Perioperative Flashcards

1
Q

14 Please look at these arterial blood gas results: pH 7.30, Pa O2 66mmHg, Pa CO2 26mmHg, base excess - 6.5, lactate 9.4. What is a summary description of these results?

A

This ABG shows metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation. The low PaO2 and high lactate suggect cellular hypoxia and subsequent anaerobic metabolism has occurred

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2
Q

15 Please look at these arterial blood gas results: pH 7.30, arterial blood gas results: pH 7.30, Pa O2 66mmHg, Pa CO2 26mmHg, base excess - 6.5, lactate 9.4. What causes a blood gas profile of this sort?

A

This ABG shows metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation. The low PaO2 and high lactate suggect cellular hypoxia and subsequent anaerobic metabolism has occurred

Causes of metabolic acidosis

1. Increased acid production (increased anion gap) - lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, ingestion (methanol, ethylene glycol, aspirin)

2. Decreased bicarbonate - diarrhoea, ileostomy, proximal renal tubular acidosis, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

3. Decreased renal acid secretion - CKD, renal tubular acidosis

Type A is the most likely cause in this scenario given a high lactate and hypoxaemia

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3
Q

16 What is a deep vein thrombosis?

A

A type of venous thromboembolism involving blood clot formation in the major deep veins of the:

  • lower limb (popliteal, femoral)
  • pelvis (iliac veins)
  • abdomen (IVC)

DVTs typically form just above and behind a venous valve

Most are asymptomatic but can present with: asymmetrical swelling, unilateral leg pain, dilation of superficial veins, red/discoloured skin

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4
Q

17 Why is a DVT important?

A

DVT is important largely due to the complications that can occur if it is left untreated

  1. PE - occurs in 50% of patients with proximal DVT and 5% of patients with distal DVT. The 30 day mortality for an acute massive PE is 50%
  2. Post-thrombotic syndrome - pain, discomfort, swelling, pigmentation, venous ulcers. Due to incompetence of venous valves and subsequent venous stasis
  3. Complications of treatment - bleeding, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, increased hospitalisation and associated risks e.g., pneumonia
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5
Q

18 What are some of the risk factors for hypercoagulability?

A

Inherited

  1. Factor V Leiden mutation (most common)
  2. Protein C deficiency
  3. Protein S deficiency
  4. Antithrombin deficiency
  5. Prothrombin gene mutation G20210A

Acquired

Malignancy, dehydration, sepsis, smoking, recent trauma or surgery, antiphospholipid syndrome, oestrogen (HRT, OCP), polycythemia, pregnancy, obesity, nephrotic syndrome

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6
Q

19 How can the risks of a DVT be reduced in a surgical patient?

A

Pre-operative

Smoking cessation, weight loss, cessation of hormonal therapies, good hydration

Post-operative

Behavioural: good hydration, early ambulation

Mechanical: TEDS, intermittent pneumatic compression

Pharmacological: Enoxaparin 40mg daily, dalteparin 5000 daily, LDUH 5000 tds, fondaparinux 2.5mg daily

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7
Q

20 What is Virchow’s triad?

A

Describes the 3 factors that contribute to venous thrombis formation

  • *1) Endothelial injury** e.g., trauma, surgery, venepuncture, heart valve disease or replacement, atherosclerosis, indwelling catheters
  • *2) Venous stasis** e.g., AF, immbolity, varicose veins, venous insufficiency, obstruction (pregnancy, tumour, obesity)
  • *3) Hypercoagulability** (inherited or acquired)
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8
Q

21 You are the general surgery resident on call. You are asked to review a 70 year old man who is 72 hours post elective, uncomplicated colonic surgery. He has developed an acute confusion having been well and behaving normally since surgery. What are you going to do?

A

This patient most likely has post-operative delirium, defined as an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention and/or awareness with additional disturbances in cognition, representing a change from baseline.

We need to establish delirium as the diagnosis, then investigate for a cause and manage accordingly.

1. Is this patient delirious?

Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
1 + 2 + 3/4 required for diagnosis
1) Altered mental status (change from baseline) or fluctuating course (on/off or changing severity)
2) Inattention (easily distratced or difficulty following what is said) - serial 7s, “WORLD” backwards, months backwards
3) Altered level of consciousness (alert/vigilant to lethargic/stupor/coma) - Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale
4) Disorganised thinking (unclear/illogical flow of ideas, unpredictable switching between subjects)

2. Cause/investigations

Disorientation from rapid changes in environment
Dehydration - skin turgur, mucous membranes etc. haematocrit
Hyponatremia - nausea, vomiting, headache, seizures, muscle cramps, UECs
Glucose abnormalities - fingerprick, polydipsia, tremor, anxiety, tachycardia, hunger
Drugs/toxins (benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, withdrawal) - history
CNS lesion - neurological examination
Infection, especially UTI and pneumonia - urine MCS, CXR, dysuria, cough, dyspnoea

3. Management
Reverse causes
Aids to help orientation - stay in the one location, photos from home, regular nurses, clocks, calendars

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9
Q

22 You are the general surgery resident on call. You are asked to review a 70 year old man who is 72 hours post elective, uncomplicated colonic surgery. He has developed a fever of 38.2 degrees C, having had no fever recorded since surgery. What are you going to do?

A

Fever is common in the first few days following major surgery and is most commonly caused by inflammation from surgery and resolves. However, fever developing or persisting beyond 48 hours post-op warrants investigation

The 5 Ws of Post-Op Fever
• Wind (24-48 hours) - i.e. chest infection
- Predisposition - instrumentation of airway during GA ⇒ air stasis, inadequate pain relief ⇒ air stasis
• Water (3-5 days) - i.e. UTI
- Especially if urinary catheter in place
• Walking (4-6 days) - i.e. VTE
- Due to stress response of surgery or immobilisation
- Should have prevention (low-molecular weight heparin) and stockings
• Wound (5-7 days) - i.e. SSI
- If considering, think about an intra-abdominal or intra-thoracic collection
• What have we done? - i.e. iatrogenic causes
- Medication reactions
- Cannula site infections
- Blood transfusion reactions

Clinical assessment would be focused on determining which of the 5 Ws is responsible
1) Initial assessment
- Observations - BP, HR, RR, O2 sats, temperature, GCS
- Systems-based assessment for cause
→ Wind: pleuritic chest pain, productive cough
→ Water: catheterised, frequency, urgency, dysuria
→ Walking: pressure sores, calf pain, leg swelling
→ Wound: change in pain around site, dry/healthy vs. red/pus/hot
→ Wonder: cannula site assessment, medication allergies
- DECIDE: is the person septic? (2+ SIRS + source of infection + associated organ dysfunction)
2) Review notes for:
- Post-op notes - what procedure? Any intra-operative complications?
- Co-morbid conditions
- Current reported clinical issues
3) Review chart for:
- Antibiotics
- VTE prophylaxis
- C. difficile infection risk

Investigations/management
• Suspicion-specific investigation
- Wind = sputum, CXR
- Water = urine dipstick/MCS
- Walking = coagulation studies, USS
- Wound = swab
- Wonder = line sample, culture of line tip
• Sepsis 6
- Give 3 - high flow O2, broad-spectrum antibiotics, fluid challenge
- Take 3 - blood cultures x 2, lactate (via ABG) and other bloods (FBC, CRP/ESR, UEC, LFT), monitor urine output
• Other supportive medication (e.g. analgesia, anti-emetic)
• VTE prophylaxis correction (if inadequate)
• Escalation - notify registrar

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10
Q

23 You are the general surgery resident on call. You are asked to review a 70 year old man who is 12 hours post elective, uncomplicated colonic surgery. He has developed an acute episode of hypotension, which has persisted for 10 minutes. What are you going to do?

A
  • *Confirm hypotension and assess severity**
  • Compare with previous
  • HNE Health: <100 is yellow, <90 is red (but review chart for change in calling criteria) - MET call (7700) if red
  • *Primary survery** - assess whether shocked or septic
  • Assess alertness and orientation - assume shock if unresponsive and hypotensive
  • Brief history concurrent with ABC resuscitation (2x large-bore IVC), supportive care (supplemental O2), temperature measurement
  • Assessment of organ perfusion - tachycardia, altered cognition or reduced LOC, diaphoresis, and oliguria are all suggestive of shock, serum lactate

Assess for aetiology
Most common causes: pain, anxiety, hypercapnia, hypoxiam bladder distention

Hypovolemia - iatrogenic, haemorrhagic

Decreased cardiac output - MI, dysarrhythmia, hypoxia, pneumothorax, PE, cardiac tamponade

Decreased peripheral resistance - sepsis, anaphylaxis, morphine

  • *Investigations**
  • Bedside: pulse oximetry, ECG, ABG
  • Bloods: FBC, UEC, LFTs, coags, BSL, TSH, group and hold
  • Targeted: D-dimer, serum troponin, FAST scan

Management
Consult senior staff
Haemorrhage - transfusion, fix cause if possible
PE - anticoagulate/tPA
MI - PCI/thrombolysis
Anaphylaxis - adrenaline
Septic - culture and Abx

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11
Q

24 You are the general surgery resident on call. You are asked to review a 70 year old man who is 24 hours post elective, uncomplicated colonic surgery. His urine output has dropped from an average of 60mL/hr in the first 24 hours to 20mL/hr in the last 2 hours. What are you going to do?

A

Oliguria is output <0.5mL/kg/hr. Therefore, this patient is oliguric.

Low urinary output is a common postoperative problem. The most common cause is urinary retention, particularly in males. It is readily diagnosed if there is a palpable suprapubic mass which is dull to percuss. A diagnosis can be confirmed by an US or by passing a urinary catheter.
More sinister causes include hypovolemia, cardiac failure, MI, urethral injury and sepsis
Catheter dysfunction may also be the cause

Initial actions

1) ABCDE, assessing for shock
1) Does the patient need to pee? If yes, drain bladder for rentention
2) Assess the level of renal failure - zero output or some output?

Zero output = post-renal obstruction = reposition patient, check Foley catheter function)

3) If some output, give fluid challenge

Improvement = dehydration = optimise hydration, consider central venous line for CVP monitoring)
No improvement = intrinsic renal cause = call for nephro consult

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12
Q

25 What are the symptoms and signs of a PE?

A

Symptoms: dyspnoea, chest pain (worse with inspiration), cough, haemoptysis

Signs: tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension, elevated JVP (uncommon)

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13
Q

26 How is a PE diagnosed?

A

If haemodynamically unstable
Bedside echocardiography or venous compression ultrasound to justify the administration of potentially life-saving therapies

If haemodynamically stable

Combine a clinical and pretest probability assessment (e.g., Well’s score) with D-dimer testing and definitive diagnostic imaging (e.g., CTPA, V/Q scan)

Wells score > 4 - immediate UF followed by CTPA

Wells score 4 or less
If poitive D dimer - CTPA
If negative D dimer - PE unlikely

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14
Q

27 How is a PE treated?

A

1) Correct any haemodynamic instability (resuscitate)
2) Transthoracic echo (if still unstable)
3) Anticoagulation (unless contraindicated)
4) Thrombolysis
5) Surgical or catheter embolectomy

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15
Q

28 What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

Obstruction of the pulmonary artery or one of its branches by material (thrombus, fat, tumour, air) that originated elsewhere in the body

Massive PE is that which causes haemodynamic compromise or where >30% of the pulmonary vasculature is compromised

Can be further defined by:

  • Presentation: acute, subacute (days/weeks), chronic (months/years)
  • Stable/unstable haemodynamics
  • Anatomy: saddle, lobar, segmental
  • Symptomatic/asymptomatic

Clinical presentation: dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnoea, haemoptysis, signs of DVT

Assess likelihood with Wells criteria - used as guide for whether D-dimer is warranted (only in low likelihood to rule out PE)

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16
Q

29 What are the factors that increase the risk of formation of a deep vein thrombosis?

A
  1. Venous stasis
  2. Hypercoagulability
  3. Vascular damage
17
Q

30 What are the important contraindications for a patient to have an epidural catheter placed for analgesia?

A
18
Q

31 What are the common or important complications and side effects of an epidural anaesthetic?

A

Common
Hypotension (5-10%)
Post-dural puncture headache
incomplete blockade or hemi-blockade
Back pain
Urinary retention

Important

Local anaesthetic toxicity
High block with ascending sensory/motor block
Epidural abscess
Nerve injury

19
Q

32 What is the treatment of hypotension that is occurring in a patient who has an epidural anaesthetic in place? The patient is 12 hours post laparotomy at which a left hemicolectomy was done?

A

Consider cause: hyppvolemia, cardigenic, obstructive, distributive

ABCDE assessment

Epidural = sympathetic blockade → vasodilation

Options:

  1. Stop or reduce epidural anaesthetic infusion
  2. Call for assistance and notify anaesthetist
  3. (ICU setting only) Vasopressors

Prevention:
IV fluid bolus at the time of epidural placement

20
Q

33 What, chemically, is in a 1L bag of ‘Normal saline’? What is the average daily sodium requirement for a 70kg man?

A

0.9% NaCl - 9g of NaCl dissolved in 1000mL of water

Na+ - 150 mmol

Cl- - 150 mmol

Water - 1000 mL

Osmolarity - 300

Average daily intake is 1-2 mmol/kg/day, therefore his requirements are 70-140 mmol/day

21
Q

34 What is the adult daily sodium requirement? What is the daily potassium requirement?

A

Sodium: 1-2 mmol/kg/day

PotassiumL 0.5-1 mmol/kg/day

22
Q

35 What is the adult daily potassium requirement? How do you usually prescribe this for IV infusion?

A

0.5-1 m mol/kg

+ 10 mmol in 10 mL of NaCl is available

23
Q

36 What is the adult water volume requirement per day? How would you prescribe this in IV fluid orders to someone who is nil by mouth?

A

25-30 mL/kg/day = 1500-2500 mL/day

(NICE guidelin**es)

0-10kg 4mls/kg/hr (1000mL/24 hours)
10-20kg 2mls/kg/hr above (500mL/24 hours)
20+kg 1 ml/kg/hr

24
Q

37 Please write out a fluid prescripiton for 24 hours “maintenance” fluids for a patient who weighs 80kg, has no unusual insensible or measurable losses

A

4-2-1 Rule for hourly fluid requirements:

  • 4ml/hr x first 10kg
  • 2ml/hr x second 10kg
  • 1ml/hr x every kg after
25
Q

38 What, chemically, is in a 1L bag of “Hartmanns” solution?

A

Water 1L
Na+ 131 m mol
Cl- 111 m mol
K+ 5 m mol
Ca2+ 2 m mol
Lactate 29 m mol

26
Q

39 What, chemically, is in a 1L bag of 1/5 Saline, 4% dextrose?

A

Water 1L
Na+ 30 m mol
Cl- 30 m mol
40g dextrose (glucose)

27
Q

40 What are the common or important immunological complications of a blood transfusion?

A
  • *Common**
  • *1) Febrile non-haemolytic reactions (FNHTRs)**
  • Cytokines generated and accumulated during storage of blood components (IL-, TNF-a)
  • Benign, no lasting sequelae; fever
  • *2) Minor urticarial reactions**
  • IgE-mediated immune reaction to allergen in transfused product

Important

  • *1) Acute haemolytic reactions (AHTRs)**
  • Major ABO incompatibility (human error) → erythrocyte destruction
  • Acute medical emergency: rapid fever/chills, flank/loin pain, haemoglobinuria
  • *2) Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)**
  • Transfusion of plasma containing product → donor antibodies in plasma react with recipient’s leukocytes
  • Rapid onset SOB, hypoxaemia, cough, pulmonary infiltrates
  • *3) Delayed haemolytic reactions (DHTRs)**
  • Secondary response to antigen exposure (usually from Kidd or Rh system)
  • Typically occurs 3-30 days post-transfusion: falling haematocrit and mild fever (gradual, less severe reactions)
  • *4) Post-transfusion purpura**
  • Transfusion of platelet-containing products → platelet-specific alloantibodies formed during pregnancy or previous transfusion (alloimmunisation occurs in 1 in 100 to 1 in 10)
  • Potentially fatal: 5-10 days post-transfusion clinically significant bleeding and thrombocytopenia
  • *5) Transfusion-associated graft vs host disease (Ta-GvHD)**
  • Reaction of donor lymphocytes against recipient cells
  • 4-30 days post-transfusion fever, rash → generalise erythroderma, N/V, abdominal pain, other vague symptoms
28
Q

41 What are the common or important non-immunological complications of a blood transfusion?

A

Acute (<24hrs):

1) Complications of massive transfusion
- Metabolic: hyper/hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis
- Hypothermia
- Citrate toxicity (mixed with blood products to chelate Ca2+ and prevent clotting) → hypocalcaemia

2) Non-immune mediated haemolysis
- Typically thermal - damage to blood products by inappropriate freezing, storage, or thawing

3) Transfusion transmitted bacterial infection
- From donor, contamination during blood prep/storage, cannulation site
- More likely when donor has a chronic latent carrier-state infection

4) Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
- Pulmonary oedema secondary to congestive failure
- Presentation of acute cardiac failure: SOB, orthopnoea, tachycardia, hypertension

Delayed (>24hrs):

1) Iron overload requiring chelation therapy OR with organ dysfunction
- Aka haemosiderosis
- May occur in chronically transfused patients (e.g. sickle cell, thalassemia) when reticuloendothelial iron storage sites are saturated → deposition in organs

29
Q

202 You are the general surgery resident on call, you are asked to review a 35 year old man who is 36 hours after an open right hemicolectomy for a Crohns stricture. The nursing staff have measured his oxygen saturations as 87% on 2L oxygen delivered by nasal prongs. What is the significance of this reading?

A

Normal pulse oximetry is 95% or higher in RA, and under 90% is considered low

Given this patient is also on supplemental oxygen (which should elevate oxygen saturation), this indicates the patient is not adequately oxygenating his blood and is hypoxaemic.

His baseline needs to be considered

Causes of hypoxaemia can be considered by mechanism:

1) Hypoventilation (reduced air reaching respiratory surfaces)
- CNS depression due to drugs e.g., morphine or a lesion
- Anaphylaxis

2) V/Q mismatch (blood flow to areas of low ventilation, and vice-versa)
- COPD
- Pulmonary vascular disease
- Interstitial lung disease
- PE

3) Right-to-left shunt
- Anatomic shunts: AVM, hepatopulmonary syndrome
- Physiologic shunts: atelectasis, pneumonia, ARDS (causing non-ventilated alveoli to be perfused)

4) Diffusion limitation (impaired movement of O2 across respiratory epithelium)
- Fibrosis
- Interstitial lung disease

5) Reduced FiO2

30
Q

203 You are the general surgery resident on call, you are asked to review a 35 year old man who is 36 hours after an open right hemicolectomy for a Crohns stricture. The nursing staff have measured his oxygen saturations as 87% on 2L oxygen delivered by nasal prongs, and his resiratory rate is 30. What are the common causes of this situation?

A
  • Atelectasis
  • Pneumonia
  • Bronchospasm
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Bronchospasm
  • Chemical pneumonitis (aspiration of acidic gastric contents)