Person Of Jesus Flashcards
How does the New Testament speak of Jesus?
The New Testament applies the term ‘God’ to Jesus. Paul speaks of Jesus as God’s ‘own Son’. The New Testament says Jesus is God’s ‘only’ son or ‘own’ son, implying something unique. Jesus seems uniquely close to God as shown in the Baptism of Jesus and the Transfiguration.
How is Jesus’ knowledge of God represented in the Bible?
Jesus calls God ‘Abba’ (Greek for ‘father’) and a heavenly voice declares Jesus ‘my son’ but Jesus does not use the term ‘son’ himself. The Gospels say Jesus comes into this world through the intervention of the Holy Spirit and Mary.
Examples of Jesus being directly associated with God by the text and is believed to be so by Christians.
- St John writes of Jesus as Word, and that the ‘Word was God’
- (Doubting) Thomas refers to Jesus as ‘my Lord and my God’
- in the letter to the Hebrews a psalm is addressed to Jesus as God
- God’s spirit will come again in Jesus’ name
- Jesus has a saving God-like power
- Jesus is worshipped, something done to a God
What idea about Jesus’ closeness to God was rejected by the early church?
If Jesus is God and human, does that mean he had two beings inhabiting one body with one in power over the other? While this explains how Jesus could know God, it would mean Jesus is both God and a separate human being. This was rejected in the early Church:
“… teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, the same perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; consubstantial (coessential) with the Father according to the Godhead, and consubstantial with us according to the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, in-confusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the difference of the Nature being in no way removed because the Union, but rather the properties of each Nature being preserved, and (both) concurring into One Person and One Hypostasis; not as though He were parted or divided into Two Persons, but One and the Self-same Son and Only begotten God, Word, Lord, Jesus Christ”.
What phrase did the early Church use to describe Jesus?
This belief in the ‘perfect conjunction of Jesus’ 2 natures was termed a hypostic union by the early Church. But there were still difficulties.
Hypostic union: the belief that Christ is both fully God and fully human, indivisible, 2 natures united in one person.
How human was Jesus?
In order to save humanity from sin, Jesus had to be divine as only God has that redemptive power. However, if Jesus was God, does that mean he didn’t really suffer on the Cross - as how can a God suffer? If Jesus did not feel pain and did not actually die from Crucifixion, that would mean his Resurrection was not real, the cross is false and Jesus wasn’t a real human being.
Why does Jesus have to be God? Why does Jesus have to be human?
He had to be God, as only God can save. He had to be hi,an, as only humans need saving. If he wasn’t God he couldn’t overcome those forces for humanity. If he’s not God, he can’t reveal the Father; if he isn’t human, he can’t reveal the father to us. Or as Gregory of Nazianzen put it, ‘what he has not assumed he has not healed’.
If Jesus was fully human as well as divine, then that also creates problems. Paul wrote that humans have a sinful, corrupting nature, so if Jesus became human, wouldn’t he become corrupted?
What did Bishop Apollinaris of Laodicea worry about?
Bishop Appolinaris worried that ‘a human mind - that is a changeable mind.. is enslaved to filthy thoughts’, so suggested the Word replaced the human mind and soul with a divine one, without taking on fallible human nature. Gregory of Nazianzen rejected Apollinaris’ suggestion because it constituted a ‘half salvation’. Apollinarism was rejected as heresay.
What do the Church think about Jesus’ humanity?
Most Christian Churches today, including the Eastern Orthodox, Catholic, and most Protestant Churches, follow the agreement established by the major ecumenical councils. The First Council of Nicaea in AD325 resolved that Jesus was of the same substance as the Father, or of one being - homoousios. The Council of Chalcedon in AD451 affirmed that Christ is acknowledged in 2 natures, which come together into one person and one hypostasis. Jesus was not a mix or a blend.
The Council of Chalcedon’s definition is not recognised by any Oriental Orthodox Church and, as a result, these Churches may be classified as non-Chalcedonian.
What was the extent of Jesus’ self knowledge?
Was Jesus free to what he did? Is freedom a basic part of being human? Was his knowledge a human knowledge or did he look onto the world as the creator looks onto its creation? To what extent did he have knowledge of of his divine reality? Did he wander around being the Son of God, without realising it?
If Jesus had divine knowledge what do his expressions of emotions mean? Was his anxiety in the Garden of Gethsemane and his tears at the death of Lazarus just fake?
What did Medieval theology respond with about the extent of Jesus’ self knowledge?
Medieval theology responded with three kinds of knowledge that Jesus might have:
- knowledge of the divine reality of God, face-to-face, and all the created realities (scientia visions)
- an infused knowledge (scientia infusa)
- knowledge of life in the normal way of human life (scientia experientia)
What is Karl Rahner’s solution to the extent of Jesus’ self-knowledge?
Karl Rahner suggests a genuinely human consciousness must have an unknown future in front of it. Our life is conditioned by our uncertainty. If Jesus was conscious of God the Father’s awareness all the time, then his view of life can hardly be called a human one.
Rahner’s solution is to think of an onion, with its many layers of skin. We have deep within us better understandings of our self which are not always on the surface of our consciousness. The expression of fear in Gethsemane or uncertainty in the desert or on the cross makes sense if Jesus’ human self - consciousness was close to the surface but his divine self - consciousness was deep within.
What challenges does Gerald O’Collins raise about the possibility of answering these kinds of questions?
- It is very difficult to undertake any study of the inner world of any being, alive or dead, so trying to make sense of the kind of inner experience of life that Jesus might have is very challenging, particularly as he left no writings of his own.
- Before anyone can say ‘yes, Jesus knew he was the saviour’ a person must first show an appreciation of the complexity of knowledge, the multi-layered structure of how we experience reality, with memory, emotion, experience, intuition, instinct, identity and many other factors play a part. Know theyself is easier said than done.
- Consciousness is not the same as knowledge of a separate object. Knowledge of a separate object takes place without reflection, but consciousness always involves a degree of reflection.
O’Collins concludes that one answer is possible given all of these caveats:
“What did Jesus know about himself and his mission?… He knew that he stood in a unique relationship to the Father and that as the Son he had a mission of salvation for others….. His basic awareness of his Sonship did not mean observing the presence of God, as if Jesus were facing an object out there. It was rather a self consciousness and self-presence in which he was intuitively aware of his divine reality”.
What may miracles suggest about Jesus?
The account of Jesus’ miracles would indicate to those that believe them that there is something very special about Jesus. For example, his authority over death, illness and nature of Godly attributes. At the time of Jesus, humans could not control death, nature or the human body in ways that we might be able to nowadays.
What does Hume suggest about miracles?
Hume suggested that as we have no current day proof of Jesus’ miracles, it’s not possible to trust them even if the Gospel writers believe that they were truth.