Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Study Materials > Personnel > Flashcards

Personnel Flashcards

1
Q

Name four common personnel policies and practices.

A
  1. orientation
  2. job description
  3. competency evaluations
  4. performance evaluations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>What are the major functions of a new personnel orientation?</p>

A

<p>Introduction to work environment and human resources policies.
Explanation of facilities safety procedures.
Additional employee resources (such as contact names and numbers)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

<p>What should be included in a job description?</p>

A

<p>a. list of general tasks, functions, responsibilities

b. to whom the position reports
c. specific qualifications for the job
d. salary range
e. may include when you work, rotate weekends</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>What items are included when performing a job analysis in order to create a job description?</p>

A

<p>A job analysis include the examination of tasks and sequences of tasks necessary to perform the job, as well as, areas of knowledge and skills needed for the job.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>What is the process of competency evaluations?</p>

A

<p>Documents in some form of measurable terms the technical skills of the employee. This should be done on an annual basis.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

<p>How often should a personnel's competency be evaluated?</p>

A

<p>on an annual basis</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>Who is able to conduct a personnel's annual competency?</p>

A

<p>supervisor, key operator, technical specialist, educational specialist, or lab quality</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>What is the difference between a competency and a performance evaluation?</p>

A

<p>The performance evaluation may include the technical competency component, but may also include, in measurable terms, knowledge, attitudes, professionalism and beliefs.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>Who is usually in charge of performance evaluations?</p>

A

<p>immediate supervisor</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>How often should a personnel's performance be evaluated?</p>

A

<p>on an annual basis</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>Briefly describe a 360 performance evaluation.</p>

A

<p>Peer evaluation come from members of the employee's immediate work circle, as well as a self-evaluation.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>Describe the Stark Law.</p>

A

<p>The Stark law prohibits a physician from making referrals for the furnishing of lab testing to a lab with which the physician or a family member has a financial relationship.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>True or False: The Stark Law allows for physicians to refer lab testing to a lab in which the physician has a financial relationship.</p>

A

<p>False</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>True or False: A 'group practice' may allow a group of physicians to qualify for certain exceptions to the Stark Law.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>True or False: The Stark Law applies to Medicare and medicaid patiently only.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>True or False: The Stark Law allows labs to supply items to be used solely to collect or process specimens.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>True or False: The Stark Law does NOT allow laboratories to supply equipment to physicians solely to communicate test results.</p>

A

<p>False</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>Who does the Anti-Kickback Statute penalize?</p>

A

<p>The anti-kickback statute penalizes anyone who knowingly solicits, receives, offers, or pays remuneration in cash or in kind support for referring patients for lab testing.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>Describe an inducement.</p>

A

<p>An inducement maybe anything of value not paid for at a fair market value.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>Does the Anti-kickback statute apply to Medicare and Medicaid services?</p>

A

<p>Yes</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?A phlebotomist performing other duties besides phlebotomy such as taking vital signs or other nursing functions.</p>

A

<p>Yes</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?A laboratory providing free pick-up and disposal of biohazardous waste unrelated to specimen collection.</p>

A

<p>Yes</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?A laboratory providing free pick-up and disposal of biohazardous waste related to specimen collection.</p>

A

<p>No.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?Provision of computers used exclusively for the performance of laboratory work.</p>

A

<p>No.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?Provision of computers and fax machines, unless used exclusively for the performance of outside laboratory work.</p>

A

<p>Yes</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?Providing free laboratory testing for physicians, their employees or family members.</p>

A

<p>Yes.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>What is HIPAA?</p>

A

<p>Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>When was HIPAA passed?</p>

A

<p>August 21, 1996</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>What is another name for the 1996 HIPAA?</p>

A

<p>"Privacy Rule" or Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>What did the Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information establish?</p>

A

<p>for the first time, there is a set of national standards for teh protection of certain health information.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>What is included in protected health information?</p>

A

<p>1. the individual's past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition.2. the provision of health care to the individual.3. the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to the individual, and that identifies the individual.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>What common identifiers are included as identifiable health information?</p>

A

<p>name, address, birth date, social security number</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>What covered entities are subject to the Privacy Rule?</p>

A

<p>Health care clearinghousehealth plan companieshealth care providers</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>Under what circumstances is a laboratory considered a health care provider and subject to the Privacy Rule?</p>

A

<p>A lab is considered a covered entity if it conducts one or more covered transactions electronically, such as submitting health care claims or equivalent information to a health plan, requesting prior authorization, or sending eligibility inquiry to a heath plan to confirm the individual's coverage under that plan.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>How many days after a patient requests access their health information does the provider have to comply?</p>

A

<p>30 days </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

<p>What is required by a provider if they cannot give a patient access to their health information within the 30 day timeframe?</p>

A

<p>A covered laboratory may request one 30-day extension, if it provides the reason for the delay in writing to the requesting individual.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

<p>How many extensions does the HIPAA Privacy Rule allow for an access request?</p>

A

<p>one</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

<p>True or False: An individual has the right to access his or her protected health information from both the referring laboratory and the laboratory that performed the test in the instance that a lab refers the specimen to another laboratory. </p>

A

<p>True</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

<p>True or False: When an individual requests protected health information, a laboratory is required to interpret the test results for the patient.</p>

A

<p>False</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

<p>What does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 forbid?</p>

A

<p>Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 forbids descrimination against any worker or job applicant on the basis of citizenship status, disability, race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, marital status, or veteran status.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

<p>Under Federal law, an employer is subject to Title VII of the Clivil Rights Act of 1964 if what criteria is met?</p>

A

<p>1. The employer has 15 or more employees on the payroll on each working day of at least 20 weeks int he current or proceeding calendar year.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

<p>What enforcement agency is responsible for Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?</p>

A

<p>The EEOC, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

<p>What is the EEOC?</p>

A

<p>Equal Opportunity Employment Commission</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

<p>True or False: According to the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, it is lawful for an employee to pay different wages or provide different privileges of employement if the decisions are based on bona-fide merit, seniority, or another type of system designed to measurage quantity or quality of work.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

<p>True or False: According to Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, it is lawful for an emplyee to take religion, sex, or national origin into account in making employment decisions in which these factors are legitimate qualifications.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

46
Q

<p>True or False: According to Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, it is lawful for an emplyee to take religion, race,sex, or national origin into account in making employment decisions in which these factors are legitimate qualifications.</p>

A

<p>False; This exemption does not extend to race.</p>

47
Q

<p>True or False: According to Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, it is unlawful for an employer to base an employment decision on the results of professionally validated ability tests that are not designed, intended, or used to discriminate.</p>

A

<p>False; an employment decision can be made using the results of a professionally validated ability test that is not designed or intended to discriminate.</p>

48
Q

<p>True or False: The Equal Employement Opportunity Commission (EEOC) requires that EEOC official notice of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 be posted in the workplace.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

49
Q

<p>The Equal Employement Opportunity Commission (EEOC) requires that EEOC official notice of what Act must be posted in the workplace?</p>

A

<p>Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964</p>

50
Q

<p>The Pregnancy Discrimination Act Ammendment is part of what Act?</p>

A

<p>Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964</p>

51
Q

<p>Describe the three main components of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act.</p>

A

<p>This act is designed for women affected by pregnancy or related conditions:1. they must be treated the same as other causes under health insurance, fringe benefits, leave of absence, and return-to-work rights.2. employer cannot refuse to hire, discharge, or promote a woman because she is pregnant, might become pregnant or has had an abortion.3. employer cannot require a pregnant worker to leave at an arbitrarily determined point in pregnancy.</p>

52
Q

<p>Describe Section 1981.</p>

A

<p>The Reconstruction-Era Civil Rights Act of 1866, amended by the Civil Rights Act of 1991 provides that everyone in the US has the same right "to make and enforce contracts, to sue, be parties, give evidence, and full and equal benefit of all laws and proceedings."</p>

53
Q

<p>What actprovides that everyone in the US has the same right "to make and enforce contracts, to sue, be parties, give evidence, and full and equal benefit of all laws and proceedings"?</p>

A

<p>Section 1981 or the Reconstruction-Era Civil Rights Act of 1866, amended by the Civil Rights Act of 1991</p>

54
Q

<p>What law has been construed by the courts to protect the contract relationship inherent in the employement of a worker and to cover bias against all ethnic minorities?</p>

A

<p>Section 1981 or the Reconstruction-Era Civil Rights Act of 1866, amended by the Civil Rights Act of 1991</p>

55
Q

<p>Is there a posting requirment under the Section 1981 law?</p>

A

<p>no</p>

56
Q

<p>ADEA</p>

A

<p>Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)</p>

57
Q

<p>Describe theAge Discrimination in Employment Act(ADEA).</p>

A

<p>The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits employers from discrimination against workers or applicants who are 40 years of age or older.</p>

58
Q

<p>What law and executive order broadly prohibits against ALL age discrimination?</p>

A

<p>Age Discrimination Act of 1975 and Executive Order Number 11,141</p>

59
Q

<p>EEOC</p>

A

<p>Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)</p>

60
Q

<p>TheAge Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) is enforced by what government agency?</p>

A

<p>The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)</p>

61
Q

<p>Is posted notice required for theAge Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)?</p>

A

<p>yes</p>

62
Q

<p>ADA</p>

A

<p>The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA)</p>

63
Q

<p>When was the Americans with Disabilities Act passed?</p>

A

<p>1990</p>

64
Q

<p>Describe theThe Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA).</p>

A

<p>The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA) prohibits laboratories with more than 15 employees from discriminating against any qualified individual with a disability becasue of his or her disability.</p>

65
Q

<p>True or False: The Americans with Disabilities Act also requires laboratories with more than 15 employees to provide reasonable accommodations to assist disabled individuals in performing the essential functions of their jobs.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

66
Q

<p>True or False: The Americans with Disabilities Act also requires laboratories with lessthan 15 employees to provide reasonable accommodations to assist disabled individuals in performing the essential functions of their jobs.</p>

A

<p>false</p>

67
Q

<p>At what number of employees does the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 apply?</p>

A

<p>more than 15</p>

68
Q

<p>At what number of employees does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 apply?</p>

A

<p>more than 15</p>

69
Q

<p>According to the ADA of 1990, what three conditionsdefine a disability?</p>

A

<p>Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, an individual has a diability if he or she:1. has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities2. has a record of such impairment (history of emotional illness, cancer or heart disease)3. is judged as having such an impairment.</p>

70
Q

<p>How does the ADA define physicalimpairment?</p>

A

<p>The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 defines physiologic impairment as any physiological disorder, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following systems: neurological, musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory (including speech organs), cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, hemic and lymphatic, skin and endocrine.</p>

71
Q

<p>How does the ADA define mental impairment?</p>

A

<p>The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 defines mental illness as any mental or psychological disorder such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning diasabilities.</p>

72
Q

<p>How does the ADA define major life activities?</p>

A

<p>basic functions such as "caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working</p>

73
Q

<p>The ADA uses the term 'substantially limited', how is that term defined?</p>

A

<p>Substantially limited is defined as:1. unable to perform a major life activity that the average person in the general population can perform; or2. compared to the general population, 'significantly restricted as to the condition, manner, or duration under which an individual can perform a major life activity.'</p>

74
Q

<p>Why is it important for the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) that the term 'substantially limited' be defined?</p>

A

<p>Under the ADA, it is not the specific name of the impairment that determines whether a person is disabled but rather it is the effect that the impairment has on the life of the individual.</p>

75
Q

<p>Name three additional factors considered when assessing if an individual is 'substantially limited' in a major life activity.</p>

A

<p>1. The nature and severity of the impairment2. the duration or expected duration of the impairment3. the actual or expected permanent or long term impact of, or resulting from, the impairment.</p>

76
Q

<p>True or False:Under ADA employersmust post a notice of the law.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

77
Q

<p>True or False: According to the ADA, during an interview it is appropriate to ask an applicant about any impairments or physical characteristics such as scars or missing limbs.</p>

A

<p>False; Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990</p>

78
Q

<p>True or False: According to the ADA, during an interview it is appropriate to ask an applicant if they have drug or alcohol problems.</p>

A

<p>False; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

79
Q

<p>Give some examples of 'reasonable accomodations' that an employer might provide under the ADA.</p>

A

<p>1. job restructuring2. modified work schedule3. reassigning to vacant positions4. acquiring or modifying equipment or devices5. adjusting or modifying examinations6. providing readers or interpreters7. training materials or policies</p>

80
Q

<p>True or False: According to the ADA, during an interview it is appropriate to ask an applicant how a disability occurred or if the disability resulted from an underlying impairment.</p>

A

<p>False; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

81
Q

<p>True or False: According to the ADA, during an interview it is appropriate to ask an applicant whether an applicant has any disability or medical condition that will prevent the person from performing the job.</p>

A

<p>False; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

82
Q

<p>True or False: According to the ADA, during an interview it is not appropriate to ask an applicant about their health.</p>

A

<p>True; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

83
Q

<p>True or False: During an interview it is not appropriate to ask an applicant aboutprevious counseling or psychiatric care.</p>

A

<p>True; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

84
Q

<p>True or False: During an interview it is not appropriate to ask an applicant about drug or alcohol problems.</p>

A

<p>True; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

85
Q

<p>True or False: During an interview it is not appropriate to ask an applicant information about previous work attendance related to illness or disability.</p>

A

<p>True; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

86
Q

<p>True or False: During an interview it is not appropriate to ask an applicant whether they have any disability or medical condition that will prevent them from performing the job.</p>

A

<p>True; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990</p>

87
Q

<p>Year the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was passed.</p>

A

<p>1990</p>

88
Q

<p>What governmental group is charged with overseeing enforcement of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?</p>

A

<p>Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)</p>

89
Q

<p>Where would a charge be filed against an employer for non-compliance with ADA 1990?</p>

A

<p>Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)</p>

90
Q

True or False: OSHA requires that laboratories maintain an accurate medicdal record for each employee.

A

True

91
Q

How long does OSHA require that Employee medical records be kept confidential and stored?

A

term of employment plus 30 years

92
Q

Are employee laboratory medial records transfered between facilities?

A

yes; designated by the Federal Occupational Health and Safety Administration

93
Q

What four items are required by OSHA regarding laboratory employee training records?

A
  1. dates of training sessions;
  2. contents and summary of the training;
  3. names and qualifications of the person(s) conducting the training sessions;
  4. names and job titles of lab personnel attending the training sessions
94
Q

How long must OSHA training records be stored?

A

3 years from the date of each training session

95
Q

<p>What three components are required for the laboraties Hazard Communication Plan required by OSHA?</p>

A

<p>1. ensure that lables on incoming containers of hazardous materials are not removed or defaced; 2. maintain SDS and ensure they are readily accessible; 3. ensure that personnel are apprised of the hazards of the chemicals in the laboratory</p>

96
Q

<p>What three items must be determined by chemical manufacturers and/or distributors according to OSHA?</p>

A

<p>1. when a chemical is hazardous; 2. whether a chemical is a carcinogen or potential carcinogen; 3. the hazards of mixtures of chemicals</p>

97
Q

What are the seven OSHA phrases used to classify hazardous substances?

A
  1. carcinogen;
  2. corrosive;
  3. explosive;
  4. flammable;
  5. irritant;
  6. sensitizer;
  7. toxic
98
Q

<p>True or False: OSHA requires that every laboratory have a written hazard communication program that is readily available to all laboratory personnel?</p>

A

<p>True; includes a list of chemicals, location of chemicals, and the physical/health hazards of each chemical.</p>

99
Q

<p>What rule did OSHA publish in 1990 which requires laboratories to ensure that exposure to hazardous chemicals are within permissible exposure limits (PELs)?</p>

A

<p>Occupational Exposures to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories</p>

100
Q

What are five examples in which one would need a chain of custody?

A
  1. legal blood alcohol to prosecute DUI cases
  2. DOT drug testing
  3. paternity testing
  4. DNA analysis
  5. rape cases
101
Q

True or False: During an interview it is not appropriate to ask an applicant about drug or alcohol problems.

A

True; Americans with Disabilities Act 1990

102
Q

What are the most common uses of a computer in the laboratory?

A 
ordering tests
accessioning
reporting results
canceling tests
crediting tests
retrieving reports
103
Q

Vaccination for which of the following shall be made available to all employees who have occupational exposure unless the employee has been previously vaccinated, has tested immune, or has medical contraindictions?

a. EBV
b. HBV
c. HIV
d. TB

A

b. HBV

104
Q

Personal protective equipment includes all of the following except:

a. disposable lab coat
b. face mask
c. powder-free gloves
d. self-sheathing needles

A

d. self-sheathing needles

105
Q

Mandatory safety training programs should:

a. be provided at initial assignment to tasks where risk of exposure exists
b. be updated annually
c. include instruction of recognition and control of hazards

A

All of the below:

a. be provided at initial assignment to tasks where risk of exposure exists
b. be updated annually
c. include instruction of recognition and control of hazards

106
Q

Material safety data sheets:

a. are only required for acutely toxic substances
b. are only required for carcinogens, mutagens, and teratogens
c. provide information on exposure to blood-borne pathogens
d. should be kept on file and readily accessible

A

d. should be kept on file and readily accessible

107
Q

Who can perform the testing in a provider-performed microscopy laboratory?

A
  1. physician
  2. supervised midlevel practitioner
  3. dentist
108
Q

What levels of personnel are required for a PPM procedure laboratory?

A
  1. Director

2. Testing personnel

109
Q

What qualifications are necessary to perform testing in a PPM procedure laboratory?

A
  1. physician
  2. supervised midlevel practioner
  3. dentist
110
Q

What levels of personnel are required for a moderate complexity laboratory?

A
  1. Director
  2. Technical consultant
  3. clinical consultant
  4. testing personnel
111
Q

What levels of personnel are required for a high complexity laboratory?

A
  1. Director
  2. clinical consultant
  3. technical supervisor
  4. general supervisor
  5. testing personnel

Study Materials (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions