PHARM: Antibiotics + Antivirals Flashcards

1
Q

directed vs empirical vs prophylactic Tx

A
  • directed: when we know what the pathogen is
  • empirical: when we don’t know what the pathogen is - ‘best guess’/broad spectrum
  • prophylactic: preventative when there is a significant risk of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 features of an ideal therapeutic agent

A
  • gets to site of infection
  • destroys pathogen but not host (selective toxicity)
  • stays @ target site long enough to be effective
  • eliminated from body w/o causing harm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why do we target folate synthesis as a target in bacteria? which antibiotic does this?

A
  • b/c humans can get folate from diet whereas bacteria can only synthesise it endogenously
  • trimethoprim, methotrexate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why is protein synthesis a good target in bacteria?

A
  • difference in bacteria vs animal cell ribosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when would we use bacteriostatic vs bactericidal antibiotic?

A
  • bacteriostatic: healthy immune function
  • bactericidal: immunocompromised ppl h/w need to consider that dying gram -ve bacteria can release endotoxins, gram +ve bacteria release exotoxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MIC vs MBC vs MEC

A
  • MIC: minimum inhibitory concentration (bacteriostatic)
  • MBC: minimum bactericidal concentration
  • MEC: minimum effective plasma concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

time-dependent antibiotics + examples

A
  • increasing dose does not increase effect, just need to maintain effect for a certain period of time
  • e.g. B-lactams (penicillins + cephalosporins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

concentration-dependent antibiotics + examples

A
  • increasing dose increases effect
  • e.g. aminoglycosides,
    fluoroquinolones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

superinfection

A
  • new infection occurring in a Pt that is being treated for an existing condition
  • due to imbalance of microflora
  • e.g. C. difficile infection after antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MIND ME antimicrobial creed

A
  • Microbiology-guided therapy (knowing the pathogen first)
  • Indications are evidence based
  • Narrowest spectrum possible
  • Dosage personalised to Pt
  • Minimise duration of therapy
  • Ensure oral therapy when appropriate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why is it difficult to get broad spectrum antivirals?

A
  • they differ so much in their structure so can’t get one that targets many viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

do virucidal drugs exist?

A
  • no, only virustatic
  • viruses are not living so can’t kill them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why do viruses become resistant to drugs?

A
  • mutate very quickly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

should we always take antivirals?

A
  • no, this can lead to resistance as not necessary
  • immune system = best defence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

high risk populations for viruses

A
  • pregnant women
  • newborns
  • elderly
  • immunocompromised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which viruses have antiviral Tx?

A
  • herpesviridiae: herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus
  • influenza
  • hep B and C
  • RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)
  • HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

examples of antiretroviral (ART) drug classes

A
  • reverse transcriptase inhibitors (nucleoside or non-nucleoside) - NRTI or NNRTI
  • protease inhibitors
  • entry inhibitors
  • integrase inhibitors
18
Q

adverse effects to antivirals

A
  • headache, malaise (general discomfort), fatigue e.g. guanine analogs and neuraminidase inhibitors
  • dose-limiting toxicity e.g. hepatomegaly
  • significant drug interactions e.g. protease inhibitors for HIV
19
Q

aim of ART (antiretroviral) - HIV Tx

A
  • achieve maximal and durable suppression of viral load
  • restore or preserve immune function
  • resolve symptoms of HIV infections
    > improve QOL
  • reduce mortality
  • prevent HIV transmission
20
Q

best type of Tx for ART

A
  • combination therapy
  • 3 or more drugs from 2 or more classes
  • fixed dose combinations available (in one tablet) to increase Pt compliance
  • e.g. HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy)
21
Q

when is the CD4 count considered AIDS and how many do we want ideally?

A
  • CD4 count < 200
  • ideally we want 500+
22
Q

penicillin: class, MOA, adverse effects, example, how is it excreted?

A
  • B-lactams (bactericidal - gram +ve)
  • MOA: irreversibly inhibits transpeptidases which facilitate cross-linking and strengthening of the cell wall
  • adverse effects: allergies, superinfection
  • e.g. amoxicillin (generally 1st line Tx)
  • excreted renally
23
Q

cephalosporins: class, MOA, contraindication, side effects, example

A
  • B-lactams (bactericidal against gram +ve and -ve)
  • MOA: irreversibly inhibits transpeptidases which facilitate cross-linking and strengthening of the cell wall
  • can be contraindicated in Pts w/ penicillin allergy
  • GI issues (‘lex’ sounds like laxative)
  • e.g. cephalexin
24
Q

glycopeptides: MOA, adverse effects, examples

A
  • bactericidal (gram +ve only)
  • MOA: irreversibly inhibits transglycosidase enzyme > inhibits cell wall synthesis
  • adverse effects: red man syndrome (vasodilation from rapid IV administration), ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
  • e.g. vancomycin (ambulance Van = Red Cross = gram +ve, also Red man’s) - used for MRSA or B-lactam allergies
25
Q

trimethoprim: MOA, adverse effects

A
  • MOA: inhibits folate USE by inhibiting DHF (dihydrofolate) reductase
  • adverse effects: allergies
26
Q

sulphonamide MOA

A
  • inhibits folate synthesis
27
Q

macrolides: MOA, adverse effects, example, what is it used for

A
  • bacteriostatic
  • MOA: reversibly binds to 50s ribosomal subunit + interferes w/ bacterial protein synthesis
  • adverse effects: cardiotoxic (arrhythmias), hepatotoxic, GIT issues
  • e.g. erythromycin (THR = THREE trimesters = contraindicated in pregnant Pts)
  • 2nd line Tx for Pts allergic to penicillin
  • used for URTIs
28
Q

chloramphenicol: class, MOA, adverse effects

A
  • class: chloramphenicol (bacteriostatic)
  • MOA: reversibly binds to 50s ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation
  • adverse effects: grey baby syndrome, abdominal distention, grey discolouration
  • “chlor” = chlorine = drowning baby = grey baby
29
Q

tetracycline: MOA, adverse effects, contraindications, example

A
  • bacteriostatic
  • MOA: reversibly binds to 30s ribosomal subunit, preventing protein synthesis
  • adverse effects: chelates (depletes) Ca2+, teeth discolouration, decreased bone growth in children under 8, photosensitivity, nephrotoxic, hepatotoxic
  • contraindications: children younger than 8 and pregnant women after 18 weeks
  • e.g. doxycycline
30
Q

aminoglycosides: MOA, adverse effects, examples

A
  • bactericidal (broad spectrum, gram -ve aerobes)
  • MOA: irreversibly binds to 30s ribosomal subunit > misreads mRNA
  • adverse effects: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
  • gentamicin, streptomycin
31
Q

fluoroquinolones: MOA, adverse effects, examples

A
  • bactericidal
  • MOA: inhibits DNA replication by inhibiting topoisomerase
  • adverse effects: cartilage and tendon damage, phototoxicity
  • e.g. ciprofloxacin
32
Q

nitroimidazole: MOA, adverse effects, example

A
  • bactericidal (anaerobes - metro = train = train can’t breathe)
  • MOA: inhibits DNA replication by unwinding DNA (can also target Giardia) - METRO = train tracks = unwind DNA
  • adverse effects: metallic taste (metal train tracks), interferes with alcohol metabolism, peripheral neuropathy
  • e.g. metronidazole
33
Q

TB treatment

A
  • RIPE
  • rifampicin - inhibits RNA polymerase, turns secretions orange and yellow
  • isoniazid (1st line) - targets mycolic acid synthesis
  • pyrazinamide - mycolic acid
  • ethambutol - mycolic acid
34
Q

ritonavir MOA, adverse effects, indication

A
  • MOA: protease inhibitor (pharmacoenhancer - boosts other protease inhibitors by slowing metabolism)
  • adverse effects: GI effects, nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity
  • indication: part of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy - HIV)
35
Q

tenofovir: MOA, adverse effects, indication

A
  • MOA: inhibits viral DNA polymerase
  • adverse effects: GIT issues
  • indication: HIV prophylaxis, chronic hep B
36
Q

aciclovir: MOA, adverse effects, indication

A
  • MOA: DNA polymerase inhibitor
  • adverse effects: GIT issues
  • indication: herpes simplex, varicella zoster
37
Q

oseltamivir: MOA, adverse effects, indication

A
  • MOA: neuraminidase inhibitor, preventing influenza release from cell
  • adverse effects: GIT issues
  • indication: influenza A and B Tx and prophylaxis IN IMMUNOCOMPROMISED PTS
38
Q

interferon alpha: MOA, adverse effects, indication

A
  • MOA: stimulate immune response, interferes w/ viral DNA
  • adverse effects: headache, fever, chills, myalgia, retinopathy - dose-dependent
  • indication: hep B, C and cancer
39
Q

if a bacteria has endotoxins within its cell wall, is it better to use a bacteriostatic or bactericidal antibiotic?

A
  • bacteriostatic
  • if given bactericidal, endotoxins (gram -ve) or exotoxins (gram +ve) may be released and cause more harm than good
40
Q

some bacteria have B-lactamase enzymes that break down penicillin drugs - why must penicillin be administered with C-lavulonic acid?

A
  • because C.A. is a suicide component that undergoes breakdown to protect the drug
41
Q

NRTIs vs NNRTIs

A
  • NRTIs: terminate DNA elongation, causing non-viable virions to form.
  • NNRTIs inhibit RT enzyme active site > prevent reverse transcription happening