PERFORMANCE

Question 1

V1 is the speed at which it must be possible:

A) to stop an aeroplane on the remaining runway plus clearway
B) to take-off and attain the V2 climb speed at 35 feet above the runway surface
C) to apply full braking and whatever lift dump devices, bring the aeroplane to a full stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 400 feet AGL
D) to abort the take-off and bring the aeroplane to a stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 35 feet above the departure end of the runway

Answer 1

D) to abort the take-off and bring the aeroplane to a stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 35 feet above the departure end of the runway

Question 2

Which of the following would cause V1 speed to increase?

A) An increase in gross take-off weight
B) Reverse thrust capability
C) Snow or slush on the runway
D) An increase in tailwind component

Answer 2

A) An increase in gross take-off weight

Question 3

The symbol Vsi represents:

A) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable
B) that speed above which shock-induced buffet will cause airflow separation to occur
C) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration
D) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration

Answer 3

D) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration

Question 4

The definitions for Vr, V3, Vb would be respectively:

A) rotation speed, flap retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed
B) rotation speed, gear retraction speed, and rough air speed
C) rough air speed, critical engine failure speed and maneuvering speed
D) rotation speed, gear retraction speed, and maximum gust intensity speed

Answer 4

A) rotation speed, flap retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed

Question 5

Which of the following “V” speeds represents the maximum speed at which full deflection of the primary flight controls will not cause overstressing of the aircraft?

A) Vr
B) Va
C) Vref
D) Vmc

Answer 5

B) Va

Question 6

Vmca Air minimum control speed is defined as the lowest calibrated airspeed at which control of an aircraft can be maintained following the failure of the critical engine with the remaining engine(s) operating at take off power. Vmca is determined at gross weight with the C of G at the aft limit, the flaps in take-off position, the __________and the.

A) landing gear extended, propeller windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed
B) landing gear extended, propeller feathered if an auto feathering system is installed
C) landing gear retracted, propeller windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed
D) landing gear retracted, aircraft banked a maximum of 5° towards the inoperative engine

Answer 6

C) landing gear retracted, propeller windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed

Question 7

Which of the symbols represents the take-off safety speed of a multi-engine aeroplane?

A) Vx
B) V2
C) Vs
D) V1

Answer 7

B) V2

Question 8

A referenced airspeed obtained after the airplane lifts off and at which the required on-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved is designated as:

A) Venr
B) Vmca
C) V2
D) Vref

Answer 8

C) V2

Question 9

Which of the following take-off and landing distances published in the Canada Air Pilot aerodrome charts includes the length of the clearway?

A) LDA (Landing distance available)
B) TORA (Take-off run available)
C) ASDA (Accelerate-stop distance available)
D) TODA (Take-off distance available)

Answer 9

D) TODA (Take-off distance available)

Question 10

A runway is 8800 ft in length. It has a published clearway of 1000ft and also includes a stopway of 1500ft. Therefore TORA and TODA would be respectively;

A) 8800ft and 9800ft
B) 8800ft and 10800ft
C) 10300ft and 9800ft
D) 10300ft and 10800ft

Answer 10

A) 8800ft and 9800ft

Question 11

The computed landing approach speed is:

A) Venr
B) Vlo
C) Vra
D) Vref

Answer 11

D) Vref

Question 12

A Critical field length or Balanced field length means the length of runway:

A) required to accommodate the take-off of a heavy aircraft when the runway maximum weight-bearing capacity is reached
B) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to computed rotation speed (Vr), experience an engine failure and to come to a complete stop on the runway remaining
C) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure and to either continue the take-off or reject it
D) required to stop an aircraft following the failure of its critical engine at its take-off safety speed

Answer 12

C) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure and to either continue the take-off or reject it

Question 13

The 3 takeoff distances that must be calculated prior to departure are:

A) 115% All engines takeoff, accelerate stop and 1 engine out takeoff distance
B) 115% All engines takeoff, accelerate stop and accelerate go distance
C) 3 takeoff distances are only required if the accelerate go distance exceeds runway length
D) 115% All engines takeoff, accelerate go and 1 engine out climb distance

Answer 13

A) 115% All engines takeoff, accelerate stop and 1 engine out takeoff distance

Question 14

A slush covered runway will have what effect on V1 and Vr speeds?

A) V1 will increase while Vr will decrease, however Vr must never be below V1
B) V1 will decrease and Vr will decrease
C) V1 will decrease and Vr will remain the same
D) V1 will decrease and Vr will increase

Answer 14

C) V1 will decrease and Vr will remain the same

Question 15

An upslope runway will have what effect of V1 and Vr speeds?

A) V1 will increase and Vr will remain the same, however V1 must never exceed Vr
B) V1 will decrease and Vr will decrease
C) V1 will decrease and Vr will remain the same
D) V1 will decrease and Vr will increase

Answer 15

A) V1 will increase and Vr will remain the same, however V1 must never exceed Vr

Question 16

The take-off second segment climb gradient for a large two-engine turbine-powered aircraft starts at the time the landing gear is fully retracted and continues until the airplane reaches an altitude, above the runway, of at least 400ft or a specified level off height. The aircraft must maintain a climb gradient of ___ in this climb segment.

A) 1.2%
B) 2.4%
C) 2.7%
D) 3.0%

Answer 16

B) 2.4%

Question 17

The take-off final segment climb gradient for turbo-prop aircraft such as the Dash 8 ends when the airplane reaches the final take-off flight path point at 1500ft. The airplane must be at a speed 38% above the stall maintaining a climb gradient of 12 feet vertically for every 1000 ft horizontally, while using:

A) max continuous power, with the gear up and flaps retracted
B) max continuous power or take-off power, with gear up and flaps at take-off setting
C) take-off power, with the gear up and flaps retracted
D) take-off power, with the gear down and flaps at take-off setting

Answer 17

A) max continuous power, with the gear up and flaps retracted

Question 18

In determining whether an airplane can be dispatched or a take-off conducted, not more than ___% of the reported headwind component or not less than ___% of the reported tailwind component, has to be taken into account.

A) 60,70
B) 30,40
C) 50,100
D) 50,150

Answer 18

D) 50,150

Question 19

CRFI readings are included in runway surface condition reports when runways are contaminated with…

A) rain, ice, slush or wet snow
B) ice and snow, slush or wet snow
C) rain, ice, packed snow or slush
D) mist, rain, ice, slush or packed snow

Answer 19

B) ice and snow, slush or wet snow

Question 20

If the aircraft’s CG was 179’ AFT of Datum and the MAC is from 160” to 240” AFT of Datum, what would be the CF in terms of %MAC?

A) 17%
B) 24%
C) 27%
D) 31%

Answer 20

B) 24%