Perioperative management Flashcards

1
Q

Contraindications to elective surgery

A

MI within 6 months

CVA within 2 months

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2
Q

Closure after laceration

A

Follow 6 hour golden rule to prevent infection

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3
Q

Nickel allergy

A

Nitinol contains 45% nickel
Stainless steel contains 35%
Titanium and other alloys contain <1% nickel

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4
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

Inflammatory process that causes blood to clot and block one or more veins
Most common in lower extremities
Causes erythema, edema, pain

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5
Q

Risks of blood transfusion

A

Volume overload, hypothermia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, acute transfusion reactions, hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis, and increased risk of infection
Risk of periprosthetic and surgical site infection are also increased during allogenic blood transfusion

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6
Q

Heparin half life

A

Unfractionated heparin’s half life is 1.5 hours

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7
Q

The following are all included in rheumatoid panel:

A
Rheumatoid factor (RF) 
Cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody 
Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 
C-reactive protein (CRP) 
Complete blood count (CBC)
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8
Q

Rheumatoid factor (RF)

A

Rheumatoid factor (RF) – used to help diagnose RA; it is present in significant concentrations in most people (about 80%) with RA but can also be present in people with other diseases and in a small percentage of healthy people; when positive in someone with symptoms of RA, this test can be useful to confirm the diagnosis.

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9
Q

Cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody

A

Cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody – may be used to help diagnose RA, especially early in the disease – potentially before symptoms even appear – and in people who are RF-negative; found in 60-70% of people with RA; when used with the RF test, CCP results can help confirm a diagnosis of RA.

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10
Q

Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

A

Antinuclear antibody (ANA) – this test is used to screen for certain autoimmune disorders, sometimes including RA, but is most often used as one of the tests to diagnose systemic lupus erythematous (SLE).

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11
Q

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) – this test shows the presence of inflammation in the body and the activity of the disease. It is used to help diagnose RA and to evaluate and monitor the condition. ESR will be increased in RA but not in osteoarthritis.

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12
Q

C-reactive protein (CRP)

A

C-reactive protein (CRP) – this test also indicates inflammation and tests for the activity of the disease. It may be used to help diagnose RA and to evaluate and monitor the condition. An increased level of CRP occurs in RA but not in osteoarthritis.

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13
Q

Complete blood count (CBC)

A

Complete blood count (CBC) – this is a group of tests used to help evaluate the person’s red and white blood cells and hemoglobin to help monitor for anemia and/or a decrease in white blood cells.

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14
Q

Fluid resuscitation following LE trauma

A

Significant amount of blood is lost with compound ankle injuries. Patients are at increased risk of developing hypovolemic shock. In cases of inadequate resuscitation, patients are mostly likely to develop the lethal triad of hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis. In order to avoid this lethal triad and hypovolemic shock, patients with long bone fractures are adequately resuscitated with intravenous fluids.
Crystalloid is the first choice of fluid in resuscitation. Intravenous fluids should be judiciously used with the aim of providing routine maintenance fluids to meet insensible losses, to maintain normal status of body fluid compartments and enable renal excretion of waste products.

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15
Q

Fat embolism

A

Fat emboli may occur in patients with long bone fractures. However, some patients develop a triad of petechiae in skin, respiratory depression and altered state of consciousness. This is known as fat embolism syndrome. Traditionally, it develops 24-72 hours following trauma. Diagnosis is mainly clinical and is supported by imaging. Fat embolism syndrome can be detected early by continuous pulse oximetry in high-risk patients. It has been proposed that when fractures of long bones occur, fat droplets are released into the venous system which are then embedded in the pulmonary capillary bed. From there, they travel to the brain via AV shunts. This results in local ischemia and inflammation, with concomitant release of inflammatory mediators and vasoactive amines and platelet aggregation

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16
Q

Concentric Contractions

A

Muscle actively shortening When a muscle is activated

Raising of a weight during a bicep curl

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17
Q

Eccentric Contractions

A

Muscle actively lengthening during normal activity, muscles are often active while they are lengthening
Setting an object down gently (the arm flexors must be active to control the fall of the object)

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18
Q

Isometric Contraction

A

Muscle actively held at a fixed length a third type of muscle contraction, isometric contraction, is one in which the muscle is activated, but instead of being allowed to lengthen or shorten, it is held at a constant length
Carrying an object in front of you

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19
Q

Herbal medicines that reduce platelet aggregation

A

Used to treat cardiovascular disease

Andrographis, feverfew, garlic, ginger, Ginkgo, ginseng, hawthorn, horse chestnut, and turmeric

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20
Q

Herbal medicines that interact with Warfarin

A

Cranberry, danshen, dong quai, Ginkgo, ginseng, green tea, and St John’s wort were found to have potential interactions with warfarin

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21
Q

Why order pre-op CBC

A

preoperative laboratory tests are carried out for assessing the perioperative risks associated with surgery and their timely management to reduces the morbidity and mortality associated with them. Preoperative CBC is one of the most important tests in the basic investigation panel. Preoperative anemia (hemoglobin- Hb) can be evaluated on CBC. Proceeding surgically in an anemic patient will lead to a higher likelihood of postoperative transfusion need. There is a higher risk of intraoperative bleeding (Low platelets) and poor wound healing due to decreased oxygen supply in those found to be anemic or with thrombocytopenia. During a CBC: Hb, Rbcs, platelets and Hct provide important information regarding the anemia and its etiology. Timely diagnosis of anemia helps in preoperative treatment by oral supplementation. In turn, this reduces the need for postoperative transfusion and aids in healthy wound healing; yielding shorter hospital stays.

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22
Q

Osteoid osteoma

A

Remember that osteoid osteomas are relieved by aspirin (and other PROSTAGLANDIN inhibitors). They are highly vascular tumors - so substances that cause vasodilation, like alcohol, - may cause an acute pain crisis: The underlying cause of osteoid osteomas is unknown. The nidus has been found to contain profuse nerve fibers adjacent to areas abundant in arterioles. Prostaglandin synthesis has been shown to occur within the nidus. It’s suggested that these prostaglandins play an important role as mediators of both pain and vasodilation which stimulate the nerve endings by increasing the blood flow within the tumor.

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23
Q

Preop insulin

A

Give long acting insulin at ½ the normal dose, and hold short acting insulin the morning of surgery.

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24
Q

BMA

A

Bone marrow is often aspirated to utilize the stem cells for tissue repair applications such as bone regeneration. The specific type of stem cells of interest are adult mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs), which differentiate into osteoprogenitor cells. These further differentiate into mature bone-forming cells, called osteoblastsOf the choices listed, only autologous tibia bone marrow aspirate is capable as a source of osteogenic mesenchymal precursor cells.

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25
Q

Toxic dose

A

Toxic dose for Lidocaine plain = 4.5mg/kg
Toxic dose for Lidocaine with epinephrine = 7mg/kg.
Toxic dose for Marcaine plain = 3mg/kg.

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26
Q

Toxic dose of lidocaine plain for a 60kg female

A

60kg x 4.5mg = 270mg. 270mg % (10mg/mL) = 27mL.

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27
Q

ASA

A

ASA 1: A normal healthy patient. Example: Fit, non-obese (BMI under 30), a nonsmoking patient with good exercise tolerance.
ASA 2: A patient with a mild systemic disease. Example: Patient with no functional limitations and a well-controlled disease (e.g., treated hypertension, obesity with BMI under 35, frequent social drinker or is a cigarette smoker).
ASA 3: A patient with a severe systemic disease that is not life-threatening. Example: Patient with some functional limitation as a result of disease (e.g., poorly treated hypertension or diabetes, morbid obesity, chronic renal failure, a bronchospastic disease with intermittent exacerbation, stable angina, implanted pacemaker).
ASA 4: A patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Example: Patient with functional limitation from severe, life-threatening disease (e.g., unstable angina, poorly controlled COPD, symptomatic CHF, recent (less than three months ago) myocardial infarction or stroke.
ASA 5: A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation. The patient is not expected to survive beyond the next 24 hours without surgery. Examples: ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, massive trauma, and extensive intracranial hemorrhage with mass effect.
ASA 6: A brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed with the intention of transplanting them into another patient.

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28
Q

INR, PT, PTT

A

A normal INR = ~1
An INR range of 2.0 to 3.0 is generally an effective therapeutic range for people taking warfarin and would be at increased risk of bleeding
A normal PTT time = 25 to 35 seconds
A normal PT time = 11 to 13.5 seconds
Prothrombin time test results can be presented in two ways; in seconds and INR. In seconds, the average time range for blood to clot is about 10 to 14 seconds. A number higher than that range means it takes blood longer than usual to clot. A number lower than that range means blood clots more quickly than normal.

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29
Q

Pre-op EKG

A

The ACC/AHA guidelines recommend preoperative ECGs in patients with at least one clinical risk factor undergoing vascular surgical procedures, or patients with known coronary heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, or cerebrovascular disease undergoing at least intermediate-risk surgery. Age older than 65 years, history of heart failure, high cholesterol, angina, MI, or severe valvular disease are associated with clinically significant abnormalities on

30
Q

Basal insulin dosing pre-operatively

A

Perioperative hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient may have hazardous side effects intraoperatively. This may result in surgery delay and increased risk of post-operative complications. Patients who receive 60-80% of their usual basal insulin dose on the evening before surgery are more likely to achieve target glucose levels desirable for surgery and decreased risk of postoperative hypoglycemia. Thus, it is advisable to reduce the basal insulin dose by 25% on the night before surgery for better surgical outcomes.

31
Q

Holding TNF-agonists preoperatively

A

TNF-antagonist drugs such as Adalimumab (Humira), Etanercept (Enbrel), or Infliximab (Remicade) may be continued for MINOR PROCEDURES. For major surgery: Etanercept should be discontinued 2 weeks prior. Major surgery should be planned at the end of a dosing cycle for both Infliximab and Adalimumab. TNF-antagonists should then be restarted 2 weeks afterwards.

32
Q

Anticoagulants following TAR

A

Patients with total joint replacement surgeries are at increased risk of developing DVT in lower limbs due to venous stasis. Additionally, increase risk of DVT poses a greater risk for development of pulmonary embolism, which may be fatal. In order to avoid these complications, many patients following joint replacement surgeries are given prophylactic anticoagulation; most likely with low molecular weight heparin or unfractionated heparin. (BOARDWIZARDS NOTE It should be noted that current literature does not strongly support the routine use of anticoagulation following most foot and ankle surgery).

33
Q

Packed RBCs

A

Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are made from a unit of whole blood by centrifugation and removal of most of the plasma, leaving a unit with a hematocrit of about 60%. One PRBC unit will raise the hematocrit of a standard adult patient by 3%. PRBCs are used to replace red cell mass when tissue oxygenation is impaired by acute or chronic anemia.

34
Q

Blood transfusion

A

Whole blood transfusion is associated with increased risk of surgical site infections, periprosthetic infections, volume overload, and other transfusion related adverse effects. The provincial guidelines for blood transfusion were revised on January 1, 2015 to initially transfuse 1 unit instead of 2, although no change was made to the threshold at which transfusion was recommended

35
Q

Hemophilia

A

Based upon this patients history of recurrent joint swelling with minimal trauma since childhood, most likely has hemophilia. Hemophillia is an X linked disorder due to deficiency of factor 8 or factor 9. Both of these factors are a part of the intrinsic coagulation pathway. APTT will be deranged and prolonged in diseases which affect the intrinsic coagulation pathway. Thus in this patient APTT will be raised due to factor 8 or 9 deficiency.

36
Q

Thrombolysis

A

While anticoagulation is commonly used in calf/popliteal DVT management; BLAST criteria is used to assess the patients who will undergo thrombolysis for DVT management. Thrombolysis for DVT management is typically performed with a catheter positioned directly near the thrombus. The BLAST tool identifier for candidates should consider all of the following: Bleeding risk, Life expectancy, Anatomy, Severity and Time of symptoms of the DVT before treatment is offered. For example: Patients with acute thrombus located in the cava or iliac vessels should primarily be considered for these lytic treatments. Patients with popliteal or calf DVT should be anticoagulated. Patients who are pregnant, have active bleeding, or have a very short life expectancy should not be considered for thrombolysis therapy.

37
Q

Metoprolol for post op a fib

A

Atrial fibrillation is the most common type of supra-ventricular arrhythmia that occurs postoperatively. Acute management of atrial fibrillation by rate control of rapid ventricular response in a hemodynamically stable patient. The first line drug is a beta-blocker due to their effects on blocking the sympathetic tone. Most commonly used beta blocker is metoprolol. Metoprolol is a rapidly acting drug, has short duration and has no alpha blocking effects. Other available options are calcium channel blockers and Amiodarone. In hemodynamically unstable patients, direct cardioversion is used as first line to control atrial fibrillation.

38
Q

Preventing periprosthetic infection

A

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common organism found in early and late prosthetic implants. Staph aureus is usually sensitve to penicllins and fusidic acid. Fusidic acid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic that is active against gram positive cocci. It is commonly used to treat staph aureus related osteomyelitis. Studies have demonstrated that use of cloxacillin and incorporation of fusidic acid into the cement has decreased the rate of infection from 1.5% to 0.5%.

39
Q

Half life of lovenox

A

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) half life is : 4.5 – 7 hours.

40
Q

Side effect of furosemide during surgery

A

One of the adverse effects of chronic intake of furosemide, a loop diuretic, is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-Cl pump, resulting in increased sodium delivery to the distal tubule, resulting in kaliuresis. When it is used with muscle relaxants during anesthesia, it may result in profound muscle relaxation due to hypokalemia and thus complicating the intraoperative period. There is an increased risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Generally, it is advised to omit the morning dose of diuretics on the day of surgery.

41
Q

Plyometrics

A

Plyometric training utilizes the stretch‐shortening cycle (SSC) by using a lengthening movement (eccentric) which is quickly followed by a shortening movement (concentric).

42
Q

Rheumatoid panel

A
RF
CPP
ANA
SLE
ESR
CRP
CBC
CMP
43
Q

Insulin rate during surgery to prevent hyperglycemia

A

Hyperglycemia is a dangerous complication which is associated with increased morbidity and mortality in the intraoperative and postoperative periods. Hyperglycemia is defined as glucose level >200 mg/dl. Intraoperative hyperglycemia during a major reconstructive foot and ankle surgery is controlled by IV continuous infusion of insulin. Dose of insulin is empirically given at the rate of 0.02U/kg/hr.

44
Q

Which drug can safely be used during the perioperative period without developing the risk of hypoglycemia

A

Onglyza (saxagliptin)

45
Q

Beta blockers

A

Drugs that should be taken up to and including the day of surgery INCLUDE beta blockers such as Metropolol.

46
Q

Drop in hemoglobin following TAR

A

Blood loss is the most common event that occurs during major joint replacement surgery. On an average, there is a drop of more than 2 g/dl hemoglobin in patients who underwent a total ankle arthroplasty (without tranexamic acid). Due to this large drop in Hb levels, many patients require blood transfusions post operatively.

47
Q

Half life of plavix

A

After a single, oral dose of 75 mg, clopidogrel has a half-life of approximately 6 hours. The half-life of the active metabolite is about 30 minutes.

48
Q

Surgical adrenal crisis in patients on steroids

A

Patients who are taking high dose steroids are at increased risk of HPA (hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis) axis failure. High doses of cortisol inhibit the hypothalamus and pitutiary via negative feedback mechanism. Decreased CRH and ACTH release from hypothalamus and pitutiary results in diminished cortisol production. HPA axis failure is most commonly seen when patient takes high dose glucocorticoids >20 mg per day for more than 3 weeks.

49
Q

Holding ASA prior to sx

A

It has been recommended in guidelines to stop aspirin therapy, if indicated, 7 to 10 days before surgery. However, studies involving preoperative platelet function tests reported faster recovery of platelet function. It is an expert opinion of some authors to stop aspirin, if indicated, 5 days before surgery. Unfortunately, larger comparative randomized studies evaluating optimal timing of aspirin cessation prior to noncardiac surgery with regard to thromboembolic and hemorrhagic complications are lacking.

50
Q

Calculate correction insulin dose

A

Early recovery and decreased risk of infections in the postoperative period is achieved by controlling blood glucose levels. In patients who can tolerate oral intake, education should be provided to the patient to use subcutaneous insulin in the event of hyperglycemia. This is referred to as: supplemental insulin compensation. It can be calculated by dividing the total daily insulin (TDI) dose by 30 for every 50 mg/dL (3 mmol/L) above the glycemic goal. Take a patient with a total daily insulin dose of 150 units with a blood glucose reading of 350 mg/dL. Subtracting the upper end of a normal glucose measurement (200 mg/dL) from the patients reading and dividing by 50 mg/dL yields 3. Simply multiply this number by the TDI/30 (150/30 = 5) to determine that the patient requires an additional 15 units of rapid acting insulin to restore blood glucose levels back into target range.

51
Q

Inferior vena cava filter

A

The mainstay therapy for symptomatic VTE is anticoagulation. In circumstances where there are contraindications to or complications from anticoagulation therapy, then vena cava filter placement is an effective alternative therapy to prevent a significant subsequent PE. Placement of these devices paradoxically promotes thrombus formation.

52
Q

Regional (spinal) anesthesia in coagulopathies

A

Coagulopathy is the blood’s impairment to coagulate and clot. Coagulopathy may be caused by reduced levels or absence of blood-clotting proteins, known as clotting factors or coagulation factors. Genetic disorders, such as hemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease, may result in a reduction in clotting factors. This can lead to excessive bleeding following surgical intervention. PT and PTT should be evaluated preoperatively. While there are no explicit recommendations or guidelines exist for patients undergoing regional anesthesia (ex: spinal anesthesia) with hemorrhagic diatheses, such as von Willebrand disease (vWD), hemophilia A and B and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura; regional anesthesia is most often ill advised in those at risk.

53
Q

Bleeding risk in low platelet count

A

If platelets are less than 10,000/μl increased risk of bleeding
Normal platelet counts: 150,000/μl to 450,000/μl

54
Q

Post op hypertension management

A

Postoperative hypertension is a common complication. A conservative target would be approximately 10% above that baseline. “Although these transient increases in blood pressure are usually benign, significant morbidity and mortality may result from complications of postoperative hypertension. Labetalol can be given IV and is effective quickly.

55
Q

Wells score

A

Older age >75 years (particularly ≥85 years)
Poor ambulation (prior to surgery)
Obesity
Cardiovascular disease
Other factors: Duration of postoperative immobilization and the type of surgery performed also have an effect. The risk of developing VTE is greatly increased in polytrauma.

56
Q

Cardiac assessment in RA patients preop

A

Rheumatoid arthritis and the medications that are used to treat it have widespread effects on body including the heart, lungs, liver and hematology. Patients with RA are at increased risk of intraoperative myocardial infarction. Therefore, it is necessary to perform a preoperative cardiac risk assessment in patients with RA - using a revised cardiac risk index score.

57
Q

Most reliable test to determine if faciotomies are needed in the absence of a Wick catheter

A

Pain in response to passive digital extension or stretching of muscles within the affected compartment is widely described as a highly sensitive early sign of acute compartment syndrome, but it too may be unreliable in some patients.

58
Q

Pathway inhibited by Heparin

A

HeparIN = INtrinsic pathway is inhibited

Heparin inhibits the INTRINSIC pathway far more than the extrinsic

59
Q

Virchow triad

A

Over a century ago, Rudolf Virchow described 3 factors that are critically important in the development of venous thrombosis:

(1) venous stasis
(2) activation of blood coagulation
(3) vein damage

60
Q

Hemophilia B

A

Hemophilia B is a hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a lack of blood clotting factor IX. It occurs almost exclusively in males and is an inherited, X-linked, recessive disorder. Hemophilia B has NORMAL bleeding and prothrombin times.

61
Q

Preop recommendation for estrogen replacement therapy

A

There is an elevated risk of developing VTE in patients undergoing major reconstructive surgery. This risk is enhanced with prolonged periods of immobilization. Drugs that predispose the patient to a hypercoagulable state are advised to be stopped at least 4 weeks before surgery as there is an increased risk of DVT. Estrogen replacement and other hormonal replacement therapies create this hypercoagulable state. Therefore it will be MOST advisable for this patient to consider stopping estrogen therapy before undergoing major replacement therapy.

62
Q

Cilostazol (Pletal)

A

A phosphodiesterase III inhibitor, is indicated to treat the symptoms of intermittent claudication and increase walking distance in patients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD).

63
Q

Indication for fasciotomy

A

A pressure higher than 30 mmHg of the diastolic pressure in a conscious or unconscious person is associated with compartment syndrome. Fasciotomy is indicated in that case. For those patients with low blood pressure (hypotension), a pressure of 20 mmHg higher than the intracompartmental pressure is associated with compartmental syndrome.

64
Q

MACE assessment

A

Major adverse cardiovascular event risk is assessed in patients with documented cardiac disease who are undergoing a non-cardiac surgery.
Perioperative cardiac risk assessment involves consideration of several risk factors for cardiac disease like age >70 years, insulin dependent diabetes, history of previous coronary artery disease, stroke or TIA.
It also takes into account the type of surgery involved and the functional status of the patient.

65
Q

Timing of steroid supplementation

A

Suppression of the stress or HPAA (hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis) results in inadequate cortisol production. Patients on chronic steroids who are at low risk for HPAA suppression - i.e., those taking any dose of glucocorticoid for less than 3 weeks, morning doses of prednisone 5 mg/day or less, or prednisone 10 mg/day or less every other day - need neither preoperative testing nor stress-dose steroid administration. Patients who are at high risk for HPAA suppression (i.e., those with clinical Cushing syndrome due to exogenous glucocorticoid use or those taking more than 20 mg/day of prednisone for more than 3 weeks) require stress-dose steroid administration but also do not need preoperative testing. Preoperative evaluation may be helpful for patients on chronic steroid therapy who do not fall into either of the above categories, as stress-dose steroids can be safely withheld with proof of non-suppressed HPAA.

66
Q

Antibiotics for Gustillo Anderson

A

For Gustillo Anderson III injuries, A,B, and C type injuries all require a first generation cephalosporin + aminoglycoside.

67
Q

Hyperparathyroid

A

The parathyroid gland helps maintain calcium equilibrium in the body. Through the production of parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcium, phosphorous, and vitamin D levels in the blood and bone are maintained. During hypoparathyroidism, the parathyroid glands produce too little PTH. This results in decreased blood calcium levels and increased phosphorous levels.

68
Q

Factor V Leiden vs Factor V Deficiency

A

Factor V deficiency should not be confused with factor V Leiden mutation - a (more common) condition that causes excessive blood clotting. Factor V deficiency is a rare bleeding disorder that results in poor clotting after an injury or surgery.

69
Q

Indication for IVC filters

A

Indications for IVC filters include, contraindication to anticoaglution, failure of anticoagulation, complications of anticoagulation, iliocaval DVT, massive PE with residual DVT, medical condition with high risk of clotting, propagation/progression of DVT during therapeutic anticoagulation, chronic venous thromboembolism treated with thromboendarterectomy.

70
Q

Rheumatoid factor targets which immunoglobulin

A

Rheumatoid factors (RFs) are the first autoantibodies described in rheumatoid arthritis (RA), which target the Fc region of IgG

71
Q

Open fracture contaminated with open standing water

A

Contamination with standing water: Preferred: Piperacillin/tazobactam 4.5 g IV q8ho
If patient has severe Beta-lactam allergy: Levofloxacin 500 mg IV q24h + metronidazole 500 mg IV q8ho
Acutely intoxicated patients with Severe Beta-lactam allergy: Clindamycin 900 mg IV q8h + levofloxacin 500 mg IV q24h (Change to levofloxacin + metronidazole once intoxication resolved)
Known MRSA colonization: Add vancomycin 15 mg/kg IV q12h