Performance and Excuse for Nonperformance Flashcards

1
Q

What is a party’s basic duty at common law regarding performance?

A

To substantially perform all that is called for in the contract

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2
Q

What is a party’s basic duty under the UCC regarding performance?

A

Perfect tender: the delivery and condition of the goods must be exactly as promised in the contract

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3
Q

What is “good faith” for purposes of the UCC?

A

Good faith is honest in fact and the observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing. The UCC requires all parties to act in good faith, and this obligation cannot be waived.

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4
Q

What are a seller’s obligations regarding tender of delivery?

A

(1) The seller must put and hold conforming goods at the buyer’s disposition for a time sufficient for the buyer to take possession.
(2) The seller must give the buyer notice reasonably necessary to enable the buyer to take possession of the goods.
(3) The tender must be at a reasonable hour.

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5
Q

What are a seller’s obligations regarding place of delivery?

A

In the absence of an agreement otherwise, the place of delivery generally is the seller’s place of business, or if he has none, his residence.

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6
Q

When is payment due in a noncarrier case? In a carrier case?

A

In a noncarrier case, payment is due upon tender of delivery.

In a carrier case, if the contract is a shipment contract, payment is due once all the seller’s delivery obligations are met (i.e., when delivered to the carrier). If the contract is a destination contract, payment is due when the goods reach the named destination.

NOTE: Payment is presumed to be due in cash unless otherwise indicated.

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7
Q

What is an installment contract? When is payment due in an installment contract?

A

An installment contract is one that requires or authorizes delivery in separate installments.

The seller may demand payment for each installment if the price can be so apportioned, unless a contrary intent appears.

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8
Q

Explain the buyer’s right of inspection.

A

The buyer has a right to inspect the goods before they pay unless the contract provides for payment C.O.D. (cash on delivery) or otherwise indicates that the buyer has promised to pay without inspecting the goods.

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9
Q

What are the effects on the duty to pay if payment is made by check?

A

If a check is given, the buyer’s duty to pay is suspended until the check is either paid or dishonored (bounces). If the check is paid, the buyer’s duty to pay is discharged. If the check bounces, the seller may sue for the price or recover the goods.

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10
Q

If payment by check is offered, but the seller rejects such payment and demands cash, what, if anything, are the seller’s obligations?

A

The seller must give the buyer time to get cash

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11
Q

If a contract provides that a party does not have a duty to perform unless some condition is fulfilled, the party’s failure to perform is _______ if the condition was not fulfilled

A

justified

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12
Q

What is a “promise”? What effect in the event of failure to perform a promise?

A

A promise is a commitment to do or refrain from doing something. If a promise is unconditional (i.e., absolute), the failure to perform according to its terms is a breach of contract.

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13
Q

What is a “condition”? What effect in the failure to perform when conditions are present?

A

“Condition” normally means either:
(1) An event or state of the world that must occur or fail to occur before a party has a duty to perform; OR

(2) An event or state of the world, the occurrence or nonoccurrence of which releases a party from their duty to perform.

There can be no breach of promise until the promisor is under an immediate duty to perform.

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14
Q

True or false: The failure of a contractual provision that is only a condition is not a breach of contract.

A

True

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15
Q

True or false: The failure of a contractual provision discharges the liability of the promisor whose obligations on the conditional promise never mature.

A

True

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16
Q

What determines the interpretation of a provision as a promise or condition?

A

The intent of the parties

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17
Q

In doubtful situations, most courts will hold that a provision that is ambiguous as to whether it is a promise or a condition is _______.

A

a promise

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18
Q

What is an express condition?

A

An express condition is an explicit contractual provision providing that either:
(1) A party does not have a duty to perform unless some event occurs or fails to occur; OR

(2) If some event occurs or fails to occur, the obligation of a party to perform one or more of his duties under the contract is suspended or terminated.

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19
Q

In a contract involving mechanical fitness, utility, or marketability where a party’s payment is contingent upon the party’s satisfaction, what standard is used to determine the party’s satisfaction?

A

Objective - “reasonable person”

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20
Q

In a contract involving personal taste or personal judgment where a party’s payment is contingent upon the party’s satisfaction, what standard is used to determine the party’s satisfaction?

A

Subjective - personal satisfaction

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21
Q

True or false: In a contract involving personal taste or personal judgment where a party’s payment is contingent upon the party’s satisfaction, the party may claim they are dissatisfied for any reason and avoid their duty to pay.

A

False. The party’s lack of satisfaction must be honest and in good faith.

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22
Q

When the satisfaction of a third party is a condition, what standard applies?

A

Subjective - actual personal satisfaction of the third party

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23
Q

When it is clear that the purpose of a condition is to protect or benefit only one of the parties, the other party’s duty [will / will not] be subject to the condition.

A

will not

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24
Q

What is a condition precedent?

A

One that must occur BEFORE an absolute duty of immediate performance arises in the other party

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25
Q

What are conditions concurrent?

A

Those that are capable of occurring TOGETHER, and that the parties are bound to perform at the same time. In effect, each is a condition “precedent” to the other.

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26
Q

What is a condition subsequent?

A

One that, when it occurs, CUTS OFF an already existing absolute duty of performance

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27
Q

True or false: Express conditions need not be perfectly satisfied to trigger an obligation under the contract.

A

False

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28
Q

A duty of immediate performance with respect to a conditional promise does not become absolute until the conditions have been: (2 things)

A

(1) performed, OR

(2) legally excused

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29
Q

What are constructive conditions?

A

Constructive conditions are those which are not expressly provided in the contract but that courts will consider implied in the contract

30
Q

What is a constructive condition of performance?

A

The duty of each party to render performance is conditioned on the other party either rendering their performance or making a tender of their performance

31
Q

What is a constructive condition of cooperation and notice?

A

The obligation of one party to render performance is impliedly conditioned on the other party’s cooperation in that performance.

It is also often a condition to one party’s performance that the other party give notice that performance is due. This is most commonly applied when a party cannot be reasonably expected to know a fact that triggered the duty to perform (e.g., need for repair).

32
Q

For purposes of constructive conditions, if both performances can be rendered at the same time, they are constructively _______.

A

concurrent

33
Q

For purposes of constructive conditions, if one performance will take a period of time to complete while the other can be rendered in an instant, completion of the longer performance is a constructive _______ to execution of the shorter performance.

A

condition precedent

34
Q

If a contract is not enforceable due to the failure or occurrence of a condition, and one of the parties has fully or partially performed, they can usually recover under _______ theories.

A

unjust enrichment

35
Q

If a party having a duty of performance that is subject to a condition (i.e., the party protected by the condition) wrongfully prevents the condition from occurring, the condition will be _______.

A

excused by hindrance or failure to cooperate.

36
Q

May a condition be waived? How?

A

Yes. A party with the benefit of a condition under a contract may indicate by words or conduct that they will not insist on that condition being met. Consideration is not required, and the party is estopped from denying the waiver.

37
Q

What is the legal effect of estoppel waiver?

A

Whenever a party indicates they are waiving a condition before it is to happen, or they are waiving some performance before it is to be rendered, and the person addressed detrimentally relies on the waiver, courts will hold this to be a binding waiver.

Note: The promise to waive a condition may be retracted at any time before the other party has changed their position to their detriment.

38
Q

When a condition doesn’t occur or a duty of performance is broken, what must the beneficiary of the condition or duty do? What legal effect?

A

(1) Terminate their liability, OR
(2) Continue under the contract.

If they choose to terminate liability (1), they are no longer liable under the contract for any duty that would have arisen had the condition been met or had the performance not been broken.

If they choose to continue (2), they will be deemed to have waived the condition or duty (election waiver).

Note: an election waiver CANNOT be withdrawn, even if the other party has not relied on it.

39
Q

What kinds of conditions may be waived if no consideration is given for the waiver?

A

Any condition that is ancillary or collateral to the main subject and purpose of the contract.

Waiver of a material condition (i.e., related to the main subject and purpose of the contract) requires consideration, since it is a material change to the contract’s terms.

40
Q

In an installment contract, if a waiver isn’t supported by consideration, the beneficiary of the waived condition can:

A

(1) Insist on strict compliance with the terms of the contract for future installments (absent detrimental reliance) by
(2) giving notice that he is revoking the waiver.

41
Q

Waiver severs only the right to treat the failure of a condition as a _______ excusing counterperformance. The waiving party does not thereby waive her right to _______.

A

(1) total breach

(2) damages

42
Q

The duty of counterperformance will be excused due to breach at common law only if _______.

A

the breach is material

43
Q

Anticipatory repudiation occurs if:

A

A promisor, prior to the time set for performance of their promise, indicates that they won’t perform when the time comes.

44
Q

Anticipatory repudiation will serve to excuse conditions if: (2 things)

A

(1) There is a bilateral contract with executory (unperformed) duties on both sides; AND
(2) The repudiation is unequivocal (i.e. stems from words or conduct of the promisor leaving no doubt that the promisor cannot or will not perform)

45
Q

In the case of an anticipatory repudiation, the nonrepudiating party has 4 options:

A

(1) Treat the anticipatory repudiation as a total repudiation and sue immediately
(2) Suspend their own performance and wait to sue until the performance date
(3) Treat the repudiation as an offer to rescind and treat the contract as discharged
(4) Ignore the repudiation and urge the promisor to perform (urging the promisor to perform prevents waiver from attaching, so they may still sue for breach and are excused from performing until the promisor retracts the repudiation or actually breaches)

46
Q

A repudiating party may withdraw their repudiation at any time before their next performance is due, unless the other party has:

A

(1) Canceled,
(2) Materially changed their position in reliance on the repudiation, or
(3) Otherwise indicated that they consider the repudiation final

47
Q

Prospective failure of a condition occurs when a party has _______.

A

reasonable grounds to believe that the other party will be unable or unwilling to perform when performance is due

48
Q

Prospective inability or unwillingness to perform is not an anticipatory repudiation because such a repudiation must be _______, whereas prospective failure to perform involves _______.

A

(1) equivocal

(2) words or conduct that merely raise doubts that the party will perform

49
Q

What is the legal effect of prospective failure?

A

It allows the innocent party to suspend further performance on their side until they receive adequate assurances that performance will be forthcoming.

50
Q

In the event of prospective failure, if the party who owes performance fails to provide adequate assurances to the innocent party, the innocent party may:

A

(1) Be excused from their own performance, AND

(2) Treat the failure to provide assurances as a repudiation

51
Q

Three tests must be concurrently satisfied to make a contract divisible:

A

(1) The performance of each party is divided into two or more parts under the contract
(2) The number of parts due from each party is the same
(3) The performance of each part by one party is agreed on as the equivalent of the corresponding part from the other party

52
Q

What is rescission?

A

Rescission serves to discharge contractual duties

53
Q

What is mutual rescission?

A

An express agreement between the parties to discharge contractual obligations between them.

54
Q

For a contract to be effectively discharged by rescission, at least some of the duties must be _______ on both sides.

A

executory (unperformed)

55
Q

Under common law, may a rescission agreement be made orally if the contract to be rescinded expressly requires a written document for rescission?

A

Yes, unless the subject matter of the contract to be rescinded:
(1) Falls within the Statute of Frauds, OR

(2) Is for the sale of goods (under the UCC, rescission agreements must be in writing if the contract to be rescinded requires it)

56
Q

If the rights of third-party beneficiaries have already vested, the contract [may / may not] be discharged by mutual rescission.

A

may not

57
Q

What is unilateral rescission?

A

Unilateral rescission results when one of the parties to the contract desires to rescind it, but the other party desires that the contract be performed according to its terms.

58
Q

For unilateral rescission to be granted, the party desiring rescission must have adequate legal grounds, such as:

A

(1) Mistake
(2) Misrepresentation
(3) Duress
(4) Failure of consideration

59
Q

What is an accord and satisfaction?

A

An accord is an agreement in which one party to an existing contract agrees to accept, in lieu of the performance that they are supposed to receive from the other party, some other, different future performance.

The accord, taken alone, does not discharge the prior contract; it merely suspends the right to enforce it in accordance with the terms of the accord contract.

Satisfaction is the performance of the accord agreement. Its effect is to discharge not only the original contract but also the accord contract.

60
Q

What is a novation? What is a novation’s legal effect?

A

A novation occurs when a new contract substitutes a new party to receive benefits and assume duties that had originally belonged to one of the original parties under the terms of the old contract.

A novation will serve to discharge the old contract.

61
Q

The elements for a valid novation are:

A

(1) A previous valid contract;
(2) An agreement among all parties, including the new party (or parties) to the new contract;
(3) The immediate extinguishment of contractual duties as between the original contracting parties; AND
(4) A valid and enforceable new contract

62
Q

Under what circumstances will a contract be discharged due to impossibility, impracticability, or frustration?

A

If the occurrence of an unanticipated or extraordinary event makes contractual duties impossible or impractical to perform or frustrates the purpose of the contract.

Duties under the contract will only be discharged if:
(1) The nonoccurrence of the event was a basic assumption of the parties in making the contract; AND

(2) Neither party has expressly or impliedly assumed the risk of the event occurring

63
Q

What are the characteristics of impossibility sufficient to discharge a contract?

A

(1) The impossibility must be “objective” (i.e., the duties could not be performed by ANYONE, not just the promisor)
(2) The impossibility must arise AFTER the contract has been entered into

64
Q

What is the legal effect of discharge due to impossibility?

A

Each party is excused from duties arising under the contract that are yet to be fulfilled. Either party may sue for rescission and receive restitution of any goods delivered, payments made, etc.

65
Q

Explain the following specific situations in the context of discharging a contract:

(1) Death or physical incapacity of a party
(2) Supervening illegality
(3) Subsequent destruction of contract’s subject matter or means of performance

A

(1) Death or the physical incapacity of a person necessary to effectuate the contract serves to discharge it.
(2) If performance of some aspect of the contract becomes illegal after the contract is formed, the contract will be discharged due to impossibility.
(3) If the contract’s subject matter is destroyed or the designated means for performing the contract are destroyed, contractual obligations will be discharged.

66
Q

True or false: A contractor’s duty to construct a building is discharged by destruction of the work in progress. Explain.

A

False. Construction is not rendered impossible; the contractor can still rebuild. However, if the destruction was not caused by the contractor, most courts will excuse the contractor from meeting the original deadline.

67
Q

What is the test for impracticability?

A

The party to perform has encountered:
(1) Extreme and unreasonable difficulty and/or expense, and

(2) Its nonoccurrence was a basic assumption of the parties

68
Q

A contract will be held frustrated if:

A

The purpose of the contract has become valueless by virtue of some supervening event that is not the fault of the party seeking discharge

69
Q

The elements of frustration are:

A

(1) There is some supervening act or event leading to the frustration
(2) At the time of entering the contract, the parties did not reasonably foresee the act or event occurring
(3) The purpose of the contract has been completely or almost completely destroyed by this act or event
(4) The purpose of the contract was realized by BOTH PARTIES at the time of making the contract

70
Q

A seller of land, goods, or services will raise _______ or _______ as a defense that discharges performance.

The party who is supposed to pay (usually the buyer) will raise _______ as a defense discharging performance.

A

(1) impossibility or impracticability

(2) frustration of purpose