment of heart failure?

A

increased intracellular Ca concentration in the cardiac myocytes

181
Q

When used for the treatment angina pectoris, which if the following statements about organic nitrates is FALSE?

A

They markedly dilate myocardial coronary arterioles in the ischemic zone

182
Q

The mechanism for minoxidil’s (loniten) antihypertensive action involves

A

hyperpolarizing vascular smooth muscle cell membranes

183
Q

Cholestyramine (Qeustran)

A

acts locally in the small intestine

184
Q

When used for the treatment of angina pectoris, which of the following drug combinations has the greatest potential to produce adverse effects on cardiac performance?

A

verapamil and propranolol

185
Q

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with MI?

A

propafenone (Rhythmol)

186
Q

Class I antiarrhythmic drugs

A

are more effective in rapidly beating myocardium

187
Q

Ezetimibe

A

acts locally in the small intestine

188
Q

Cardiovascular reflexes resulting from vasodilation can include

A

increased heart rate

189
Q

The antihypertensive mechanism of action of clinidine (Catapres) involves

A

activation of CNS alpha-2 adrenergic receptors leading to a reduction in sympathetic ouflow from the brain

190
Q

? Blocks the synthesis of thromboxane A2 (TXA2) in platelets

A

Aspirin

191
Q

? Inhibits vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of clotting factors

A

Warfarin (Coumadin)

192
Q

? Preferentially inhibits coagulation factor Xa

A

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

193
Q

? Prevents binding of fibrinogen to glycoprotein Iib/Iia receptors on platelets

A

Abciximad (ReoPro)

194
Q

? Short-acting forms of this CCB are contraindicated in patients with underlying coronary vascular disease

A

Nifedipine (Procardia)

195
Q

? A venous and arterial vasodilator that is administered intravenously for hypertensive emergencies

A

Sodium Nitroprusside

196
Q

? An antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors

A

Propranolol (inderal)

197
Q

? At therapeutic levels the CCB can bind to and inhibit both cardiac and smooth muscle L-type calcium channels

A

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

198
Q

T/F The typical dose of beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists that is used for the initial treatment of heart failure is equilavent to that used for the initial treatment of hypertension

A

FALSE

199
Q

T/F Atorcastatin (Lipitor) selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes

A

FALSE

200
Q

T/F Nicotinic acid (niacin) inhibits the rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

A

FALSE

201
Q

T/F Mild hypertension never requires therapeutic intervention, which should be strictly reserved for patients diagnosed with either moderate or severe hypertension

A

FALSE

202
Q

In patients with heart failure, aldosterone receptor antagonists would likely have which of the following effects on the action of digitalis glycosides?

A

Inhibit digitalis glycoside action

203
Q

Centrally acting antihypertensive drugs

A

ALL. (A. include the alpha2 adrenergic receptor agonist clonidine (Catapres) B. have several unpleasant side-effects C. reduce sympathetic outflow D. are usually reserved for use in patients whose hypertention is not well-controlled by other drugs)

204
Q

Thiazide diuretics reduce blood pressure in hypertensive patient by

A

reducing peripheral vascular resistance

205
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

reduce angiotensin II levels

206
Q

One mechanism of the antihypertensive action of beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonists is to

A

reduce cardiac output

207
Q

? Impairs adenosine disphosphate (ADP) mediated platelet activation

A

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

208
Q

? Preferentially activates plasminogen in the thrombus

A

Alteplase (Activase)

209
Q

? Can slow sinus rhythm and may cause hypotension

A

verapamil (calan)

210
Q

? Shortens the atrial action potential by activating a K+ channel

A

Adenosine (Adenocard)

211
Q

? Used to treat ventricular arrhyhmias and prolongs the refractory period

A

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

212
Q

? Can increase pacing thresholds and slow conduction velocity

A

propafenone (Rhythmol)

213
Q

T/F A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinatrate can reduce mortality in African-Americans with severe heart diasease

A

TRUE

214
Q

T/F The homogenous form of familial hypercholesterolemia is successfully treated with HMG reductase inhibitors

A

FALSE

215
Q

T/F Cholestyramine (Questran) inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis

A

FALSE

216
Q

T/F High levels of cholesterol within hepatocytes lead to a decrease in the transcription of the LDL receptor gene

A

TRUE

217
Q

T/F Treatment with minoxidil (loniten) is considered a first line therapy for the treatment of mild hypertension

A

FALSE

218
Q

T/F A common reflex response to pharmacologic vasodilation. Irrespective of the drug used, is an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity

A

TRUE

219
Q

After ingestion into the stomach, which of the following drugs used for treatment of angina pectoris is most susceptible to first-pass metabolism in the liver?

A

Isosorbide Dinitrate (Sorbitrate)

220
Q

Captopril (Capoten)

A

inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

221
Q

? A class IV antiarrhythmic drug that slows sinus rhythm and AV nodal conduction velocity

A

verapamil (calan)

222
Q

? A drug with prominent local anesthetic properties that is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias

A

lidocaine

223
Q

? Antiarrythmic drug that prolongs the QT interval on the electrocardiogram

A

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

224
Q

Class II antiarrhythmic drug used in the treatment of supraventricular arryhthmias

A

Propranolol (inderal)

225
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept) is an effective immunosuppresant drug bc it

A

Inhibits inosine monophospahte dehydrogenase (IMPDH)

226
Q

Prednisone

A

binds to FK8P12 to exert its immunosuppresive action

227
Q

The calcineurin pathway is essential for

A

nuclear import of the transcription of NFAT

228
Q

Binding of cytokines to immune cells can lead to activation of mTOR and the subsequent phosphorylation of p7056 kinase, which is necessary for cell cycle progression. This activation of mTOR is prevented by

A

sirolimus (Rapamune)

229
Q

Inhibition of the phosphatase calcineurin is important for the immunosuppresive action of

A

A and B (cyclosporin A (Sandimmune) and Tacrolimus (Prograf)

230
Q

Azathioprine (Imuran)

A

acts as an immunosuppresive by none of the above mechanisms (A. ihibits the immune response of foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets B. stimulates the response of T cells to cytokines C. inhibits translocation of the transcription factor NF-KB to the nucleus D. binds to an immunophilin to exert its immunosuppressive action)

231
Q

Daclizumad (Zenapax)

A

blocks interleukin 2 signaling

232
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)

A

inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

233
Q

Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)

A

inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes

234
Q

Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

A

blocks antigen recognition

235
Q

Prednisone (Deltasone)

A

can inhibit the nuclear import of the transcription factor NF-KB

236
Q

Sirolimus (Rapamune) is an effective immunosuppresant drug because it

A

binds to the immunophilin FKBP12

237
Q

? Blocks antigen recognition

A

Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

238
Q

? Inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes

A

Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)

239
Q

? Is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis

A

Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)

240
Q

? Is an inhibitor of mTOR

A

Sirolimus (Rapamune)

241
Q

Tacrolimus (Prograf)

A

inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes

242
Q

<p>Prednisone (Deltasone)</p>

A

<p>inhibits the immune response to foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets</p>

243
Q

<p>? Provides relief from acute gouty attacks</p>

A

<p>Indomethacin (Indocin)</p>

General Pharm (10 decks)

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