pharm 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what is conduction velocity

A

a measure of how fast an axon transmits the action potential

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2
Q

how is conduction velocity increased

A

myelination (AP skips along nodes of ranvier- salatory conduction)

or lg fiber diameter

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3
Q

what fiber type has first onset

A

B

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4
Q

what fiber has second block onset

A

C

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5
Q

what fiber has 3rd block onset

A

A gamma (skeletal muscle tone) and A delta (fast pain, temp, touch)

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6
Q

what fiber has 4th block onset

A

A alpha (skeleta muscle/ proprioception) and A beta (touch and pressure)

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7
Q

explain walking epidural

A

low concentration of bupivicaine- analgesia with sparing motor function

as concentration is increased- it anesthetizes mroe resitant nerve types such as those that control motor function and proprioception

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8
Q

what is min effective concentration

A

unit of measurement that quantifies the concentration of local anesthetic that is required to block conduction

fibers that are more easily blocked have lower min effective concentration

fibers more resistent to blockade have higher

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9
Q

rank nerve fibers according to their sensitivity of local anesthetics (most- least sensitive)

A

b fibers > c fibers > small diameter A fibers (gamma and delta) > lg diameter A fibers (alpha and beta)

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10
Q

na channel can exist in 3 possible states

A

resting- channel is closed and able to be opened if neuron depolarizes

active- channel is open and na is moving along its gradient into the neuron

inactive- channel is closed and unable to be opened (refractory)

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11
Q

when do LA bind to voltage gated Na channel

A

guarded receptor hypothesis: LA can only bind to sodium channels in their open (active and inactive - closed refractory) states

LA do not bind to Na channels in their resting states

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12
Q

how do LA affect neuronal depolarization

A

when enough na channels are blocked- there arent enough open channels for Na to enter cell in sufficient quantity

cell cant depolarize and AP cant propagate

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13
Q
A
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14
Q

what does LA not affect

A

RMP or threshold potential

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15
Q

over 50% of LA will exist in what form after injection

A

LA are weak bases with pka higher than 7.4 - so we can predict most of them will exist as ionized conjugate acid after injection

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16
Q

what happens to the non ionied fraction of LA

A

diffuses into nerve through lipid rich axolemma

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17
Q

how can you tell form the name if it is an ester or amide

A

ester: one i
amide: 2 i’s

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18
Q

how are esters metabolized

A

pseudocholinesterase

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19
Q

how are amides metabolized

A

hepatic carboxylesterase/ p450

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20
Q

what type of LA is more common to have allergy cross sensitivity

A

more common with esters - b/c of PABAs

if allergic to one avoid all others

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21
Q

pka determines

A

onset of action!!

if pka is closer to ph… onset is faster

if pka is further from ph.. onset is slower

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22
Q

what disobeys pka rule?

A

chloroprocaine!

high pka- shich should mean slow onset

but pka is not very potent- so you have to give it in a higher concentration- giving more creates a mass effect- so it has a rapid onset of action even though it has a high pka

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23
Q

lipid solubility is prime determinant of

A

potency

the more lipid soluble a LA- the easier it is for the molecule to transverse the neuronal membrane

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24
Q

intrinsic vasodilating effect is a secondary determinent of

A

secondary determinent of potency

vasodialtion increases uptake into systemic circulation- reducing amount of LA avaliable to anesthetize the nerve

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25
Q

what factors determine DOA

A

-protein binding- primary!
-lipid solubility and intrinsic vasodilating activity- secondary! - higher lipid soluble- longer DOA; vasodilating activity increases vascular uptake and shortens DOA

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26
Q

do most LA cause vasoconstriction or vasodialtion

A

vasodilation! except cocaine - vasoconstriction

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27
Q

factors that influence vascular uptake and plasma concentration

A

-site of inection
-tissue blood flow
-physiochemical properties of LA
-metabolism
-addition of vasoconstrictor

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28
Q

rank lowest to highest LA toxicity risk

A

think least vascular to most

subcut- sciatic - femoral- brachial plexus- epidural- caudal - intercostal- interpleural- tracheal - IV

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29
Q

max dose of bupivicaine

A

w/o 2.5 mg/kg (175 mg)

w/ 3 mg/kg (300 mg)

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30
Q

max dose of ropivicaine

A

3 mg /kg (200 mg)

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31
Q

max dose of liodcaine

A

w/o 4.5 mg/kg
(300 mg)

w/ 7 mg/kg (500 mg)

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32
Q

most common sign of LA toxicity

A

seizure

unless!! bupivicaine- cardiac arrest occurs before seizure

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33
Q

lidocaine toxicity effects

A

1.analgesia
2.tinnitus, restlessness, skeletal muscle twitching, numb lips, blurred vision, hypotension, myocardial depression
3.coma, resp arrest
4. cv collapse

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34
Q

factors increasing risk of cns toxicity in LAST

A

hypercarbia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis

hypercarbia- increases cbf and increases drug delivery to the brain. decreases protein binding so more free drug can enter brain

hyperK- raises rmp, makes neurons more likely to depolarize

met acidosis- decreses convulsion threshold; favors ion trapping in brain

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35
Q

why is bupivicaine more cardiotoxic compared to lidocaine

A
  1. greater affinity for Na receptor
  2. slower rate of dissociation from receptor during diastole

more bupiv stays at receptor

cv morbidity is higher- resuscitation more difficult

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36
Q

what do you modify during ACLS for LAST

A

epi- can hinder resuscitation- reduces effectiveness of lipid emulsion therapy

give < 1 mcg/kg if need to give

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37
Q

what is choice for v arrythmias in LAST ACLS

A

amiodarone

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38
Q

what to avoid in ALCS treatment LAST

A

vasopressin, lidocaine, procainamide

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39
Q

what does lipid emulsion do during LAST

A

acts as lipid sink

intravascular reservoir- sequestors LA and reduces plasma concentration of LA

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40
Q

how much lipid emulsion do you give

A

if pt over 70 kg:

bolus: 100 ml over 2-3 min
infusion 250 over 15-20 min
can repeat bolus and or double infusion

if pt under 70 kg
1.5 ml/kg of LBW (2-3 mins)
infusion 0.25 ml/kg/min
can repeat bolus and or double infusion

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41
Q

max dose of lidocaine for tumescent anesthesia

A

55 mg/kg

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42
Q

other complications with tumescent anesthesia (other than LAST)

A

pulmonary edema- from the large volume

if over 2-3 L of tumescent solution is given- recomended GA

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43
Q

what LA are more likely to cause L shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

A

prilocaine and benzocaine- can cause methemoglobinemia

oxygen binding site on heme portion of hemoglobin molecule- causes iron molecule in its ferrous form (Fe2+)

oxidation of the iron molecule to its ferric form- creates methemoglobin

impairs o2 binding and unbinding from the hgb molecule- shits oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the L- creating physiologic anemia

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44
Q

what drugs can cause methemoglobinemia

A

benzocaine, cetacaine, prilocaine, EMELA, nitroprusside, nitroglycerin, sulfonamides, phenytoin

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45
Q

signs and symptoms of methemoglobinemia

A

hypoxia, cyanosis, chocolate colored blood, tachycardia, tachypnea, mental state changes, coma and death

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46
Q

methemoglobinemia treatment

A

methylene blue (1-2 mg/kg over 5 minutes

max dose: 7-8 mg/kg

methemoglobin reductase metabolizes methylene blue to form leucomethylene blue

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47
Q

who is at risk of developing methemoglobinemia

A

g6p reductase definiciency- dont have methemoglobin reductase- exchange transfusion may be needed

neonates- fetal hemoglobin is deficint in it

48
Q

whats in emela cream

A

50/50 lidocaine and prilocaine

can cause methemoglobinemia

49
Q

what shortens LA onset of action

A

sodium bicarb

50
Q

what extends LA duration

A

epi (b/c its a vasoconstricter- decreases systemic uptake)

51
Q

what can be added to LA to provided analgesia

A

clonidine (a2 agonist)
epi (a1 agonist)
opioids (mu agonist)

52
Q

what drug improves LA diffusion through the tissue

A

hyaluronidase- spreads

53
Q

what are the 2 types of nicotinic receptors at the NMJ

A

prejunctional Nn receptor: on the presynaptic nerve (n= nerve) - regulates ach release

postynaptic Nm receptor- on muscle (motor end plate)- responds to Ach- depolarizes the muscle

54
Q

what happens when ach activates post synaptic nicotinic receptor

A

na and ca enter the cell- k leaves

makes cell interior more positive- activates voltage gates na channels- depolarizes muscle cell, iniates action potential; releases ca into cytoplasm initating muscle contraction

55
Q

how does ach signal get turned off at neuromusclar junction

A

achetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes ach almost immediately

56
Q

whats the deal with extrajunctional receptors

A

more sensitive to sux- open for longer- allows more K leak (hyperkalemia)

normal receptors increase it 0.5-1 for 10-15 mins

57
Q

what conditions have more extrafunctional receptors

A

spinal cord injury
burns
cva
tetanus
severe sepsis
muscular dyrtrophy
upper or lower motor neuron injury

58
Q

what about nondepolarizers and extrajunctional receptors

A

resistant- need higher dose

59
Q

how does fade work

A

2 supplies of ach:
1. ach for immediate release
2. ach that needs to be mobilized before it can be released

nondepolarizers competitively antagonize- no more mobilization - so less is released which is why you see fade

sux binds and facilitates mobilization and there is akways ach for release- this is why you see no fade- same effect as ach

60
Q

phase 1 vs 2 block

A

phase 1 block- no fade
phase 2 block- fade present

the only time sux causes fade is with a phse 2 block

need very high dose of sux or cont infusion

61
Q

what Tof ratio means full recovery

A

> 0.9

62
Q

where is best spots for onset and recovery of block monitoring

A

onset: orbicularis occuli facial nerve

recovery adductor pollicis ulnar nerve

63
Q

what clinical sign means only 50% of the receptors are occupied with nmb

A

inspiratory force >-40, sustained head lift >5 sec, hand grip >5 sec, holding tongue blade in mouth

64
Q

which means 60% of receptors are occupied

A

sustained tetany, double burst

65
Q

which means 70% of receptors occupied

A

TOF no fade, >20 ml/kg vital capacity

66
Q

which means 80% receptors

A

vt >5 ml/kg

67
Q

what does sux do to your HR

A

can cause bradycardia or tachycardia

bradycardia: stimulating M2 receptor on SA node

tachycardia and HTN: mimicking action of ach at sympathetic ganglia
(tachycardia is more common than bradycardia in adults)

68
Q

how long (time wise) does sux increase K

A

10-15 mins

69
Q

can you give sux to renal patients

A

yes if their k is normal (the dont have a change in response- just if their k is high it may get too high)

70
Q

sux and iop

A

increases it 5-15 for up to 10 min

concern if OPEN GLOBE injury

controversial if ndmb pretreat changes response

71
Q

sux and intragastric pressure

A

contracts abd muscles

raises lower esophogeal sphincter tone

cancels eachother out so barrier pressure is unchanged

no increased risk of aspiration

72
Q

what are the names of the enzymes that metabolize ach

A

acetylcholinestase
genuine cholinesterase
type 1 cholinesterase
true cholinesterase
specific cholinesterase

73
Q

what are the names fo what metabolizes succinylcholine, mivacurium and ester LA

A

btylcholinesterase, pseudocholinesterase, t2 cholinesterase, false cholinesterase, plasma cholinesterase

74
Q

where is the prime location of aceylcholnestase

A

NMJ

75
Q

where is the prime location of pseudocholineserase

A

plasma

76
Q

results of dibucaine test

A

normal number is 80- meaning dibucaine has inhibited 80% of pseudocholinesterase in the sample- suggests normal enzyme is present

but dibucane wont inhibit atypical plasma cholinesterase so if pt has a number of 20- it means dibucaine didnt inhibit pt pchee and atypical value is present

77
Q

what is the worst variant of pseudocholinesterase

A

atypical homozygous- succinylcholine lasts 4-8 hrs

78
Q

why does sux have black box

A

risk of cardiac arrest and sudden death. - linked to hyperkalemia in children with undiagnosed muscular dystroophy (rhabdo)

not!! MH!!

79
Q

why do you use calcium to treat cardiac arrest from sux

A

hyperkalemia raises RMP so excitable tissues are closer to threshold potential- iv calcium raises threshold potenial- reestablishes the normal distance

80
Q

how do you treat someone who is hyperK from sux

A
  1. stabilize myocardium with calcium chloride 20 or calcium gluconate 60
  2. shift k into cells - hyperventilate, glucose and insulin, bicarb
  3. k elimination- lasix, volume, HD, hemofiltration
81
Q

who is at highest risk of myalgia following succinylcholine- who is lowest

A

highest: young adults undergoing ambulatory surgery- women > men

non strenous activity

(thiink: those who are not used to being sore)- young female dont workout

82
Q

are myalgias eliminated by pretreating with nmba

A

no

83
Q

how else can you reduce risk of myalgias

A

NSAIDs, lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg, use of higher dose rather than lower dose of sux!!!

opioids will not reduce incidence of myalgia

84
Q

who should not get defasiculation dose of nmb

A

preexisting skeletal muscle weakness- myasthenia gravis

85
Q

who is at risk for hyperkalemia after succinylcholine

A

ALS, charcot marie tooth, duchennes muscular dystrophy, guillian barre, hyperkalemic periodic paralysos, MS, upregulation of extrajunctional receptors

86
Q

non depol muscular blockers smallest ED95 to largest

A

cis, vec, mivac, atracurium, roc

87
Q

what is ed95

A

dose for optimal conditions of tracheal intubation is 2-3 x ed95

ed95 is dose at which there is 95% decrease in twitch height

88
Q

what are the 2 classes of NDMB

A

benzylisoquinoquinium and aminosteroids

89
Q

name the benzlisoquinolium compounds

A

atracurium, cisatracuium and mivacurium

-curium!!

90
Q

name the aminosteroids

A

roc, vec, pancuronium

91
Q

what does it mean to be a benzylisoquinium compound

A

undergo spontaneous degregation in the plasma

not dependent on hepatic or renal function for metabolism and elimination

92
Q

atracurium

A

hydrolyzed by hoffman elimination (33%) and non specific plasma esterases (66%)

non specific plasma esterases are not the same with pseudocholinesterase!!! - people with pseudo.. def do not have prolonged block

this is the same as the ones thta get rid of esmolol and remi

93
Q

cisatracurium

A

hoffman onlY!!

“the hoff is a cisy”

94
Q

mivacurium

A

metabolized by pseudocholinesterase- same as sux

relatively short DOA

95
Q

what is hoffman elimination

A

BASE catalyzed reaction- dependent on normal blood ph and temp

96
Q

what makes hoffman elimination faster

A

alkalosis and hyperthermia

97
Q

what type of patient is slower to reverse with hoffman

A

cold and or hypercarbic patient

98
Q

active metabolite of atracurium and cisatracurium

A

atracurium makes more!

laudanosine- produces seizures

more of a concern with prolonged infusion in icu

mo muscle relaxant properties

99
Q

does mivacurium have active metabolite

A

no

100
Q

what drugs potentiate effects of nmb

A

voltatiles, antibiotics, antidysrhythmics, LA, diuretics

101
Q

electrolyte distrubances that can potenitate effects of NMB

A

increased: lithium and mag

decreased: calcium and K

102
Q

what NMB has vagolytic effect

A

pancuronium

inhibits M2 receptor at sa node, stimulates release of catecholamines and inhibits catecholamine reuptake in adrenergic nerves

increases hr and co with no or minimal effect in svr

103
Q

what nmb do you avoid in someone with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

-pancuronium (vagolytic)
-atracurium and mivacuronium (histamine release)

104
Q

what NMB is most likely to cause anaphylaxis

A

sux! not roc

105
Q

how do cholinesterase inhiitors reverse paralysis caused by nondepol nmb

A

aceylcholinesterase hydrolyzes ach

edrophonium, neostigmine, pyridostigmine- inhibit ache- indirectly increases ach concentration- making it able to competitively compete for sites at nicotinic receptor and antagonize the blcok

106
Q

how does renal failure affect the dosing of ache inhibitors and aminosteroid nmb

A

it will prolong both so dose adjustment is not needed

107
Q

side effects of ache inhibitors

A

dumbbells
diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, emesis, lacrimation, laxation, salivation

108
Q

which one has the most sedation, antisialog, prevention in motion nausea, mydriasis

A

all scopalamine

109
Q

what antimuscarincs pass through BBB

A

atropine and scopalamine- tertiary (lipophilic)- easily pass

glyco does not

110
Q

does atropine ever cause bradycardia

A

yes- can cause paradoxial bradycardia in doses under <0.5 mg

111
Q

ht transplant and antimuscarinic

A

intrinisc firing rate of SA node now soley determines HR

muscarinic antagonists do not affect hr of pt with previous ht transplant- but they will still get other effects so they should still get antimuscarinic

112
Q

MOA of sugammadex

A

gamma cyclodextran- ring encaposlates nmb so it cannot engage with nicotinic receptor

113
Q

what nmb does sugammadex work best with

A

roc > vec > panc

works on aminosteroids

no effect on benzylisoquinolones

114
Q

how does sugmmadex get metabolized

A

it is excreted unchanged by kidneys

115
Q
A
116
Q
A