Perry - Chapter 28

Question 1

The head-to-tail direction of growth is referred to as:

a. Cephalocaudal. c. Mass to specific.
b. Proximodistal. d. Sequential.

Answer 1

ANS: A
The first pattern of development is the head-to-tail, or cephalocaudal, direction. The head end of the organism develops first and is large and complex, whereas the lower end is smaller and simpler, and development takes place at a later time. Proximodistal, or near-to-far, is the second pattern of development. Limb buds develop before fingers and toes. Postnatally the child has control of the shoulder before achieving mastery of the hands. Mass to specific is not a specific pattern of development. In all dimensions of growth, a definite, sequential pattern is followed

Question 2

Which term refers to those times in an individual’s life when he or she is more susceptible to positive or negative influences?

a. Sensitive period c. Terminal points
b. Sequential period d. Differentiation points

Answer 2

ANS: A
Sensitive periods are limited times during the process of growth when the organism will interact with a particular environment in a specific manner. These times make the organism more susceptible to positive or negative influences. The sequential period, terminal points, and differentiation points are developmental times that do not make the organism more susceptible to environmental interaction.

Question 3

An infant who weighs 7 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at age 1 year?

a. 14 c. 18
b. 16 d. 21

Answer 3

ANS: D
In general birth, weight triples by the end of the first year of life. For an infant who was 7 pounds at birth, 21 pounds would be the anticipated weight at the first birthday. Weights of 14, 16, and 18 pounds are less what would be expected for an infant with a birth weight of 7 pounds.

Question 4

By what age does birth length usually double?

a. 1 year c. 4 years
b. 2 years d. 6 years

Answer 4

ANS: C
Linear growth or height occurs almost entirely as a result of skeletal growth and is considered a stable measurement of general growth. On average most children have doubled their birth length at age 4 years. One year and 2 years are too young for doubling of length.

Question 5

How does the onset of the pubertal growth spurt compare in girls and boys?

a. It occurs earlier in boys.
b. It occurs earlier in girls.
c. It is about the same in both boys and girls.
d. In both boys and girls it depends on their growth in infancy.

Answer 5

ANS: B
Usually, the pubertal growth spurt begins earlier in girls. It typically occurs between the ages of 10 and 14 years for girls and 11 and 16 years for boys. The average earliest age at onset is 1 year earlier for girls. There does not appear to be a relation to growth during infancy.

Question 6

A 13-year-old girl asks the nurse how much taller she will become. She has been growing about 2 inches per year but grew 4 inches this past year. Menarche recently occurred. The nurse should base her response on knowing that:

a. Growth cannot be predicted.
b. The pubertal growth spurt lasts about 1 year.
c. Mature height is achieved when menarche occurs.
d. Approximately 95% of mature height is achieved when menarche occurs.

Answer 6

ANS: D
Although growth cannot be definitely predicted, at the time of the beginning of menstruation or the skeletal age of 13 years, most girls have grown to about 95% of their adult height. They may have some additional growth (5%) until the epiphyseal plates are closed. Responding that the pubertal growth spurt last about 1 year does not address the girl’s question. Young women usually will grow approximately 5% more after the onset of menstruation.

Question 7

A child’s skeletal age is best determined by:

a. Assessment of dentition. c. Facial bone development.
b. Assessment of height over time. d. Radiographs of the hand and wrist.

Answer 7

ANS: D
The most accurate measure of skeletal age is radiologic examination of the growth plates. These are the epiphyseal cartilage plates. Radiographs of the hand and wrist provide the most useful screening to determine skeletal age. Age of tooth eruption varies considerably in children. It would not be a good determinant of skeletal age. Assessment of height over time will provide a record of the child’s height, not skeletal age. Facial bone development does not reflect the child’s skeletal age, which is determined by radiographic assessment.

Question 8

Trauma to which site can result in a growth problem for children’s long bones?

a. Matrix c. Calcified cartilage
b. Connective tissue d. Epiphyseal cartilage plate

Answer 8

ANS: D
The epiphyseal cartilage plate is the area of active growth. Bone injury at the epiphyseal plate can significantly affect subsequent growth and development. Trauma or infection can result in deformity. The matrix, connective tissue, and calcified cartilage are not areas of active growth. Trauma in these sites will not result in growth problems for the long bones.

Question 9

Lymphoid tissues such as lymph nodes are:

a. Adult size by age 1 year.
b. Adult size by age 13 years.
c. Half their adult size by age 5 years.
d. Twice their adult size by age 10 to 12 years.

Answer 9

ANS: D
Lymph nodes increase rapidly and reach adult size at approximately age 6 years. They continue growing until they reach maximal development at age 10 to 12 years, which is twice their adult size. A rapid decline in size occurs until they reach adult size by the end of adolescence.

Question 10

Which statement is true about the basal metabolic rate (BMR) in children?

a. It is reduced by fever.
b. It is slightly higher in boys than in girls at all ages.
c. It increases with the age of child.
d. It decreases as proportion of surface area to body mass increases.

Answer 10

ANS: B
The BMR is the rate of metabolism when the body is at rest. At all ages the rate is slightly higher in boys than in girls. The rate is increased by fever. The BMR is highest in infancy and then closely relates to the proportion of surface area to body mass. As the child grows, the proportion decreases progressively to maturity.

Question 11

A mother reports that her 6-year-old child is highly active and irritable and that she has irregular habits and adapts slowly to new routines, people, or situations. According to Chess and Thomas, which category of temperament best describes this child?

a. Easy child c. Slow-to-warm-up child
b. Difficult child d. Fast-to-warm-up child

Answer 11

ANS: B
This is a description of difficult children, who compose about 10% of the population. Negative withdrawal responses are typical of this type of child, who requires a more structured environment. Mood expressions are usually intense and primarily negative. These children exhibit frequent periods of crying and often violent tantrums. Easy children are even tempered, regular, and predictable in their habits. They are open and adaptable to change. Approximately 40% of children fit this description. Slow-to-warm-up children typically react negatively and with mild intensity to new stimuli and adapt slowly with repeated contact. Approximately 10% of children fit this description. Fast-to-warm-up children is not one of the categories identified by Chess and Thomas.

Question 12

By the time children reach their twelfth birthday, they should have learned to trust others and should have developed a sense of:

a. Identity. c. Integrity.
b. Industry. d. Intimacy.

Answer 12

ANS: B
Industry is the developmental task of school-age children. By age 12 years, children engage in tasks that they can carry through to completion. They learn to compete and cooperate with others, and they learn rules. Identity versus role confusion is the developmental task of adolescence. Integrity and intimacy are not developmental tasks of childhood.

Question 13

The predominant characteristic of the intellectual development of the child ages 2 to 7 years is egocentricity. What best describes this concept?

a. Selfishness c. Preferring to play alone
b. Self-centeredness d. Inability to put self in another’s place

Answer 13

ANS: D
According to Piaget, this age child is in the preoperational stage of development. Children interpret objects and events not in terms of their general properties but in terms of their relationships or their use to them. This egocentrism does not allow children of this age to put themselves in another’s place. Selfishness, self-centeredness, and preferring to play alone do not describe the concept of egocentricity.

Question 14

The nurse is observing parents playing with their 10-month-old daughter. What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the child is developing object permanence?

a. She looks for the toy the parents hide under the blanket.
b. She returns the blocks to the same spot on the table.
c. She recognizes that a ball of clay is the same when flattened out.
d. She bangs two cubes held in her hands.

Answer 14

ANS: A
Object permanence is the realization that items that leave the visual field still exist. When the infant searches for the toy under the blanket, it is an indication that object permanence has developed. Returning blocks to the same spot on a table is not an example of object permanence. Recognizing a ball of clay is the same when flat is an example of conservation, which occurs during the concrete operations stage from 7 to 11 years. Banging cubes together is a simple repetitive activity characteristic of developing a sense of cause and effect.

Question 15

What is characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development?

a. Thinking is logical. c. Reasoning is inductive.
b. Thinking is concrete. d. Generalizations can be made.

Answer 15

ANS: B
Preoperational thinking is concrete and tangible. Children in this age group cannot reason beyond the observable, and they lack the ability to make deductions or generalizations. Increasingly logical thought, inductive reasoning, and the ability to make generalizations are characteristic of the concrete operations stage of development, ages 7 to 11 years.

Question 16

Which behavior is most characteristic of the concrete operations stage of cognitive development?

a. Progression from reflex activity to imitative behavior
b. Inability to put oneself in another’s place
c. Increasingly logical and coherent thought processes
d. Ability to think in abstract terms and draw logical conclusions

Answer 16

ANS: C
During the concrete operations stage of development, which occurs approximately between ages 7 and 11 years, increasingly logical and coherent thought processes occur. This is characterized by the child’s ability to classify, sort, order, and organize facts to use in problem solving. The progression from reflex activity to imitative behavior is characteristic of the sensorimotor stage of development. The inability to put oneself in another’s place is characteristic of the preoperational stage of development. The ability to think in abstract terms and draw logical conclusions is characteristic of the formal operations stage of development.

Question 17

According to Kohlberg, children develop moral reasoning as they mature. What is most characteristic of a preschooler’s stage of moral development?

a. Obeying the rules of correct behavior is important.
b. Showing respect for authority is important behavior.
c. Behavior that pleases others is considered good.
d. Actions are determined as good or bad in terms of their consequences.

Answer 17

ANS: D
Preschoolers are most likely to exhibit characteristics of Kohlberg’s preconventional level of moral development. During this stage they are culturally oriented to labels of good or bad, right or wrong. Children integrate these concepts based on the physical or pleasurable consequences of their actions. Obeying rules of correct behavior, showing respect for authority, and knowing that behavior that pleases others is considered good are characteristic of Kohlberg’s conventional level of moral development.

Question 18

At what age do children tend to imitate the religious gestures and behaviors of others without understanding their significance?

a. Toddlerhood c. Older school-age period
b. Young school-age period d. Adolescence

Answer 18

ANS: A
Toddlerhood is a time of imitative behavior. Children will copy the behavior of others without comprehending any significance or meaning to the activities. During the school-age period most children develop a strong interest in religion. The existence of a deity is accepted, and petitions to an omnipotent being are important. Although adolescents become more skeptical and uncertain about religious beliefs, they do understand the significance of religious rituals.

Question 19

A toddler playing with sand and water would be participating in _____ play.

a. Skill c. Social-affective
b. Dramatic d. Sense-pleasure

Answer 19

ANS: D
The toddler playing with sand and water is engaging in sense-pleasure play. This is characterized by nonsocial situations in which the child is stimulated by objects in the environment. Infants engage in skill play when they persistently demonstrate and exercise newly acquired abilities. Dramatic play is the predominant form of play in the preschool period. Children pretend and fantasize. Social-affective play is one of the first types of play in which infants engage. The infant responds to interactions with people.

Question 20

In what type of play are children engaged in similar or identical activity without organization, division of labor, or mutual goal?

a. Solitary c. Associative
b. Parallel d. Cooperative

Answer 20

ANS: C
In associative play no group goal is present. Each child acts according to his or her own wishes. Although the children may be involved in similar activities, no organization, division of labor, leadership assignment, or mutual goal exists. Solitary play describes children playing alone with toys different from those used by other children in the same area. Parallel play describes children playing independently but being among other children. Cooperative play is organized. Children play in a group with other children who play activities for a common goal.

Question 21

The nurse observes some children in the playroom. Which play situation exhibits the characteristics of parallel play?

a. Kimberly and Amanda sharing clay to each make things
b. Brian playing with his truck next to Kristina playing with her truck
c. Adam playing a board game with Kyle, Steven, and Erich
d. Danielle playing with a music box on her mother’s lap

Answer 21

ANS: B
An example of parallel play is when both children are engaged in similar activities in proximity to each other; however, they are each engaged in their own play, such as Brian and Kristina playing with their own trucks side by side. Sharing clay is characteristic of associative play. A group of children playing a board game is characteristic of cooperative play. Playing alone on the mother’s lap is an example of solitary play.

Question 22

Three children playing a board game would be an example of:

a. Solitary play c. Associative play
b. Parallel play d. Cooperative play

Answer 22

ANS: D
Using a board game requires cooperative play. The children must be able to play in a group and carry out the formal game. In solitary, parallel, and associative play, children do not play in a group with a common goal.

Question 23

Which function of play is a major component of play at all ages?

a. Creativity c. Intellectual development
b. Socialization d. Sensorimotor activity

Answer 23

ANS: D
Sensorimotor activity is a major component of play at all ages. Active play is essential for muscle development and allows the release of surplus energy. Through sensorimotor play, children explore their physical world by using tactile, auditory, visual, and kinesthetic stimulation. Creativity, socialization, and intellectual development are each functions of play that are major components at different ages.

Question 24

Which statement is true about toy safety?

a. Adults should be the only ones who select toys.
b. Adults should be alert to notices of recalls by manufacturers.
c. Government agencies inspect all toys on the market.
d. Evaluation of toy safety is a joint effort between children and adults.

Answer 24

ANS: B
Adults should be involved in the selection of toys for children to ensure that they are safe and age appropriate. Once the child is using a toy, the adult should be alert to manufacturer recalls. The child and adult should be involved in the joint process of toy selection. Government agencies do not inspect all toys for sale. The U.S. Consumer Products Safety Commission does keep track of potentially dangerous and recalled toys. Children do not have the ability to determine the safety of a toy. It is the adult’s responsibility.

Question 25

What is probably the single most important influence on growth at all stages of development?

a. Nutrition c. Culture
b. Heredity d. Environment

Answer 25

ANS: A
Nutrition is the single most important influence on growth. Dietary factors regulate growth at all stages of development, and their effects are exerted in numerous and complex ways. Adequate nutrition is closely related to good health throughout life. Heredity, culture, and environment all contribute to the child’s growth and development; however, good nutrition is essential throughout the life span for optimal health.

Question 26

Which strategy would be the least appropriate for a child to use to cope?

a. Learning problem solving c. Having parents solve problems
b. Listening to music d. Using relaxation techniques

Answer 26

ANS: C
Children respond to everyday stress by trying to change the circumstances or adjust to the circumstances the way they are. Strategies that provide relaxation and other stress-reduction techniques should be used. An inappropriate response would be for the parents to solve the problems. Some children develop socially unacceptable strategies such as lying, stealing, or cheating. Learning problem solving, listening to music, and using relaxation techniques are positive approaches for coping in children.

Question 27

The intrauterine environment can have a profound and permanent effect on the developing fetus with or without chromosome or gene abnormalities. Most adverse intrauterine effects are the result of teratogens. The nurse is cognizant that this group of agents does not include:

a. Accutane c. Amniotic bands
b. Rubella d. Alcohol

Answer 27

ANS: C
Amniotic bands are a congenital anomaly known as a “disruption” that occurs with the breakdown of previously normal tissue. Congenital amputations caused by amniotic bands are not the result of a teratogen. Other agents include Dilantin, warfarin, cytomegalovirus, radiation, and maternal PKU

Question 28

The karyotype of a person is 47, XY, +21. This person is a:

a. Normal male. c. Normal female.
b. Male with Down syndrome. d. Female with Turner syndrome.

Answer 28

ANS: B
This person is male because his sex chromosomes are XY. He has one extra copy of chromosome 21 (for a total of 47 instead of 46), resulting in Down syndrome. A normal male would have 46 chromosomes. A normal female would have 46 chromosomes and XX for the sex chromosomes. A female with Turner syndrome would have 45 chromosomes; the sex chromosomes would have just one X.

Question 29

Frequent developmental assessments are important for which reason?

a. Stable developmental periods during infancy provide an opportunity to identify any delays or deficits.
b. Infants need stimulation specific to the stage of development.
c. Critical periods of development occur during childhood.
d. Child development is unpredictable and needs monitoring.

Answer 29

ANS: C
Critical periods are blocks of time during which children are ready to master specific developmental tasks. The earlier that delays in development are discovered and intervention initiated, the less dramatic their effect will be. Infancy is a dynamic time of development that requires frequent evaluations to assess appropriate developmental progress. Infants in a nurturing environment will develop appropriately and will not necessarily need stimulation specific to their developmental stage. Normal growth and development are orderly and proceed in a predictable pattern on the basis of each individual’s abilities and potentials.

Question 30

The theorist who viewed developmental progression as a lifelong series of conflicts that need resolution is:

a. Erikson. c. Kohlberg.
b. Freud. d. Piaget.

Answer 30

ANS: A
Erik Erikson viewed development as a series of conflicts affected by social and cultural factors. Each conflict must be resolved for the child to progress emotionally, with unsuccessful resolution leaving the child emotionally disabled. Sigmund Freud proposed a psychosexual theory of development. He proposed that certain parts of the body assume psychological significance as foci of sexual energy. The foci shift as the individual moves through the different stages (oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital) of development.
Lawrence Kohlberg described moral development as having three levels (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional). His theory closely parallels Piaget’s. Jean Piaget’s cognitive theory interprets how children learn and think and how this thinking progresses and differs from adult thinking. Stages of his theory include sensorimotor, preoperations, concrete operations, and formal operations.

Question 31

Which “expected outcome” would be developmentally appropriate for a hospitalized 4-year-old child?

a. The child will be dressed and fed by the parents.
b. The child will independently ask for play materials or other personal needs.
c. The child will be able to verbalize an understanding of the reason for the hospitalization.
d. The child will have a parent stay in the room at all times.

Answer 31

ANS: B
Erikson identifies initiative as a developmental task for the preschool child. Initiating play activities and asking for play materials or assistance with personal needs demonstrate developmental appropriateness. Parents need to foster appropriate developmental behavior in the 4-year-old child. Dressing and feeding the child do not encourage independent behavior. A 4-year-old child cannot be expected to cognitively understand the reason for hospitalization. Expecting the child to verbalize an understanding for hospitalization is an inappropriate outcome. Parents staying with the child throughout a hospitalization is an inappropriate outcome. Although children benefit from parental involvement, parents may not have the support structure to stay in the room with the child at all times.

Question 32

Play serves many purposes. In teaching parents about appropriate activities, the nurse should inform them that play serves the following function (Select all that apply):

a. Intellectual development
b. Physical development
c. Self-awareness
d. Creativity
e. Temperament development

Answer 32

ANS: A, C, D
A common statement is that play is the work of childhood. Intellectual development is enhanced through the manipulation and exploration of objects. Self-awareness is the process of developing a self-identity. This process is facilitated through play. In addition, creativity is developed through the experimentation characteristic of imaginative play. Physical development depends on many factors; play is not one of them. Temperament refers to behavioral tendencies that are observable from the time of birth. The actual behaviors but not the child’s temperament attributes may be modified through play.

Question 33

A nurse is preparing to administer a Denver II. Which statement(s) about the Denver II test is (are) accurate (Select all that apply)?

a. All items intersected by the age line should be administered.
b. There is no correction for a child born prematurely.
c. The tool is an intelligence test.
d. Toddlers and preschoolers should be prepared by presenting the test as a game.
e. Presentation of the toys from the kit should be done one at a time.

Answer 33

ANS: A, D, E
To identify “cautions,” all items intersected by the age line are administered. Toddlers and preschoolers should be tested by presenting the Denver II as a game. Because children are easily distracted, perform each item quickly and present only one toy from the kit at a time. Before beginning the screening, ask whether the child was born preterm and correctly calculate the adjusted age. Up to 24 months of age, allowances are made for preterm infants by subtracting the number of weeks of missed gestation from their present age and testing them at the adjusted age. Explain to the parents and child, if appropriate, that the screenings are not intelligence tests but rather are a method of showing what the child can do at a particular age.

Question 34

What factors indicate that parents should seek genetic counseling for their child (Select all that apply)?

a. Abnormal newborn screen
b. Family history of a hereditary disease
c. History of hypertension in the family
d. Severe colic as an infant
e. Metabolic disorder

Answer 34

ANS: A, B, E
Factors indicating that parents should seek genetic counseling for their child include an abnormal newborn screen, family history of a hereditary disease, and a metabolic disorder. A history of hypertension or severe colic as an infant is not an indicator of a genetic disease.