Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Is probenicid a sulfa drug?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is ziconotide administered

A

Only for chronic pain as it is administered intrathecally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What class of drug is duloxetine

A

Antidepressant SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of action for clonidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the drug sulfinpyrazone most similar to

A

Probenecid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

COX1 tends to be expressed in which locations

A

All tissues all the time, with the prominent role in responding to physiological stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does ASA differ from other NSAIDs

A

ASA i irreversible while others are reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the mechanism of action for anakinra

A

IL1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the properties of a drug that ends in:

-mab

A

Monoclonal Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the properties of a drug that ends in:

-zumab

A

Humanized mAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When are glucocorticoids particularly effective

A

When waiting for other long drugs to kick in, or when there is a flare up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the adverse reaction seen with rituximab

A

Infusion hypersensitivity rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is ketamine different than most anesthetics

A

Actually raises the blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action for tofacitinub

A

JAK3 antagonist (Decreased IL-17 and IFN-gamma) and CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of drug is pregabalin

A

Antiepileptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the conditions that pregabalin is approved to treat

A

1) Neuropathic pain with DM
2) postherpetic neuralgia
3) Partial seizures
4) fibromyalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the most common adverse effects of tocilizumab

A

URI

-Life threatening infections like TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the properties of a drug that ends in:

-umab

A

-Human mAb origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mechanism of action for adalimumab

A

Anti TNF (subQ every 2 weeks)

***Best selling drug in the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the effect of other NSAIDs on the effect of ASA

A

It atagoniszes because the receptors are already saturated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the mechanism of actio for hydroxychloroquine, what is it normally used to treat, and how does it cause immunosupression

A

Radiates the pH of the cell, usually used to treat malaria, and the increased pH in the lysosomes lead to decreased presentation of the antigen on MHC2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the mechanism of action for celecoxib

A

COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the contraindications for NSAID use

A
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Gastric ulcer
  • heart failure or uncontrolled HTN
  • Allergy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mechanism of action for infliximab

A

Anti TNF (IV every 6 weeks)

25
Q

What is the mechansim of action for sulfalazine, its normal use, and how it causes immunosupression

A

Sulfpyridine is the active agent (as opposed to 5-ASA in IBD), normally used in IBD

26
Q

What is the effect of acetaminophen on warfarin

A

-Inhibits metabolism of it, so increased risk of bleeding

27
Q

What are the general trends of biological DMARDs

A
  • Faster onset
  • High rate of response
  • More expensive
  • Increased risk for side effects
28
Q

What is the MOA of pregabalin

A

-Bind to alpha2-delta on the VGCalcium channel in the CNS

29
Q

What is the downside of COX2 only inhibitors

A

Increase the risk for MI and stroke

Does not inhibit platelet aggregation (does eliminate bleeding tho)

30
Q

What kind of drug is tramadol

A

Antidepressant and weak mu

*blocks NE and 5HT reuptake by blocking MAO

31
Q

What makes Aspirin so effective in the Inhibition of platelet aggregation

A

It is irreversible Inhibition of COX, so the effect is felt for the lifetime of the platelet, which is 8 days

32
Q

What type of drug is gabapentin

A

Antiepileptic drug

33
Q

How does acetaminophen differ from other NSAIDs

A

Suppresses pain and fever, but no inflammation

-No GI ulcers, platelet aggregation suppression, or renal impairment

34
Q

What is the difference between feboxustat and allopurinol

A

Allopurinol is purine competitive inhibitor

Feboxustat is a nonpuring competitive inhibitor

35
Q

What is the mechanism of action for etanercept

A

Anti-TNF (IV 1 or 2 x/week)

36
Q

What is the mechanism of action for tocilizumab

A

IL6 antagonist

37
Q

What is the mechanism of action for dexmedetomidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist

38
Q

How does methotrexate cause antiinflammatory effects

A

Blocks the synthesis of purine by acting as a folate analog. There is the buildup of adenosine which binds to the GCPR and acts as an anti inflammatory

39
Q

How does pegloticase work

A

Covelently attaches to methyoxy polyethylene glycol and converts uric acid into allantoin

40
Q

What is the mechanism of action for abatacept

A

Prevents CD28 bindings to CD80/86

41
Q

Where and when does COX2 tend to be expressed

A

In some tissue and is induced sometimes

42
Q

What are the effects to TCA and other antidepressant

A

Anticholinergic, tachycardia, nausea/vomiting, sedation and mental clouding

43
Q

What class of drug is amitriptyline

A

Antidepressant TCA

44
Q

What is the MOA for ketamine

A

NMDA antagonist

45
Q

What kind of drug is tapentadol

A

Antidepressant and weak mu

*Blocks NE and 5HT reuptake and inhibition of MAO

46
Q

What is the mechanism of action for lefunomide, its normal use, and its mechanism of action in immunosupression

A

Inhibits dihydrooratate dehydrogenase, which blocks proliferation of T cells

47
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of leflunomide

A

Diarrhea, respiratory infection, alopecia, rash, nausea

48
Q

What is the rule of thumb when used biological DMARDs

A

Never combine biological DMARDs with one another

*Can be used with a nonbiological though

49
Q

What are the properties of a drug that ends in:

-cept

A

Fusion of the receptor to the Fc part of IgG1

50
Q

What are the potent NSAIDs that are recommended for Acute Gout

A
  • Naproxen
  • Indomethacin
  • Celecoxib
51
Q

What is the only biological DMARD that is not injection

A

Tofacitinib

52
Q

What is the risk factor with hydroxychloroquine

A

Retinal damage

53
Q

Which HLA can increase the risk of Stevens Johnson syndrome with allopurinol

A

HLA-B*5801

Commonly seen in Thai and Han Chinese

54
Q

What are the properties of a drug that ends in:

-ximab

A

Chimeric antibody

55
Q

What are the side effects of sulfasalazine

A
  • GI effectors
  • a sulfa drug
  • Inhibts folate uptake, so supplementation may be needed
56
Q

Is hydroxychloroquine safe for pregnancy?

A

Yes

57
Q

How do glucocorticoids work

A

Binds to the receptors to Decreased the amount of NFkB and AP1 factors

Inhibitor of PLA2

58
Q

What is the mechanism of action for ziconotide

A

N type Calcium antagonist