Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Sympathetic nervous system results in ______ __ ______, while the parasympathetic nervous system results in _____ ___ ______.

A

Fight or flight

Rest and digest

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2
Q

Drugs that increase sympathetic response are known as ___________

A

Sympathomimetics

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3
Q

Drugs that block sympathetic response are known as ____________.

A

Sympatholytics

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4
Q

What are the two neurotransmitters of the SNS?

A

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

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5
Q

SNS neurotransmitters bind to _________ receptors. What are the 3 subtypes?

A

Adrenergic (Alpha, Beta, Dopamine)

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6
Q

PSNS neurotransmitters bind to _________ receptors. What are the 2 subtypes?

A

Cholinergic (Nicotonic, Muscarinic)

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7
Q

Acetylcholine release is _____ dependent

A

Ca2++

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8
Q

Acetylcholine is broken down by what?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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9
Q

Is acetylcholine an agonist or antagonist?

A

Agonist

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10
Q

Epinephrin, Norepinephrin, and dopamine are examples of what neurotransmitter?

A

Catecholamines

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11
Q

Study of the genetic variation in drug response usually monogenic is know as ______________.

A

Pharmacogenetics

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12
Q

Surveying the genome to assess multigenic determinants of drug response is known as ______________.

A

Pharmacogenomics

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13
Q

Genetic variation among individuals within a specific species or population is known as _____________.

A

Polymorphisms (Ex; Blood types)

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14
Q

Drug response is determined by what two factors?

A

Genetic factors

Environmental factors

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15
Q

Single nucleotide exchanged for another at a point on the individual’s genome are called ____________ ___________ ____________, also known as normal genetic variation.

A

Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms

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16
Q

SNP typically effect the genotype or phenotype?

A

Genotype

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17
Q

What is a misense SNP?

A

Base pair change results in amino acid substitution

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18
Q

What is a synonymous SNP?

A

Base pair changed doesn’t alter the amino acid

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19
Q

What is a Nonsense SNP?

A

Base pair change leads to stop codon

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20
Q

In regards to phenotypes, variability in genes than encode kinetic determinants is known a what.

A

Kinetic

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21
Q

What happens when an ultra-rapid metabolizer at 2D6 takes imipramine which is metabolized by 2D6?

A

it gets used up (metabolized) quickly, meaning it may not get to therapeutic levels

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22
Q

With nomenclature, the first letter/number group identifies what? The star and following number identify what?

A

Gene

Allele

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23
Q

Ultrarapid metabolzers have ____ ____ _____ copies of functional alleles.

A

More than two

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24
Q

Extensive metabolizers have _____ functional allele with ____ non-functional/reduced function allele

A

One

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25
Q

Intermediate metabolizers have one ________ function allele and one ____________ allele

A

Reduced

Non-functional

26
Q

A poor metabolizer has ___ _________ alleles

A

no functional

27
Q

Relationship between drug dose and the resulting degree of response is known as _____ _______ definition.

A

Drug-response

28
Q

The total amount of drug administered to an organism

is known as the ______.

A

Dose

29
Q

How an individual reacts to a drug is known as the _______.

A

Response

30
Q

Drug response curves are typically _______ curves.

A

Sigmoid

31
Q

Hypersusceptible people respond at a _____ dose, while hyporeactive people respond at _____ doses.

A

Low

High

32
Q

The maximal effect is known as the ____.

A

Emax

33
Q

Quantal is the “____ __ ______” effect in a population.

A

All or nothing (Ex: % of people whose BP is lowered by a drug)

34
Q

Comparing the effects of two or more drugs is referred to as _______.

A

Potency

35
Q

A drug with a higher potency would be given in _______ doses and administered ______.

A

lower

slower

36
Q

Potency is the ______, efficacy is the ______.

A

Dose

Effect

37
Q

What is the area between the therapeutic effect and the toxic effect referred to as?

This is also defined as the ratio of dose required to produce toxic effect over dose needed for therapeutic response

A

Therapeutic index

38
Q

The Dosage of a substance which is lethal to 50% of population is known as the ____.

A

LD50

39
Q

If the therapeutic index is a larger ratio, that drug is typically _______.

A

safer

40
Q

Simplistically, NTI drugs are _____ _____ drugs.

Also defined by the FDA as drugs in which comparatively small differences in dose or concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures and/or serious adverse drug reactions.

A

Critical dose

41
Q

What are the FOUR variabilities of response.

A
  1. Drug Concentration
  2. Length of Exposure
  3. Route of administration
  4. Chemical molecular structure
42
Q

Any biological molecule to which a drug binds to produce a measurable response is known as a ________.

A

Receptor

43
Q

These are small molecule that binds to site on receptor protein.

A

Ligands

44
Q

The attraction between a drug and a receptor is known as _______.

A

Affinity.

45
Q

Drug binds receptors even when concentration low have _____ affinity.

Drugs that need higher concentration for effective binding have ______ affinity.

A

HIgh

Low

46
Q

These receptors affect only one type of cell/tissues and produe a specific physiological response.

A

Selective

47
Q

An _______ triggers a response.

A

agonist

48
Q

An __________ blocks a response.

A

Antagonist

49
Q

A full agonist has a _______ _____ at full receptor occupancy.

A

Maximum response

50
Q

A partial agonist produces a ______ response at full receptor occupancy

A

Lesser

51
Q

A partial agonist can act as an _______ if given with full agonist

A

Antagonist

52
Q

An inverse agonist has the _____ ____ of agonists and ______ receptor activity.

A

opposite effect

inhibits

53
Q

An antagonist ________/________ the actions of a drug/ligand at a receptor.

A

decreases/opposes

54
Q

Noncompetitive antagonist have ________ effects as they induce ___________ changes the prevents activation when a _______ binds. This decreases ________.

A

irreversible

confirmational

ligand

efficacy

55
Q

A functional antagonist acts at a _______ receptor and _____ the actions of an agonist.

A

separate

opposes

56
Q

Chemical antagonist bind to the ________ and prevents interaction with a receptor.

A

agonist

57
Q

Be able to draw the curve for a full agonist, partial agonist, antagonist, and inverse agonist.

A

DRAW

58
Q

Anaphylaxis, urticaria, angioedema (Immediately) are ______ _ allergic reactions.

A

Type 1 (Tx: Glucocorticoids, epinephrine)

59
Q

_____ __ allergic reactionsmodify host porteins creating an antibody response.

A

Type 2 (Tx: Transfusion)

60
Q

_____ __ allergic reactions, also known as serum sickness, develop multisystem complement-dependent vasculitis.

A

Type 3

61
Q

_____ __ allergic reactions result in contact dermatitis.

A

Type 4