Personal Medical Histories, Medication Search, Vital Signs Flashcards

1
Q

List examples of when you need to get informed consent

A

Planned procedures, expected successful outcomes of procedures, possible risk, unanticipated outcomes, alternatives to proposed plan of action, and costs.

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2
Q

What is the legal age in Oregon to give consent?

A

15 years

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3
Q

In PU DH Clinic how often is a new consent form obtained?

A

Every 2 years of if something has changed

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4
Q

What are the 3 ways to obtain information from patient?

A

Direct observation, health history questionnaire (electronically), and health history oral interview

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5
Q

What are the 4 vital signs?

A

BP, pulse, temp, respirations

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6
Q

What is a chief concern or complaint?

A

This should be the first question you ask before beginning exam. Ex: “Why have you come to the dental office today?” It is important to attempt to diagnose the source.

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7
Q

If the patient says yes to anything on the medical history, what should you do?

A

Ask follow up questions regarding the specific condition

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8
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Shortness of breath

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9
Q

Regarding antibiotic premedication, when would you need to reschedule appointment?

A

If the patient forgot to take their antibiotic premedication

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10
Q

How long after a heart attack/stroke can the patient come in for an appointment?

A

6 months

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11
Q

Ultrasonic equipment may interfere with what device?

A

Pacemaker

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12
Q

If a patient has asthma or an angina, what does the patient need to bring for both?

A

Asthma: Inhaler
Angina: Nitroglycerin
Both need to be kept on counter during appointment

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13
Q

What is low blood pressure?

A

90 or below - systolic

60 or below - diastolic

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14
Q

Which medical conditions require a prophylactic prior to dental treatment?

A

Heart valve disorder, artificial heart valve, endocarditis, congenital heat defects, heart transplant with valve dysfunction, and inborn heart defects

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15
Q

Define orthostatic hypotension

A

A form of low blood pressure that happens when you stand up too fast from sitting or lying down.

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16
Q

Define ausculatation

A

Listening to sounds from the heart, lungs, or other organs, typically with a stethoscope, as a part of medical diagnosis.

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17
Q

Define tachycardia

A

Abnormal rapid heart rate

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18
Q

Define bradycardia

A

Abnormal slow heart rate

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19
Q

Define bradypnea

A

Abnormally slow breathing rate

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20
Q

Define tachypnea

A

Abnormally rapid breathing rate

21
Q

Define hypertension

A

High blood pressure

22
Q

When should the appointment be rescheduled pertaining to a herpetic lesion

A

If the lesion is in the vascular or crusted stage

23
Q

When is the best time for treatment for a pregnant woman?

A

The second trimester

24
Q

What should A1C patients maintain?

A

7% or less HbA1C with well controlled diabetes or 7.5% in elderly patients

25
Q

When would treatment be delayed for someone who has not been diagnosed with diabetes?

A

If their blood/glucose levels are at 200 mg/dl or above

26
Q

Any patient with a blood glucose of ____________________ receives an immediate referral to a physician and all treatment is delayed

A

300 mg/dl or higher

27
Q

What is a normal BP?

A

<119 / <79

28
Q

What is considered an elevated BP? What kind of treatment can be done?

A

120-129 / <80

All treatment is appropriate

29
Q

What is stage 1 hypertension? What kind of treatment can be done?

A

130-139 / 80-89

Selective dental care (prophy, restorative, nonsurgical tx) is appropriate

30
Q

What is stage 2 hypertension? What kind of treatment can be done?

A

140< / 90 <

Same kind of treatment as stage 1

31
Q

What is a hypertensive crisis? What kind of treatment can be done?

A

180 < / 120 <

Immediately take patient to ER for further evaluation. No dental treatment

32
Q

What is the BP cut off at PU? What kind of treatment can be done?

A

160 < / 100 <
Immediate referral to medical provider and medical clearance needed prior to next appointment. No elective dental treatment. Retake blood pressure 5 minutes after initial reading

33
Q

What is ASA class 1?

A

Healthy, no systemic diseases.

34
Q

What does ASA stand for?

A

American Society of Anesthesiologists

35
Q

What is ASA class 2?

A

Pregnant, well controlled asthma, type 2 diabetes, hypertension, epilepsy, smoker, high alcohol consumption, dental phobic

36
Q

What is ASA class 3?

A

COPD, controlled type I diabetes, Stable angina pectoris, Congestive heart failure, Uncontrolled Type II diabetes, Morbid obesity/uncontrolled, hypertension
Binge drinking, Implanted pacemaker, regular dialysis

37
Q

What is ASA class 4?

A

Incapacitating to patient: Unstable angina pectoris, Uncontrolled type I diabetes, Uncontrolled epilepsy, Severe COPD, Severe congestive heart failure

38
Q

What is ASA class 5?

A

Life threatening diseases: End stage renal, pulmonary, hepatic, cardiovascular disease, or other terminal disease

39
Q

What ASA classes does PU not give treatment to?

A

Class 4 & 5

40
Q

What MH/DH questions need to be updated every time?

A
  1. Has there been any changes to your medical history?
  2. When was your last visit to the physician, urgent care or hospital?
  3. Prescription and non-prescription medications have been reviewed and updated?
  4. Vitals
  5. Agreement
41
Q

What is a normal pulse for:

  1. Adults & Elderly
  2. Adolescents
  3. Children
A

Adults & Elderly: 60-100 bpm
Adolescents: 50-90 bpm
Children: 75-120 bpm

42
Q

What is normal respiration for

  1. Adults, elderly, & adolescents
  2. Children
A

Adult, elderly & adolescent: 12-20 RPM

Children: 15-25 RPM

43
Q

What is a normal temperature for

A

Adult: 97.6-99.6
Elderly: 96.4-98.5
Children: 95.9-99.5

44
Q

At what temperature do you stop patient treatment?

A

100.4 and above

45
Q

What does ADPIE stand for?

A

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

46
Q

What are Korotkoff sounds?

A

The thumping sounds you hear when you take BP

47
Q

What is the diaphragm?

A

The larger part of chest-piece on the stethoscope that is directly against the patients skin

48
Q

What is the Bell?

A

The smaller part of chest-piece on the stethoscope that is the opposite side of the diaphragm

49
Q

What are the binaurals?

A

The metal piece of the stethoscope that attaches the earpieces to the tubing.