Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

#1 BOARDS > Medicine > Flashcards

Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Type of hemoglobin in sickle cell anemia

A

Sickle Sell anemia

  • Hemoglobin SS
  • Inherit an S trait from each parent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nutritional cause of peripheral neuropathy

A 
Thiamine deficiency (Vitamin B1)
Pernicious anemia (Vitamin B12 deficiency) 
Alcoholism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Zinc deficiency

A 
Decreased appetite
Growth retardation 
Diarrhea 
Hair and nail loss
Skin and eye lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Post traumatic osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus is the most common bacterial organism associated with osteo following trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Medications containing sulfa

A

Furosemide
Bactrim
Silvadene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rabies

A

Most common initial symptoms are flu-like symptoms
Fever, headache, general discomfort
Progresses quickly to anxiety, confusion, agitation, abnormal behavior, delirium, hallucination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A

Seronegative spondyloarthritis, HLA-B 27 positive
More common in young and middle aged males
Bamboo spine
Bilateral grade 2 sacroilitis
Squaring and erosion of vertebrae
NO subchondral sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amides

A

Metabolized by the liver
Contain an i before the “-caine”
Lidocaine, mepivicaine, prilocaine, bupivicaine, ropivicaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Esters

A

Metabolized in the blood by pseudoesterase
Do not contain an i before the “-caine”
Procaine, chloroprocaine, tetracaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

von Willebrand disease

A

Clotting disorder caused by a defective or missing clotting protein - von Willebrand factor
These patients are at a greater risk of easily bruising and excessive bleeding after surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Post operative constipation

A

Loss of appetite
Lethargy
Abdominal tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Contraindications to elective surgery

A

MI within 6 months

CVA within 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Closure after laceration

A

Follow 6 hour golden rule to prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nickel allergy

A

Nitinol contains 45% nickel
Stainless steel contains 35%
Titanium and other alloys contain <1% nickel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

Inflammatory process that causes blood to clot and block one or more veins
Most common in lower extremities
Causes erythema, edema, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Risks of blood transfusion

A

Volume overload, hypothermia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, acute transfusion reactions, hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis, and increased risk of infection
Risk of periprosthetic and surgical site infection are also increased during allogenic blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vitamin C deficiency

A

Periosteal hematomas and petechial hemorrhages are common findings in vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vitamin D deficiency

A

Increased risk of skeletal deformity and fractures
Deficiency in children is termed “Rickets”
Leads to insufficient mineralization of newly formed osteoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein secondary to a localized blood clot, or thrombus. This patient likely has a deep vein thrombosis which may dislodge and occlude the lungs.
Most likely complication of thrombophlebitis is pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Furosemide and potassium

A

A normal blood potassium is 3.5 to 5.1 millimoles per liter (mmol/L). Overuse of furosemide may lead to metabolic alkalosis due to hypochloremia and hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases risk of an abnormal cardiac rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most important aspect of CPR

A

Begin CPR. If a pulse is not identified within 10 seconds, immediately begin administering CPR, starting with chest compressions. Compressions should occur at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute, with a depth of 2 inches. Use a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common site of hematogenous osteomyelitis in children

A

Tibia. Explanation: The lower extremity is by far the most common site for location of hematogenous osteomyelitis in children. The two most common sites are femur and the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Kaposi sarcoma is a type of skin cancer that often begins as a purple skin lesion. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8) is found in the lesions of all those affected. Risk factors for Kaposi’s sarcoma include: HIV positive individuals and those with poor immune function. Treatment should include retroviral therapy and referral to radiation/oncology for chemotherapy treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Target range INR for warfarin

A

The majority of indications for therapeutic INR range is 2.0-3.0.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cafe au lait

A

Café au lait spots are most often harmless, but they may be associated with syndromes such as neurofibromatosis and McCune–Albright syndrome. They’re caused by a collection of pigment-producing melanocytes in the epidermis of the skin. Those with McCune-Albright syndrome often develop areas of abnormal scar-like tissue in their bones; polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Type I collagen

A

Found in bone, the most abundant collagen in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type II collagen

A

Type II collagen is primarily found in hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type III collagen

A

Found in skin, blood vessels, granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Type IV collagen

A

Type IV collagen is a type of collagen found primarily in the skin within the basement membrane zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Target cells

A

Target cells are red blood cells that have the generalized appearance of a shooting target with a bullseye. Thalassemia is an inherited-blood disorder, characterized by diminished hemoglobin and fewer red blood cells in the body than normal. Target cells appear in conditions that cause the surface of the red cell to increase disproportionately to its volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Resolute purulence

A

Resolute purulent discharge is seen most often in chronic osteomyelitis. Chronic osteomyelitis includes involucrum, cloaca and dead bone.

32
Q

Beriberi

A

Beriberi is a disease caused by a Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. It is often seen in cases of alcoholism or a poor diet. Beriberi may present with generalized weakness, shortness of breath, lower extremity edema, and limb pain. Vitamin B1 supplementation is initiated for treatment.

33
Q

Nec fasc

A
  • Type 1 forms are typically polymicrobial and occur in the immunocompromised.
  • The most common form of Type 2 NF is haemolytic group A streptococcus, often resulting in toxic shock syndrome.
  • Primary cause for microbial Type 2 NF varies in the literature (some sources say staph/strep), but for podiatric board preparation, we recommend: haemolytic group A streptococcus… NF is quickly developing and tissue palpation is POSITIVE for crepitus. CT demonstrates soft-tissue thickening and enhancement, with fluid collections within the deep fascia.
34
Q

A fib lab monitoring

A

Atrial fibrillation is the most common sustained arrhythmia in the elderly. Serum potassium is associated with ventricular arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Low serum levels of potassium were associated with a higher risk of atrial fibrillation

35
Q

Indication for AKA

A

An ABI below 0.4 is indicative of severe peripheral arterial disease. After a failed midfoot amputation and multiple attempts for revascularization, an AKA would be the most appropriate level of amputation.

36
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Hypercalcemia is not associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited connective disorders that affects blood vessels, skin, and joints. There is no known cure and symptoms commonly include hyper-elastic skin and joints and delayed wound healing.

37
Q

Most abundant form of collagen

A

Type I

38
Q

Type II collagen

A

Found in hyaline cartilage

39
Q

Type III collagen

A

Type III collagen is found in the skin, blood vessels and granulation tissue

40
Q

Type IV collagen

A

Type IV collagen is a type of collagen found primarily in the skin within the basement membrane zone

41
Q

Type I CRPS

A

Unlike CRPS type II, there is no known peripheral nerve injury associated with CRPS type I. “CRPS is an uncommon chronic condition that usually affects the extremities. Type, 1 previously known as regional sympathetic dystrophy, occurs after an illness or injury that did not directly damage the nerves in the affected limb. On the other hand, type 2 follows a distinct nerve injury. CRPS was first described during the civil war when soldiers continued to report excessive pain after wounds had healed.

42
Q

Frost bite

A

Initial symptoms of frostbite generally involve pale colored skin, cold sensitivity and numbness. Upon warming the skin may become to appear mottled, erythematous and fluid-filled blisters. Hyperhidrosis and hair loss are reported long term findings along with patchy skin lesions and distal tuft necrosis.

43
Q

Sulfa containing medications

A

Furosemide
Bactrim
Silvadene

44
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Ewing’s sarcoma most commonly arises from the diaphysis. 30% are overtly metastatic at presentation. People usually experience extreme bone pain.
Demonstrates onion skin appearance
Highly malignant
Occurs frequently in the second and third decade of life

45
Q

3 main stages of wound healing

A

Inflammatory, Proliferative, and Maturation

46
Q

Inflammatory stage of wound healing

A

Inflammatory markers to site of wound

47
Q

Proliferative stage of wound healing

A

Early wound contracture, collagen synthesis, neovascular formation, and re-epithelialization

48
Q

Maturation/remodeling stage of wound healing

A

Maturation/remodeling: the previously synthesized collagen bundles remodel, contracts, and wound increases in tensile through closure.

49
Q

Most malignant form of melanoma

A

Nodular melanoma
In the polypoid variant of NODULAR MELANOMA, melanoma cells accumulate in large volume above the skin’s surface. This increase in tumor volume encourages dislodgment of melanoma cells that are carried to superficial lymphatic vessels without invading the reticular dermis; this feature differentiates polypoid melanoma from the nonpolypoid nodular variant. Polypoid melanoma is considered the most malignant form of melanoma

50
Q

Buerger’s disease

A

Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is a progressive inflammatory and clotting disease of small and medium vessels in both hands and feet. It is directly related to tobacco and smoking and often leads to ischemia and amputation. While immediate smoking cessation may not halt progression, it has been shown to slow the advancement of and minimize the severity of the level of amputation

51
Q

Early versus late radiographic findings of gout

A

Joint space is preserved until the very late, advanced stages of gout. Periarticular erosions, punched out lytic bone lesions, and increased soft tissue density are all commonly seen in earlier stages of gout.

52
Q

Most common form of melanoma

A

Superficial spreading melanoma is the most common form of melanoma. This accounts for approximately 70% of all cases. It is common in young people.

53
Q

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

A

X-linked recessive disorders, such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, occur much more frequently in males. It occurs due to mutations in the HPRT1 gene located on the X chromosome, and is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT). The HGPRT deficiency causes a build-up of large volumes of uric acid.

54
Q

Vancomycin in PCN allergy

A

Gram positive, catalase positive, cocci in clusters signifies staphylococcus (chains = streptococcus). Vancomycin would be the drug of choice for a Gram positive, catalase positive, cocci in clusters for a patient with a PCN or penicillin allergy.

55
Q

Genu valgum in children

A

While genu valgum is often benign, it is often caused by rickets in children. Rickets results in soft, weak bones in children. Symptoms include vitamin D deficiency, inadequate bone mineralization, bone weakening, and bowing in the lower extremities. The primary cause of congenital rickets is vitamin D deficiency.

56
Q

COVID-19

A

Likely a descendant from bat coronavirus
Can result in loss of taste
Severity of disease is associated with age

57
Q

Epoetin alpha (PROCRIT)

A

A male with a hemoglobin level of of 7.6 g/dL would require anemia treatment prior to undergoing midfoot amputation. Epoetin alpha (PROCRIT) is commonly used to treat anemia in those undergoing cancer treatment (chemotherapy and radiation) and chronic kidney disease (but not on dialysis). For those who require dialysis iron should be given with erythropoietin.

58
Q

Gout appearance on microscope

A

Under polarized light and parallel to the axis of the lens, needle-shaped monosodium urate gout crystals display negative birefringence.

59
Q

Test for RA

A

Testing of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (anti-CCP) is commonly used as a marker for the diagnosis and prediction of rheumatoid arthritis (RA).

60
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Kaposi sarcoma is a type of skin cancer that often begins as a purple skin lesion. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8) is found in the lesions of all those affected. Risk factors for Kaposi’s sarcoma include: HIV positive individuals and those with poor immune function.

61
Q

Anaplastic cells are…

A

Malignant
Anaplastic cells describe cancer cells that divide rapidly with minimal resemblance to normal, healthy cells. Malignant neoplasms that are composed of undifferentiated cells are said to be - anaplastic. Benign cells do not invade surrounding tissues. Metaplastic cells transform from one differentiated cell type to another differentiated cell type. They are cells that change from one cell type to another. Neoplastic cells are cells that grow abnormal, excessive, and autonomously. Neoplasias are often caused by genetic mutations. Neoplasias can be benign or malignant.

62
Q

Cephalosporin that covers pseudomonas

A

Cefepime is a broad-spectrum cephalosporin with pseudomonas coverage. Common antibiotics that cover pseudomonas: aminoglycosides (gentamicin, amikacin, tobramycin; not kanamycin) quinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, not moxifloxacin), and cephalosporins (CEFEPIME, and ceftazidime).

63
Q

Characteristics of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Common features of Osteogenesis imperfecta can include blue sclerae of the eyes, bone that easily fractures, short stature, curvature of the spine, joint deformities, hearing loss, respiratory problems, tooth development disorder called dentinogenesis imperfecta.

64
Q

Rosenthal classification

A

The Rosenthal classification describes three zones of injury involving nail bed injuries:
Zone I: distal to the distal phalanx
Zone II, distal to the lunula
Zone III, proximal to distal end of the lunula.

65
Q

Volkman’s contracture

A

Volkmann’s contracture is compartment syndrome of the forearm. Much like the lower leg, symptoms include: 5 P’s of compartment syndrome: pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, and paralysis. Of these, pain is the earliest sign. Pain is expressed with passive extension.

66
Q

Manifestations of sickle cell disease

A

Sickle cell disease is the most common autosomal recessive disorder in African-Americans. Patients are predisposed to infections with capsulated organisms (S pneumoniae&raquo_space; H influenzae type b > N meningitidis) dues to functional asplenia from consecutive splenic infarcts. Cardiac complication due to ischemic events typically happen later in life.

67
Q

Primary versus secondary syphilis

A

A chancre is often the first sign of syphilis. It appears as a sore at the site of inoculation. Alopecia, rash, and fatigue are all common finding of secondary syphilis occurring several weeks following initial inoculation.

68
Q

Part of bone at risk for hematogenous osteomyelitis

A

Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis occurs in children with open growth plates. Blood flow slows as it passes through metaphyseal bones in growing children predisposing that region to infection.

69
Q

Clubfoot deformity

A

Adduction, Varus, Equinus (AVE). Talipes equinovarus (club foot) deformity is characterized by: adduction at the midtarsal joint, cavus and internal tibial torsion, and equinus at the ankle.

70
Q

EKG changes in hyperkalemia

A

As serum K+ levels rise, the qrs complex widens eventually becoming abnormal. Hyperkalemia causes widened qrs complexes and tall T waves. The effect of hyperkalaemia on cardiac rhythm devices.

71
Q

Parkinson’s

A

Muscle rigidity, rhythmic tremors at rest and hypomimia (reduced facial expression) are all characteristics that frequently discovered in those with Parkinson’s disease.

72
Q

Abnormal wounding without obvious etiology

A

A non-healing wound that has failed to respond to routine ulcer therapy is best treated with a punch biopsy and path evaluation. In this case the image represents an individual with malignant melanoma. In cases of non-healing wounds, melanoma must be a consideration.

73
Q

Chronic hemolytic anemia

A

Sickle cell disease causes a chronic hemolytic anemia. An inherited disorder, the sickle-shaped red blood cells cause vaso-occlusion and are prone to hemolysis, leading to severe pain crises, organ ischemia, and other systemic complications.

74
Q

Green skin and nail rash

A

Acute green skin and nail discoloration can be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection of the nail plate and skin. Ciprofloxacin would be the most appropriate antibiotic listed for the safe treatment of this patients bacterial infection.

75
Q

Avoid in malignant hyperthermia

A

Volatile inhaled anesthetics such as halothane, isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane, and ether may trigger malignant hyperthermia .

#1 BOARDS (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions