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Pharmacology > Pharm (A/Q) > Flashcards

Pharm (A/Q) Flashcards

1
Q

Measures the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate ( dec Km = inc affinity)

A

Km

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2
Q

Maximal velocity of an enzymatic reaction (proportional to enzyme concentration)

A

Vmax

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3
Q

Does not change Vmax (Lineweaver-Burke lines cross each other “competitively”)

A

Competitive inhibition

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4
Q

Decreases Vmax (Lineweaver-Burke lines do not cross each other)

A

Noncompetitive inhibition

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5
Q

Drug in body / plasma drug concentration (low Vd (4-8L: in blood)’ medium Vd (in extracellular space)’ High Vd (> body weight: in tissues))

A

Volume of Distribution (Vd)

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6
Q

Rate of elimination of drug / plasma drug concentration (OR Vd x Kc’ where Kc is the elimination constant)

A

Clearance (CL)

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7
Q

T1/2 = (0.7 x Vd) / CL

A

Half life (t1/2)

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8
Q

1:50%’ 2:75%’ 3:87.5%’ 4:93.75%

A

Concentration of a substance after X half lives (1’2’3’4)

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9
Q

”= Cp x (Vd / F); (Cp: target plasma conc., F: bioavailability, 1 if by IV)

A

Loading dose

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10
Q

”= Cp x (CL / F); (Cp: target plasma conc., F: bioavailability, 1 if by IV; a renal patient would have decreased clearance, so they would need a decreased maintenance dose)

A

Maintenance dose

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11
Q

PEA (phenytoin, ethanol, aspirin)

A

Common drugs that follow zero-order elimination

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12
Q

Will get trapped in a basic environment, treat with bicarbonate

A

Treating a weak acid overdose

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13
Q

Will get trapped in an acidic environment, treat with ammonium chloride

A

Treating a weak base overdose

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14
Q

(Cytochrome P450) 1. reduction, 2. oxidation, 3. hydrolysis (drugs became slightly polarized, may still be active)

A

Reactions involved in phase I drug metabolism

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15
Q

(Conjugation) 1. acetylation, 2. glucuronidation, 3. sulfonation (drugs become very polarized, are inactivated)

A

Reactions involved in phase II drug metabolism

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16
Q

Competitive antagonist shifts curve right, requires bigger dose of drug for effect (inc EC50); noncompetitive antagonist shortens curve, cannot reach same level of effect (dec efficacy)

A

Effect of competitive antagonists on efficacy curves versus noncompetitive antagonists

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17
Q

Partial agonists will have a lower maximal efficacy than full agonists (however potency is independent, they may still be more potent or less potent than a full agonist)

A

Effect of partial agonists versus full agnoists on efficacy curves

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18
Q

TILE: TI = LD50 / ED50 (median toxic dose / median effective dose; Safer drugs have HIGHER TI values)

A

Therapeutic index (TI)

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19
Q

Receptor location: NMJ; Function: skeletal muscle contraction; Mechanism: ion channel (Na influx)

A

Nm receptors

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20
Q

Receptor location: Ganglia; Function: stimulates sympathetics and parasympathetics; Mechanism: ion channel (Na influx);

A

Nn receptors

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21
Q

Receptor location: Nerve endings; Function: Gastric acid secretion; Mechanism: Gq protein;

A

M1 receptors

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22
Q

Receptor location: Heart; Function: Inhibitory, reduces heart rate; Mechanism: Gi protein;

A

M2 receptors

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23
Q

Receptor location: Smooth muscle, endothelium, glands; Function: bronchoconstriction, pupil constriction, accommodation, increases secretions; Mechanism: Gq proteins;

A

M3 receptors

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24
Q

Receptor location: Arterioles, glands; Function: vasoconstriction, pupillary dilation; Mechanism: Gq protein;

A

a1

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25
Q

Receptor location: presynaptic nerve endings; Function: inhibitory, feedback inhibition of NT release; Mechanism: Gi protein;

A

a2

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26
Q

Receptor location: heart, kidney; Function: heart stimulation, renin release; Mechanism: Gs protein;

A

b1

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27
Q

Receptor location: lungs, skeletal muscle; Function: Vasodilation, bronchiole dilation, ciliary process (makes aqueous humour); Mechanism: Gs protein;

A

b2

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28
Q

Receptor location: Fat; Function: excitatory; Mechanism: Gs protein;

A

b3

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29
Q

Function: vasodilation; Mechanism: Gs protein;

A

D1

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30
Q

Function: Causes NT release in brain; Mechanism: Gi protein;

A

D2

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31
Q

Function: stimulates mucuous production, bronchiole constriction, pain, itching; Mechanism: Gq protein;

A

H1

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32
Q

Function: gastric acid secretion; Mechanism: Gs protein;

A

H2

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33
Q

Function: vasoconstriction; Mechanism: Gq protein;

A

V1

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34
Q

Function: inc H20 permeability, reabsorption in collecting tubules in kidney; Mechanism: Gs protein;

A

V2

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35
Q

Sick of sex (SIQ, SQS) D1,D2, H1, H2, V1, V2

A

Mnemonic for g protein receptors used for D, H, and V receptors

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36
Q

Gq protein activates PLC, IP3 + DAG, inc Ca++ (IP3) and activate PKC (DAG)

A

Function of Gq protein receptors

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37
Q

Gi protein activates K+ channels, inhibition of adenylate cyclase, reduction of cAMP

A

Function of Gi protein receptors

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38
Q

Gs protein activates adenylate cyclase, increases cAMP

A

Function of Gs protein receptors

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39
Q

DUMBBELSS (Diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation (of skeletal muscle), lacrimation, sweating, salivation); treatment: atropine (reverses symptoms) + pralidoxime (regenerates cholinesterase)

A

Symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

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40
Q

Hot as a hare (inc temp), Dry as a bone (dec secretions), Red as a beet (flushed skin), Blind as a bat (cycloplegia), Mad as a hatter

A

Symptoms of muscarinic antagonist overdose

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41
Q

Bethanechol, carbachol, pilocarpine, methacholine

A

Direct cholinergic agonist drugs

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42
Q

Bethanechol

A

Direct cholinergic agonist; activates bowel and bladder post operation

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43
Q

Carbachol

A

Direct cholinergic agonist; used in glaucoma (causes pupillary contraction and reduces ICP)

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44
Q

Pilocarpine (PILE on the sweat and tears)

A

Direct cholinergic agonist; potent stimulator of sweat and tears

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45
Q

Methacholine

A

Direct cholinergic agonist; challenge test for asthma diagnosis

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46
Q

(-stigmine, Ed PHYSted the MAiLman and it ECHOed) Neostigmine, pyridostigmine, physostigmine, edrophonium, echothiophate, malathion

A

Indirect cholinergic agonist drugs (anticholinesterases)

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47
Q

Neostigmine (NEO CNS)

A

Indirect cholinergic agonist; used in post operative reversal of NMJ block; does NOT penetrate the CNS

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48
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Indirect cholinergic agonist; used for myasthenia gravis (due to it’s long action); does NOT penetrate the CNS

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49
Q

Physostigmine (PHYS is for EYES)

A

Indirect cholinergic agonist; Used for glaucoma and atropine overdose (does cross CNS)

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50
Q

Edrophonium

A

Indirect cholinergic agonist; Used to diagnose myasthenia gravis (extremely short action)

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51
Q

Echothiophate

A

Indirect cholinergic agonist; used for glaucoma

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52
Q

Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide, benztropine, scopolamine, ipratropium, methscopolamine, oxybutynin, glycopyrrolate, pirenzepine, propantheline

A

Muscarinic antagonist drugs

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53
Q

Atropine (or homatropine, tropicamide)

A

Muscarinic antagonist drug(s); produces mydriasis and cycloplegia (eye)

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54
Q

Benztropine (PARK my BENZ)

A

Muscarinic antagonist drug; treatment for parkinson’s (CNS)

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55
Q

Scopolamine

A

Muscarinic antagonist drug; treatment of motion sickness (CNS)

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56
Q

Ipratropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist drug; treats asthma and COPD (respiratory)

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57
Q

Methscopolamine (or oxybutynin, glycopyrrolate)

A

Muscarinic antagonist drug(s); Reduces bladder urgency in cystitis and bladder spasms (GI)

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58
Q

Pirenzepine (or propantheline)

A

Muscarinic antagonist drug(s); treatment of peptic ulcers (GI)

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59
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic antagonist drug; Used to block DUMBBELSS; Toxicity: hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter

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60
Q

Hexamethonium

A

Nicotinic antagonist; ganglion blocker, used in experimental models to prevent vaga reflex responses to BP changes

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61
Q

B1

A

Low doses of epinephrine are selective for what receptor?

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62
Q

Epinephrine

A

Drug used for anaphylaxis, open angle glaucoma, asthma and hypotension. Binds a1, a2, B1 and B2 receptors.

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63
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Drug used for hypotension. Binds a1, a2 > B1

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64
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Drug that binds B1 = B2. Used rarely for AV block

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65
Q

Dopamine

A

Drug used for shock (by increased renal perfusion), and heart failure. Binds D1 = D2 > B > a.

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66
Q

Dobutamine

A

Drug used for shock, heart failure, and cardiac stress test. Bind B1 > B2.

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67
Q

Dopamine is inotropic and chronotropic, Dobutamine is inotropic but not chronotropic.

A

What is the difference in inotropy and chronotropy between dopamine and dobutamine.

68
Q

Phenylephrine.

A

Drug used for pupillary dilation, vasoconstriction, and nasal decongestion. Binds a1 > a2.

69
Q

Albuterol

A

Drugs used for acute asthma. Binds B2>B1/

70
Q

Terbutaline

A

Drug used to reduce premature uterine contractions. Binds B2 > B1.

71
Q

Ritodrine

A

Drug used to reduce premature uterine contractions. Binds B2 only.

72
Q

Amphetamine

A

Drug used to treat narcolepsy, obesity, ADD. Releases stored catecholamines.

73
Q

Ephedrine

A

Drug used for nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, and hypotension. Releases stored catecholamines.

74
Q

Cocaine

A

Drug that causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia. Inhibits reuptake of NE.

75
Q

Clonidine, a-methyldopa

A

Drug used to treat hypertension (esp in renal disease because it prevents decrease in blood flow to kidney. Centrally acting a2 agonist.

76
Q

Increased systolic and diastolic pressure, reflex bradycardia (all because a>B)

A

Effect of NE on systolic and diastolic BP, and heart rate.

77
Q

Increased systolic (B1), decreased diastolic (B2) (wide PP, no change in mean BP), increased heart rate (B1)

A

Effect of epinephrine systolic, diastolic BP and heart rate

78
Q

Decrease BP (sys and diastolic, B2), BIG increase in HR (B1) (isoproterenol = B > a)

A

Effect of isoproterenol on BP and heart rate

79
Q

MAST (metaproterenol, albuterol, salmeterol, terbutaline)

A

Mnemonic for selective B2 agonists

80
Q

Phenoxybenzamine (irreversible), Phentolamine (reversible, both nonselective alpha blockers)

A

Drugs (2) used in pheochromocytoma before tumor is removed. SE: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia

81
Q

(a1 antagonists) Prazosin, Terazosin, doxazosin

A

Alpha antagonist used for hypertension and urinary retention in BPH. SE: first dose orthostatic hypotension

82
Q

(a2 selective) Mirtazapine

A

Alpha antagonist used for depression. SE: sedation, inc serum cholesterol, inc appetite.

83
Q

Dec CO, dec renin secretion (B1)

A

How do beta blockers effect hypertension

84
Q

Dec mortality after MI

A

How are B blockers used in MI

85
Q

Propanolol, esmolol

A

What B blockers are used in supraventricular tachycardia

86
Q

Dec. AV conduction velocity (SVT)

A

What type of arrhythmia are B blockers used for

87
Q

Dec secretion of aqueous humor (timolol)

A

How are B blockers used in glaucoma.

88
Q

Impotence, exacerbates asthma, don’t use with diabetics

A

What are the side effects of B blockers

89
Q

Propanolol, timolol, nadolol, pindolol, labetalol

A

What are the nonselective B blockers

90
Q

A BEAM of B1 blockers (acebutolol, betaxolol, esmolol, atenolol, metoprolol)

A

What are the selective B1 blockers (mnemonic)

91
Q

Carvedilol, labetalol

A

Nonselective alpha and beta antagonists

92
Q

N-acetylcysteine

A

Treatment for overdose of acetaminophen

93
Q

NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine), dialysis

A

Treatment for overdose of Salicylates

94
Q

NH4Cl (acidify urine)

A

Treatment for overdose of amphetamines

95
Q

Atropine, pralidoxime

A

Treatment for overdose of anticholinesterases, organophosphates

96
Q

Physostigmine saligylate

A

Treatment for overdose of antimuscainic and anticholinergic agents

97
Q

Glucagon

A

Treatment for overdose of B blockers

98
Q

K+, lidocaine, digibind, Mg2+

A

Treatment for overdose of digitalis

99
Q

Deferoxamine

A

Treatment for overdose of iron

100
Q

CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer (kids), penicilamine

A

Treatment for overdose of lead

101
Q

Dimercapol, succimer

A

Treatment for overdose of arsenic, mercury, gold

102
Q

Penicillamine

A

Treatment for overdose of copper, arsenic, gold

103
Q

Nitrite, hydroxycobalamin, thiosulfate

A

Treatment for overdose of cyanide

104
Q

Methylene blue

A

Treatment for overdose of methemoglobin

105
Q

100% O2, hyperbaric O2

A

Treatment for overdose of CO

106
Q

Ehtanol, dialysis, fomezipol

A

Treatment for overdose of methanol or ethylene glycol (antifreeze)

107
Q

Naloxone, naltrexone

A

Treatment for overdose of opiods

108
Q

Flumazenil

A

Treatment for overdose of benzodiazapines

109
Q

NaHCO3 (serum alkanization)

A

Treatment for overdose of TCAs

110
Q

Protamine

A

Treatment for overdose of heparin

111
Q

Vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma

A

Treatment for overdose of warfarin

112
Q

Aminocaproic acid

A

Treatment for overdose of tPA, streptokinase

113
Q

Lead poisining

A

Sx: lines on gingivae and long bone epiphyses, encephalopathy and erythrocyte basophilic stippling, abdominal colic, sideroblastic anemia, wrist and foot drop

114
Q

Iron poisining

A

Acute poisining = gastric bleeding, chronic poisining = metaboic acidosis, GI obstruction (scarring). MOA = peroxidation of lipids

115
Q

Tricyclics

A

What drugs give an atropine like side effect to the cardiovascular system?

116
Q

Cocaine, sumatripan

A

What drugs (2) cause coronary vasospasm as a side effect?

117
Q

Niacin, Ca channel blockers, adenosine, vancomycin

A

What drugs (4) cause cutaneous flushing as a side effect

118
Q

Doxorubicin, daunorubicin

A

What drugs (2) cause dilated cardiomyopathy as a side effect

119
Q

Class III antiarrythmics (sotalol), Class IA (quinidine) antiarrhythmics, cisapride

A

What drugs (3) cause torsades de pointes as a side effect

120
Q

Clozapine, carbamazapine, colchicine, propylthiouracil, methimazole

A

What drugs (5) can cause agranulocytosis as a side effect

121
Q

Chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDs, propylthiouracil, methimazole

A

What drugs (5) can cause Aplastic anemia as a side effect

122
Q

Methyldopa

A

What drug can give a direct positive coomb’s hemolytic anemia?

123
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

What drug can cause grey baby syndrome as a side effect

124
Q

INH, sulfonamides, primaquin, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin (hemolysis IS PAIN)

A

What drugs (6 - mnemonic) can cause hemolysis in G6PD patients.

125
Q

OCPs (estrogen and progestins)

A

What drug class can cause thrombotic compications as a side effect?

126
Q

ACE inhibitors (NOT ARBs)

A

What drug causes a dry cough as a side effect?

127
Q

Bleomycin, busulfan, amiodarone

A

What drugs (3) can cause pulmonary fibrosis as a side effect?

128
Q

Macrolides

A

What drug can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis as a side effect?

129
Q

Halothane, valproic acid, acetominophen, Amanita phalloides

A

What drus (4) can cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis as a side effect?

130
Q

INH

A

What drug can cause hepatitis as a side effect?

131
Q

Clindamycin, ampicillin

A

What drugs (2) can cause psuedomembranous colitis as a side effect?

132
Q

Glucocorticoid withdrawal

A

What drug can cause adrenocortical insufficiency as a side effect

133
Q

Spironolactone, digitalis, cimetidine, chronic alcohol use, estrogens, ketoconazole (Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers)

A

What drugs (6) can cause gynecomastia as a side effect? (mnemonic)

134
Q

Tamoxifen, clomiphene

A

What drugs (2) can cause hot flashes as a side effect?

135
Q

Phenytoin

A

What drug causes gingival hyperplasia as a side effect?

136
Q

Furosemide, thiazides

A

What drugs (2) can cause gout as a side effect

137
Q

Corticosteroids, heparin

A

What drugs (2) can cause osteoporosis as a side effect?

138
Q

Sulfonamides, Amiodarone, Tetracycline (SAT for a PHOTO)

A

What drugs (3) can cause photosensitivity as a side effect (mnemonic)?

139
Q

Hydralazine, INH, procainamide, phenytoin (it’s not HIPP to have lupus)

A

What drugs (4) can cause an SLE-like syndrome as a side effect?

140
Q

Fluoroquinalones

A

What drug causes tendonitis, tendon rupture and cartilage damage as a side effect in kids?

141
Q

Expired tetracycline

A

What drug causes Fanconi’s syndrome as a side effect

142
Q

Methicillin, NSAIDs

A

What drugs (2) cause interstitial nephritis as a side effect?

143
Q

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

A

What drugs (2) cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect?

144
Q

Quinidine, quinine

A

What drugs (2) cause cinchonism as a side effect?

145
Q

Lithium, demeclocycline

A

What drugs (2) cause diabetes insipidus as a side effect

146
Q

Bupropion, imipenem/cilastin

A

What drugs (2) cause seizures as a side effect?

147
Q

Antipsychotics (typical)

A

What drugs cause tardive dyskinesia?

148
Q

Metronidazole, cephalosporins (some), procarbazine, 1st generation sulfonylureas

A

What drugs (4) cause a disulfiram-like reaction as a side effect

149
Q

Polymixins

A

What drug causes nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity as side effects?

150
Q

Aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, cisplatin

A

What drugs (3) cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity as a side effect?

151
Q

Queen barb takes Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy Card Shakes (quinidine, barbiturates, phenytoin, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazapine, st. john’s wart)

A

Mnemonic for p450 inducers

152
Q

Inhibitors Stop Cyber-Kids from Eating Grapefruit (INH, sulfonamides, cimetidine, ketoconazole, erythromycin, grapefruit juice)

A

Mnemonic for p450 inhibitors

153
Q

Coadminister with mesna

A

Method to prevent hymorrhagic cystitis caused by cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide

154
Q

Oxalic acid

A

What is ethylene glycol converted to in the body

155
Q

Acidosis, nephrotoxicity

A

What does oxalic acid (metabolic product of ethylene glycol) cause?

156
Q

Formaldehyde and formic acid

A

What metabolic products (2) is methanol converted to in the body

157
Q

Severe acidosis, and retinal damage

A

What are the effects of formaldehyde and formic acid (metabolic products of methanol) in the body?

158
Q

Acetaldehyde

A

What is ethanol broken down by in the body?

159
Q

Alcohol dehydrogenase

A

What enzyme breaks down ethylene glycol, methanol, and ethanol?

160
Q

Fomepizole

A

Inhibitor of alcohol DH

161
Q

Sulfa drugs (celcoxib, furosemide, thiazides, TMP-SMX, sulfonyureas, sulfasalazine

A

What drugs do you not give people with sulfa allergies

162
Q

Ephedra

A

Herbal agent that can cause arrythmias, stroke, and seizures at high doses

163
Q

Feverfew (migraines) and ginko (claudication)

A

Herbal agents that have antiplatelet actions

164
Q

Kava (chronic anxiety)

A

Herbal agent that can cause phototoxicity and dermatotoxicity

165
Q

Saw palmetto (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

A

Herbal agent that can cause hypertension

166
Q

St. John’s wort (depression)

A

Herbal agent that can cause serotonin syndrome w/ ssris, and induces p-450

167
Q

Dehydroepiandosterone (SLE or AIDs)

A

Herbal agent that causes androgenization in premenopausal women, and estrogen effects in postmenopausal women and feminization in young men

Pharmacology (6 decks)

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