Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs)

Question 1

A 41-year old airline transport pilot can maintain a Category 1 Medical Certificate by having:

A) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.
B) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram every 5 years.
C) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram as clinically indicated.
D) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.

Answer 1

D) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.

Question 2

A 43-year old pilot flying single-pilot VFR in a commercial operation can maintain a Category 1 Medical Certificate by having:

A) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.
B) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram every 5 years.
C) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram as clinically indicated.
D) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required

Answer 2

A) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required

Question 3

What privileges may be exercised by an ATPL pilot whose Category 1 Medical Certificate expires?

A) Commercial Pilot privileges.
B) Private Pilot privileges.
C) All flying privileges will be immediately suspended.
D) Recreational Pilot privileges.

Answer 3

B) Private Pilot privileges

Question 4

The minimum number of hours of instrument flying experience that must have been acquired by an applicant for the Airline Transport License is:

A) 25 hours.
B) 100 hours.
C) 75 hours.
D) 50 hours.

Answer 4

C) 75 hours

Question 5

When the Group 1 instrument rating of an ATPL pilot expires, what license privileges may then be exercised by that individual?

A) Private Pilot privileges.
B) ATPL Pilot privileges restricted to daytime VFR operations.
C) Student Pilot privileges since the ATPL certificate would be revoked.
D) Commercial Pilot privileges; no PIC privileges on aeroplanes that have a minimum of 2 crew requirement.

Answer 5

D) Commercial Pilot privileges; no PIC privileges on aeroplanes that have a minimum of 2 crew requirement

Question 6

A Large aircraft is a term used to describe which of the following:

A) An aircraft with a maximum verified takeoff weight of more than 5,700KG or 12,566LBS.
B) A turbine engines aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff weight of more than 44,000LBS.
C) An aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff weight of 15,000KG (33,069LBS) or more.
D) An aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff weight of 50,000LBS or more.

Answer 6

A) an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off weight of more than 5700kg or 12,566 lbs.

Question 7

Which of the following would require the PIC to file a mandatory reportable incident with the Transportation Safety Board?

A) An airport employee sustains serious injury as a result of being directly exposed to jet blast.
B) an unresponsive passenger due to a medical condition requiring approach and landing priority at the destination.
C) An aircraft that sustains damage that affects the structural strength of the aircraft.
D) A shortage of fuel requiring approach and landing priority at the destination.

Answer 7

D) A shortage of fuel requiring approach and landing priority at the destination.

Question 8

How soon after an aircraft accident should the relevant information pertaining to its occurrence be reported to the Transportation Safety Board of Canada?

A) Within 7 days and by registered mail.
B) As soon as possible and by the quickest means of communication available.
C) Within 10 days and by telephone.
D) Within 24 hours and either by telephone or email.

Answer 8

B) As soon as possible and by the quickest means of communication available.

Question 9

Any aircraft that has been involved in an accident causing death or injury may not be moved or interfered with in any way in order to_________ without first obtaining permission from the minister. The missing words are?

A) remove the Aircraft Journey Log.
B) avoid danger to any person or property.
C) extricate and person.
D) prevent destruction by fire.

Answer 9

A) remove the Aircraft Journey Log.

Question 10

Pilots of IFR aircraft operating within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, adjust their transponder to reply Mode A, Code:

A) 1000 and on Mode C.
B) 1500 and on Mode C.
C) 2000 and on Mode C.
D) 3000 and on Mode C.

Answer 10

C) 2000 and on Mode C.

Question 11

In a climb to a cruise altitude above 12,500 feet ASL on a VFR flight, what code(s) would a pilot set on his/her transponder?

A) 1200 until the aircraft leaves 12,500 feet ASL in the climb and then to code 1400 for operation above that altitude.
B) 1000 until the aircraft climbs above 12,500 feet ASL and then to code 2000.
C) 1200 until the aircraft has reached its cruising altitude and then to code 1400.
D) 1200 until the aircraft reaches 12,500 feet ASL and then to code 1000 for operation above that altitude.

Answer 11

A) 1200 until the aircraft leaves 12,500 feet ASL in the climb and then to code 1400 for operation above that altitude.

Question 12

An aircraft that had been using code 7500 on a transponder subsequently changes to code 7700. This sequence of transponder operation would indicate that:

A) The aircraft had developed an unrelated emergency following the unlawful interference.
B) The aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.
C) The aircraft is unable to transmit any ETA’s and changes to planned destination following unlawful interference.
D) The pilot is making every effort to inform ATC of how serious this highjack situation is by using this code sequence to activate their radar monitoring alarm systems.

Answer 12

B) The aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.

Question 13

A serviceable transponder with automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment is required by all aircraft that intend to operate within:

A) The Canadian high level airspace.
B) All class A, B and C airspace as well as within any class D or E airspace that has been specified as transponder airspace.
C) Any controlled low level airspace above 9,500 feet ASL.
D) All class B, C and D airspace and within any restricted airspace.

Answer 13

B) All class A, B and C airspace as well as within any class D or E airspace that has been specified as transponder airspace.

Question 14

As a measure of safety, a pilot should adjust the aircraft transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 1000, plus Mode C (if available) for which of the following occasions.

A) A VFR flight along a low level airway above 12,500 feet ASL.
B) An IFR flight that is operating at FL180 or above and for which ATC has not assigned a transponder code.
C) A VFR flight that is operating within the Canadian ADIZ.
D) An IFR flight along a low level Air Route.

Answer 14

D) An IFR flight along a low level Air Route.

Question 15

Determination of the appropriate altitude for cruising flight in the Northern Domestic Airspace is based on the aircrafts:

A) Magnetic Heading.
B) True Heading.
C) Magnetic Track.
D) True Track.

Answer 15

D) True Track.

Question 16

Reduced Vertical Seperation Minimum (RVSM) is the application 1,000 ft vertical separation at and above FL290 between RVSM certified aircraft operating within designated RVSM airspace. RVSM and RVSM transition airspace is defined as controlled airspace extending from:

A) FL290 to FL330 for RVSM transition airspace and FL330 to FL420 RVSM airspace.
B) FL290 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.
C) FL230 to FL410 for RVSM transition airspace and FL270 to FL410 RVSM airspace.
D) FL230 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.

Answer 16

B) FL290 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.

Question 17

Prior to entering RVSM airspace pilots are required to ensure which of the following equipment is functioning normally?

A) Two seperate and independent altimeter systems.
B) One autopilot with an altitude hold function.
C) One altitude alerting device.
D) All of the above.

Answer 17

D) All of the above.

Question 18

RVSM certified aircraft that intend to fly along a high level airway between FL290 and FL410 inclusive and with a published track of 265°M should be operated at:

A) Odd flight levels at 4,000 foot intervals.
B) Even flight levels at 4,000 foot intervals.
C) Odd flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals.
D) Even flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals.

Answer 18

D) Even flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals.

Question 19

The next three RVSM flight levels immediatelly above FL290 that would be appropriate for the operation of an RVSM certified aircraft whose track is 180°M would be:

A) FL300, FL310, FL320.
B) FL330, FL370, FL410.
C) FL300, FL320, FL340.
D) FL310, FL330, FL350.

Answer 19

C) FL300, FL320, FL340.

Question 20

During climbs and descents in RVSM airspace flight crews should not overshoot or undershoot assigned flight levels by more than:

A) 50 ft.
B) 150 ft.
C) 200 ft.
D) 3000 ft.

Answer 20

B) 150 ft.

Question 21

When ATC has temporarily suspended RVSM within selected non-radar coverage areas due to adverse weather conditions, controllers will then provide ______feet vertical separation for opposite direction traffic and _____feet vertical separation for same direction traffic. The missing numbers are, respectively:

A) 1,000 ft; 2,000 ft.
B) 2,000 ft; 2,000 ft.
C) 2,000 ft; 4,000 ft.
D) 4,000 ft; 2,000 ft.

Answer 21

C) 2,000 ft; 4,000 ft.

Question 22

The base of the Arctic Control Area is:

A) FL330.
B) FL290.
C) FL270.
D) FL230.

Answer 22

C) FL270.

Question 23

IFR flight only is permitted for aircraft that wish to operate within the Northern Control Area from:

A) FL230 and above.
B) FL230 to FL600 inclusive.
C) FL250 and above.
D) FL270 to FL600 inclusive.

Answer 23

A) FL230 and above.

Question 24

What airspace would a northbound aircraft flying at FL260 enter immediately after departing the northern boundary of the Southern Control Area.

A) The Arctic Control Area.
B) Uncontrolled High Level airspace.
C) The Northern Control Area.
D) Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace.

Answer 24

C) The Northern Control Area.

Question 25

Consider an aircraft flying at FL190 that has just exited the northern boundary of the Southern Control Area northbound. If the pilot now wishes to climb and maintain FL220, he/she should:

A) Request the desired flight level change from ATC.
B) Broadcast the intended change in 122.8 MHz and then make the change.
C) Inform the nearest FIC of the intended change and then climb to FL220.
D) Broadcast the intended change on 126.7 MHz and then make the change.

Answer 25

D) Broadcast the intended change on 126.7 MHz and then make the change.

Question 26

In order to increase a VHF/UHF airway’s basic width of _____NM, _____degree splay (diverging) lines are projected from either side of the airway centreline and intersect the basic airway width boundary at a distance of _____NM from the navigation facility. The missing number are, respectively:

A) 4; 5; 50.8.
B) 8; 4.5; 50.8.
C) 8.68; 5; 49.66.
D) 4; 4.5; 49.66.

Answer 26

B) 8; 4.5; 50.8.

Question 27

With reference to T-Routes, select the statement below that is false:

A) They are low level controlled fixed RNAV routes that have a primary obstacle protection area 8NM wide.
B) They are low level fixed RNAV routes that have a primary obstacle protection area of 6NM each side of the centre line.
C) The airspace associated with these routes is 10NM on each side of the centre-line.
D) RNAV-T route airspace and protection areas do not splay.

Answer 27

B) They are low level fixed RNAV routes that have a primary obstacle protection area of 6NM each side of the centre-line.

Question 28

Which of the following types of controlled airspace that are based in low level airspace can extend upwards into the high level airspace structure?

A) Victor Airways.
B) Control Area Extensions.
C) Terminal Control Areas.
D) Class C control zones associated with Canadas major airports.

Answer 28

C) Terminal Control Areas.

Question 29

An aircraft would be operating in class A airspace anytime that it was flying within:

A) Any portion of Canadian controlled High-Level Airspace at FL600 and below.
B) All of the Northern Domestic Airspace above 18,000 ft ASL.
C) A military terminal control area between 12,500 ft ASL and 17,999 ft ASL.
D) All of the Canadian domestic airspace above FL600.

Answer 29

A) Any portion of Canadian controlled High-Level Airspace at FL600 and below.

Question 30

Which of the following regions would constitute Class B airspace?

A) That portion of the control area extension above 9,500 ft ASL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft ASL.
B) Airspace that underlies the Northern Control Area and extends from 12,500 ft ASL, up to, but not including, FL230.
C) Transition Areas adjacent to class C control zones that extend vertically from 700 ft ASL up to 2,200 ft ASL.
D) Within low level airways above 12,500 ft ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is the higher.

Answer 30

D) Within low level airways above 12,500 ft ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is the higher.

Question 31

An example of class D airspace would be:

A) A military flying area.
B) A control zone without an operating control tower.
C) The transition area which underlies the lateral limits of the CNMPS Airspace.
D) A control zone with an operating control tower and whose airspace has not been designated as Class B or Class C.

Answer 31

D) A control zone with an operating control tower and whose airspace has not been designated as Class B or Class C.

Question 32

All high level controlled airspace above FL600 within the Canadian Domestic Airspace structure has been designated:

A) Class A.
B) Class G.
C) Class E.
D) Class F.

Answer 32

C) Class E.

Question 33

That airspace within a Victor Airway at 12,500 ft ASL and below would be designated as:

A) Class B.
B) Class E.
C) Class D.
D) Class G.

Answer 33

B) Class E.

Question 34

Consider an airport with a class C control zone. What would be the status of this airport and its control zone airspace classification when the tower is not operating?

A) Controlled Airport; Class E Airspace.
B) Controlled Airport; Class D Airspace.
C) Uncontrolled Airport; Class E Airspace.
D) Uncontrolled Airport; Class G Airspace.

Answer 34

C) Uncontrolled Airport; Class E Airspace.

Question 35

A true statement regarding an active Restricted Area would be:

A) Flight through an active restricted area is prohibited at all times.
B) A pilot may fly through an active restricted area provided that either an IFR or DVFR flight plan has been filed for the flight and during that time the aircraft operates within the Restricted Area the pilot maintains a continuous listening watch on 121.5 MHz.
C) Aircraft on an IFR flight plan or on an IFR flight itinerary will automatically be cleared by ATC to fly through an active restricted area.
D) A pilot may fly through an active Restricted Area if prior permission has been obtained from the controlling authority.

Answer 35

D) A pilot may fly through an active Restricted Area if prior permission has been obtained from the controlling authority.

Question 36

With respect to Class F advisory airspace, pilots should know that:

A) An advisory area is a region of positively controlled airspace.
B) Specific instructions that apply to the use of advisory airspace are detailed in the planning section of the CFS.
C) Pilots of activity participating aircraft within an advisory area, as well as pilots of aircraft flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
D) IFR aircraft that are transiting an advisory area will always receive ATC vectoring to resolve potential conflicts with any VFR aircraft within the area.

Answer 36

C) Pilots of activity participating aircraft within an advisory area, as well as pilots of aircraft flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Question 37

A VFR aircraft has received a SVFR clearance to enter a control zone at night and has been cleared by the tower for a straight in approach to the active runway. Due to the prevailing low ceiling and reduced flight visibility, the pilot is unsure as to the exact location of a TV broadcast antenna in the immediate vicinity. The responsibility for avoiding this obstacle is:

A) Assumed by the tower controller who will provide vectors if required.
B) Shared equally by the tower controller and the pilot.
C) Assumed by the pilot.
D) Shared by both the nearest terminal control unit and the tower controller.

Answer 37

C) Assumed by the pilot.

Question 38

If an aircraft is required to cross over an uncontrolled airport to join the circuit, it is recommended that the crossover be accomplished at least_____above the aerodrome elevation:

A) 500 feet.
B) 1000 feet.
C) 1500 feet.
D) 2000 feet.

Answer 38

C) 1500 feet.

Question 39

A true statement regarding an ATC clearance would be:

A) A clearance is authorization to proceed under specified conditions within controlled and uncontrolled airspace.
B) A clearance issued to an IFR aircraft is predicated on movements of all other IFR and VFR aircraft operating within a section of controlled airspace.
C) A clearance is a directive issued to an aircraft by an ATC controller that requires the pilot to take a specific action.
D) Once a pilot supplied a read-back of an ATC clearance, then compliance shall be made with that clearance.

Answer 39

D) Once a pilot supplied a read-back of an ATC clearance, then compliance shall be made with that clearance.

Question 40

An advisory area charted as CYA134(P) to 6000 informs a pilot that:

A) Parachuting is conducted in this area up to 6000 ASL.
B) Aircraft test flights take place in this area.
C) Aircraft test activities may be conducted up to, but not including 6000 ft ASL.
D) This advisory area is located in Ontario (due to its regional identifying number of 134).

Answer 40

A) Parachuting is conducted in this area up to 6000 ASL.

Question 41

The airspace classification that applies to that portion of Low-Level Air Route that extends above 12,500 ft ASL up to, but not including 18,000 ft ASL is :

A) Class G.
B) Class B.
C) Class E.
D) Class D.

Answer 41

A) Class G.

Question 42

You have just departed IFR on a planned flight between two aerodromes in the Standard Pressure Region and are climbing to a cruising level of FL130. You should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92” HG):

A) Immediately prior to take off.
B) After ensuring that all obstacles along the departure track have been cleared by at least 1,000 feet.
C) Just after Level off at FL130.
D) Immediately prior to reaching FL130.

Answer 42

D) Immediately prior to reaching FL130.

Question 43

The pilot of an IFR aircraft that has departed from Edmonton International Airport is cleared to climb to and maintain FL270. In this case, the pilot should set the aircraft altimeter to Standard Pressure (29.92” HG) immediately:

A) After level off at FL270.
B) After climbing through 18,000 ft ASL.
C) Prior to reaching FL270.
D) Prior to reaching 18,000 ft ASL.

Answer 43

B) After climbing through 18,000 ft ASL.

Question 44

As you reach your destination airport, which is located within the Standard Pressure Region, you brief the instrument approach procedure to be used and prepare for the initial descent. The correct altimeter-setting procedure you should use for this approach is:

A) Continue with 29.92” on the altimeter until crossing the primary approach fix outbound, and then set the altimeter to the current airport setting.
B) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport setting 15 minutes prior to commencing the instrument approach.
C) Change the aircraft altimeter from 29.92” to the current airport setting immediately after intercepting the final approach track inbound during the approach.
D) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport altimeter setting prior to commencing descent with intention to land.

Answer 44

D) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport altimeter setting prior to commencing descent with intention to land.

Question 45

When conducting a holding procedure prior to landing at an aerodrome located within the Standard Pressure Region, the pilot in command of the aircraft shall:

A) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing immediately after completing the hold entry procedure.
B) Not set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the landing aerodrome until departing the holding fix for the purpose of conducting an approach procedure.
C) Not set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted.
D) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome immediately prior to commencing the hold entry procedure.

Answer 45

C) Not set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted.

Question 46

Within Designated Mountain Regions 1 and 5, the minimum IFR altitude to be used by an IFR aircraft that is operating outside of areas for which minimum IFR altitudes have been established is at least:

A) 3,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 10NM of the aircraft.
B) 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM of the aircraft.
C) 1,500 ft above the highest obstacle within 10NM of the aircraft.
D) 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM of the aircraft.

Answer 46

B) 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM of the aircraft.

Question 47

When flight planning over mountainous terrain during the winter months when air temperature may be much lower than ISA, pilots should select an operating altitude which is at least_____feet higher than the MEA/MOCA. the missing number is:

A) 2,500.
B) 2,000.
C) 1,500.
D) 1,000.

Answer 47

D) 1,000.

Question 48

As you analyze the weather for a proposed IFR flight, you determine that abnormally high pressure conditions will be present on arrival at the destination aerodrome producing an altimeter setting there of 31.29”. this aerodrome has an ILS approach with a Decision Height (DH) of 320(200- 3/4). since you are unable to set the current altimeter setting on the aircraft altimeter, you must apply adjustments to the weather requirements (Ceiling and visibility) which would now become:

A) 620-2 1/4.
B) 500-1 1/2.
C) 800-2 1/2.
D) 620-1 3/4.

Answer 48

B) 500-1 1/2.

Question 49

With respect to VFR flight operations within the Canadian ADIZ, the tolerances for ETA’s, projected ADIZ boundary entry point positions and flight plan track centerline deviation are:

A) +/-3 minutes and 20NM.
B) +/-3 minutes and 10 NM.
C) +/-5 minutes and 20NM.
D) +/-5 minutes and 10NM.

Answer 49

C) +/-5 minutes and 20NM.

Question 50

What is required to operate within the ADIZ?

A) An IFR flight plan or DVFR flight plan.
B) An IFR flight itinerary.
C) A VFR flight plan.
D) None of the above.

Answer 50

A) An IFR flight plan or DVFR flight plan.

Question 51

Any aircraft that is involved in forest fire control activities should not fly lower than_____feet AGL when operating closer than_____NM from the limits of a forest fire area. The missing numbers are, respectively:

A) 5,000 and 3.
B) 1,500 and 5.
C) 2,000 and 3.
D) 3,000 and 5.

Answer 51

D) 3,000 and 5.

Question 52

For wake turbulence categorization purposes, the term “HEAVY” is used to indicate an aircraft certified for a MTOW of:

A) 150,000 KG or more.
B) 200,000 LBS or more.
C) 300,000 KG or more.
D) 300,000 LBS or more.

Answer 52

D) 300,000 LBS or more.

Question 53

ICAO wake turbulence categories use the term “MEDIUM” to indicate an aircraft with a MTOW of:

A) 7,001 KG to less than 156,000 KG.
B) 7,001 LBS to less than 150,000 LBS.
C) More than 15,500 LBS to less than 300,000 LBS.
D) 12,500 LBS to less than 300,000 LBS.

Answer 53

C) More than 15,500 LBS to less than 300,000 LBS.

Question 54

The radar separation minimum that ATC controllers will apply between a medium aircraft and a proceding IFR Super aircraft separated vertically by less than 1,000 feet is:

A) 7 Miles.
B) 6 Miles.
C) 5 Miles.
D) 4 Miles.

Answer 54

A) 7 Miles.

Question 55

With respect to the non-radar departure of a light aircraft from the threshold of the same runway as a preceding medium aircraft, what spacing interval will ATC apply?

A) A four minute interval.
B) A three minute interval.
C) A two minute interval.
D) No interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.

Answer 55

D) No interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.

Question 56

In Canada no person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet ASL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 KIAS unless:

A) The aircraft is on departure and the final flight plan altitude is above 10,000 feet ASL.
B) The crew advises ATC the aircraft is being operated in accordance with a special operations certificate.
C) On departure the crew advises ATC of their intent to operate at speeds exceeding 250 KIAS and the reason for this action.
D) The crew requests a free speed.

Answer 56

C) On departure the crew advises ATC of their intent to operate at speeds exceeding 250 KIAS and the reason for this action.

Question 57

Unless otherwise authorized in an air traffic control clearance, the pilot of an aircraft that is operating below 3,000 feet AGL within 10NM of a controlled airport shall not operate at a speed of more than:

A) 200 KTS.
B) 230 KTS.
C) 250 KTS.
D) 265 KTS.

Answer 57

A) 200 KTS.

Question 58

An adjusted speed that has been assigned to an aircraft by an ATC radar controller should be maintained within:

A) +/- 20KTS.
B) +/- 15KTS.
C) +/- 10KTS.
D) +/- 5 KTS.

Answer 58

C) +/- 10KTS.

Question 59

The maximum holding speed for a civil turboprop aircraft at an assigned altitude of 7,000 feet ASL is:

A) 175 KIAS.
B) 200 KIAS.
C) 230 KIAS.
D) 265 KIAS.

Answer 59

C) 230 KIAS.

Question 60

To ensure that an aircraft does not exceed obstacle clearance protected airspace the crew of a civil turbojet aircraft cleared to shuttle climb from 6000 ft to 15,000 ft must not exceed:

A) 230 KIAS until above 14,000 ASL.
B) The airspeed limit published on instrument procedure charts or if no limit is published, 250 KIAS below 10,000 ASL and 310 KIAS above.
C) 250 KIAS below 10,000 ASL and 310 KIAS above 10,000 ASL.
D) 310 KIAS until cleared above 15,000 ft.

Answer 60

B) The airspeed limit published on instrument procedure charts or if no limit is published, 250 KIAS below 10,000 ASL and 310 KIAS above.

Question 61

When a turbojet aircraft is assigned a holding procedure at 6,000 ft ASL, the pilot must ensure that the holding pattern is entered and flown at or below:

A) 150 kts.
B) 175 kts.
C) 200 kts.
D) 230 kts.

Answer 61

C) 200 kts.

Question 62

The flight crew of a turbojet aircraft transitioning from oceanic airspace to Canadian Domestic Airspace with an assigned Mach number may:

A) Resume normal speed once being radar identified.
B) Must maintain within .01 the filed Mach number once in domestic airspace.
C) Must maintain within .01 of the assigned Mach number until ATC approval is obtained to make the change.
D) None of the above.

Answer 62

C) Must maintain within .01 of the assigned Mach number until ATC approval is obtained to make the change.

Question 63

From the statement concerning IFR flight planning which follow, identify the one which is correct:

A) An IFR flight plan from Montreal to Cancun, Mexico does not require the filing of an ICAO flight plan.
B) A composite flight plan may be filed for an aircraft that will enter American airspace controlled by the FAA.
C) An IFR flight plan will be automatically closed by ATC for an aircraft whose pilot has stated “cancelling IFR”.
D) Intermediate stops may not be included in a single IFR flight plan.

Answer 63

D) Intermediate stops may not be included in a single IFR flight plan.

Question 64

Consider a flight itinerary that was filed with an FIC and in which no SAR time was specified. The pilot who terminates this flight itinerary shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with the FIC as soon as possible after landing but no later than:

A) 48 hours after landing.
B) 12 hours after the last reported ETA.
C) 24 hours after the last reported ETA.
D) 48 hours after the last reported ETA.

Answer 64

C) 24 hours after the last reported ETA.

Question 65

090249 NOTAMN CYYT ST. JOHNS INTL ZYT-OUTER COVE NDB 246 U/S TIL APRX 0906101630. With respect to this NOTAM, a correct statement would be:

A) The referenced NDB will be usable at approximately 1630z on October 6, 2009.
B) The NOTAM will expire on October 6, 2009.
C) Either a replacing or cancelling NOTAM will be issued regarding the future serviceability of the ZYT NDB.
D) It was issued at 0249z, June 10, 2009 and operational use of the ZYT NDB will be permitted after 1630z unless a replacing NOTAM is issued.

Answer 65

C) Either a replacing or cancelling NOTAM will be issued regarding the future serviceability of the ZYT NDB.

Question 66

Consider the situation during which a CF-18 military aircraft assumes a position in front of, and to the left of, your civilian aircraft while in cruising flight and then commences to rock its wings. This visual signal initiated by the military jet means:

A) You are operating in an active restricted airspace; call the interceptor on 121.5 MHz for instructions.
B) You are to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and phone search and rescue in your region as soon as possible.
C) You have been intercepted.
D) You have been intercepted as not being hostile and may proceed to your destination aerodrome.

Answer 66

C) You have been intercepted.

Question 67

The “operator” of an aircraft is:

A) The pilot in command.
B) The owner of the aircraft.
C) The person in possession of the aircraft.
D) The Lessee of the aircraft.

Answer 67

C) The person in possession of the aircraft.

Question 68

No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft:

A) within twelve hours of consuming alcohol.
B) While using over the counter drugs without first getting permission from a civil aviation medical examiner.
C) Within eight hours of consuming alcohol.
D) Within twelve hours of consuming alcohol and/or cannabis.

Answer 68

A) within twelve hours of consuming alcohol.

Question 69

The farthest distance that a land aeroplane may operate from shore without having to carry a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is:

A) 200NM.
B) 100NM.
C) 50NM.
D) 25NM.

Answer 69

C) 50NM.

Question 70

A transport category aeroplane which carries a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is about to operate a flight over the water. In this case, the maximum distance from a suitable emergency landing site that this aeroplane may fly without having to carry life rafts on board would be the lesser of:

A) 400NM or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
B) 200NM or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
C) 100NM or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
D) 50NM or the distance that can be covered in 15 minutes of

Answer 70

A) 400NM or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.

Question 71

The dimensions of a Mandatory Frequency Area associated with an aerodrome are published:

A) On the appropriate Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
B) In the applicable FIR General NOTAM Summary.
C) On the appropriate VNC or WAC VFR Navigation Charts.
D) In the Canadian Flight Supplement.

Answer 71

D) In the Canadian Flight Supplement.

Question 72

An uncontrolled aerodrome has no published MF or ATF. In this case, the common frequency to be used for the broadcast of aircraft position and the intentions of pilots flying in the vicinity of this aerodrome would be:

A) 122.8 MHz.
B) 123.2 MHz.
C) 126.7 MHz.
D) 122.3 MHz.

Answer 72

B) 123.2 MHz.

Question 73

N0318/19 NOTAMN
A. CYOW 1904021115 TIL 1904302110
D. Daily 02-04, 08-12, 16, 22-24, 27, 29 1115-1615 Daily 05-07, 14, 15 19-21, 25, 26, 30 1705-2110
E. CYOW RNAV (GNSS) Z RWY 14 APCH:
LNAV/VNAV MINIMA: NOT AUTH LNAV MINIMA TO READ 760 (409) 1 DIST/ALT TABLE, CONSTANT DESCENT ANGLE AND RATE OF DESCENT INFORMATION NOT USABLE

A correct statement regarding to the NOTAM above would be:

A) LNAV/VNAV minima would not be authorized April 8-12 between 1615Z and 1705Z
B) The constant descent angle table is not usable for approaches conducted daily between 1115Z to 1615Z and 1505Z to 2110Z April 02to April 30.
C) For approaches conducted on April 15 after 1615Z are not subject LNAV minima adjustment to 760ASL and 1 SM
D) For approaches conducted on April 26 prior 1705Z are permitted to utilize charted LNAV minima.

Answer 73

D) For approaches conducted on April 26 prior 1705Z are permitted to utilize charted LNAV minima.

Question 74

Aircraft seat belts are required to be worn during flight by:

A) All passengers during takeoff and landing only.
B) Infant passengers at all times.
C) All passengers at all times.
D) At least one pilot at all times.

Answer 74

D) At least one pilot at all times.

Question 75

When must crew and passengers wear seatbelts in an aircraft?

A) During taxi, takeoff and landing.
B) Anytime any crew member advises it.
C) During takeoff and landing, as well as anytime the PIC directs it.
D) During takeoff and landing, as well as anytime there is a thunderstorm within 20NM.

Answer 75

C) During takeoff and landing, as well as anytime the PIC directs it.

Question 76

A true statement regarding the use of the flight control lock system of an aircraft would be:

A) The aircraft engines cannot be started when this mechanism is engaged.
B) An unmistakable warning must be provided to the pilot when the flight control lock is engaged.
C) When this mechanism is engaged, it will lock the elevator in the full nose up position.
D) If this system is installed in an aircraft powered by reciprocating engines, the mixture control can not be adjusted when the flight control lock is engaged.

Answer 76

B) An unmistakable warning must be provided to the pilot when the flight control lock is engaged.

Question 77

Consider an unpressurized aircraft that is flying at 12,000 ft ASL. After what period of time should flight crew members breath from sealed oxygen masks?

A) The entire period of flight above 10,000 ft ASL.
B) After 30 minutes at a cabin pressure altitude exceeding 10,000 ft ASL.
C) They are not required to, they are below 13,000 ft ASL.
D) It is at the discretion of the pilots, if they feel they are becoming hypoxic.

Answer 77

B) After 30 minutes at a cabin pressure altitude exceeding 10,000 ft ASL.

Question 78

Consider an unpressurized aircraft that had been flying for one hour and thirty minutes at an altitude of 12,000 ft ASL. In this case, its two crew members should have been wearing their oxygen masks and using supplemental oxygen for what period of time?

A) 30 minutes.
B) 45 minutes.
C) 60 minutes.
D) 90 minutes.

Answer 78

C) 60 minutes.

Question 79

Each person on board the aircraft shall be wearing an O2 mask and using supplemental O2 for the duration of that portion of any flight which takes place at cabin pressure altitudes above:

A) 18,000 ft ASL.
B) 15,000 ft ASL.
C) 13,000 ft ASL.
D) 12,000 ft ASL.

Answer 79

C) 13,000 ft ASL.

Question 80

For any flight that will be operating for more than 30 minutes at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft ASL but not exceeding 13,000 ft ASL, the required minimum number of O2 masks (and O2 supply) that must be available when 20 passengers are carried would be:

A) 20.
B) 10.
C) 5.
D) 2.

Answer 80

D) 2.

Question 81

When does an aircraft operated in a commuter operation require a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder?

A) It is required by any multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft seating 6 or more passengers and requiring 2 pilots.
B) Any time passengers are carried, including any employees of the operation other than the pilots.
C) At all times, unless there is an MEL.
D) Any time the flight data recorder is not operational, for a maximum of 90 days.

Answer 81

A) It is required by any multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft seating 6 or more passengers and requiring 2 pilots.

Question 82

Which commuter aircraft are required to have a functioning FDR?

A) All Aircraft.
B) All Aircraft carrying passengers.
C) At all times, unless there is an MEL.
D) It is required by any aircraft with a seating capacity of 10 or more, and manufactured after October 11, 1991.

Answer 82

D) It is required by any aircraft with a seating capacity of 10 or more, and manufactured after October 11, 1991.

Question 83

A multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft that was manufactured after October 11, 1991, configured for 10 or more passengers and for which a minimum of 2 crew is required by the type certificate, must have which of the following types of equipment aboard?

A) Flight Data Recorder Only.
B) Cockpit Voice Recorder Only.
C) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder.
D) Flight Data Recorder and Enhanced GPWS.

Answer 83

C) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder.

Question 84

For those aircraft which are required to have a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder on board, it must be operated continuously from:

A) The time at which electrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight.
B) The commencement of the takeoff roll to the completion of the landing roll.
C) The beginning of the start checklist to the completion of the shutdown checklist.
D) Engine start-up to clearing the landing runway at the destination.

Answer 84

A) The time at which electrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight.

Question 85

Consider an aircraft with no Approved Minimum Equipment List and which is required to have a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and a functioning Flight Data Recorder (FDR) on board. If the CVR is unserviceable, this aircraft may:

A) Only be flown back to its maintenance base via a direct route.
B) Be flown for a maximum of 90 days provided the FDR remains serviceable.
C) Not be flown with passengers aboard until it is repaired.
D) Not be flown until a flight permit has been obtained.

Answer 85

B) Be flown for a maximum of 90 days provided the FDR remains serviceable.

Question 86

When an Altitude Alerting System of a turbo-jet-powered aircraft, which requires such a device onboard, is unserviceable, what type of flights are permitted if no MEL has been approved for this aircraft?

A) Only flights that will operate in the low level airspace structure.
B) Only those flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks or training flights.
C) Any flight that is restricted to day VFR conditions.
D) Only flight crew training flights.

Answer 86

B) Only those flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks or training flights.

Question 87

When can you test a 406 MHz ELT?

A) Tests shall be conducted during the first 5 minutes of any UTC hour.
B) Test durations shall not exceed 5 seconds.
C) They should only be tested in accordance with the manufacturers instructions.
D) A and B

Answer 87

C) They should only be tested in accordance with the manufacturers instructions.

Question 88

What aircraft are required to have a Standby Attitude Indicator?

A) Any Large aircraft.
B) Any aircraft operated under an air operator certificate issued under part VII of the CARs.
C) Any transport category aircraft in commercial air service.
D) Any aircraft flying at night.

Answer 88

C) Any transport category aircraft in commercial air service.

Question 89

A third Attitude Indicator that is powered from a source independent of the aircrafts electrical generating system must be aboard:

A) Any large aircraft powered by reciprocating engines.
B) Any turbine-powered aircraft that operates above FL250.
C) Any large turjo-jet-powered aircraft or any turbine-powered Transport Category aircraft operated by an air carrier.
D) Any turbine-powered aircraft used in Commercial Air Service operations.

Answer 89

C) Any large turbo-jet-powered aircraft or any turbine-powered Transport Category aircraft operated by an air carrier.

Question 90

When a third Attitude Indicator is required to be aboard an aircraft, it must:

A) Be able to provide pitch and roll signals to the autopilot.
B) Provide a pitch and roll reference within the 5 second period immediately following the failure of the aircrafts electrical generating system.
C) Have a fast erect mechanism which will provide an audio warning when its gyro has reached is normal operating speed.
D) Provide a minimum of 30 minutes of reliable operation following the failure of the aircrafts electrical generating system.

Answer 90

D) Provide a minimum of 30 minutes of reliable operation following the failure of the aircrafts electrical generating system.

Question 91

The requirement to have a functioning GPWS aboard a turbo-jet-powered aircraft that is involved in either commuter or airline operations commences at what MCTOW and authorized passenger configuration?

A) More than 5,700KG (12,566 LBS); more than 6 passengers.
B) More than 8,618KG (19,000 LBS); more than 9 passengers.
C) More than 15,000KG (33,069 LBS); 10 or more passengers.
D) More than 15,000KG (33,069 LBS); 20 or more passengers.

Answer 91

C) More than 15,000KG (33,069 LBS); 10 or more passengers.

Question 92

Identify the correct statement with respect to the completion of aircraft tasks by a pilot that are identified as Elementary Work:

A) The pilot is required to sign a maintenance release prior to the next flight.
B) The pilot should make signed entries in both the Aircraft Technical Log and the Aircraft Journey Log detailing the tasks completed.
C) A authorized person must sign a maintenance release before a flight in that aircraft is undertaken.
D) The pilot shall make an entry in the Aircraft Journey Log detailing the completed tasks and accompany this entry with his/her signature.

Answer 92

D) The pilot shall make an entry in the Aircraft Journey Log detailing the completed tasks and accompany this entry with his/her signature.

Question 93

The movement area of an aerodrome includes:

A) The maneuvering area plus aprons.
B) Only the taxiways and the ramp areas.
C) All runways and taxiways but excludes any aprons.
D) Only the aprons and any ramp surfaces used for engine runups.

Answer 93

A) The maneuvering area plus aprons.

Question 94

The Touchdown Zone of the landing runway comprises whichever is the lesser of:

A) The first 3,500 ft or the first one-half of the runway.
B) The first 3,000 ft or the first third of the runway.
C) The first 2,000 ft or the first one-quarter of the runway.
D) The first 1,000 ft or the first one-fifth of the runway.

Answer 94

B) The first 3,000 ft or the first third of the runway.

Question 95

The simultaneous use of intersecting runways known as Land And Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) may be carried out under certain conditions. One of these would be:

A) A pilot who has accepted the hold short clearance must remain 200 feet short of the closest edge of the runway being intersected.
B) A tailwind of 10 KTS, or less for either a dry runway or a wet runway is acceptable for normal LAHSO.
C) The weather minima of a 1,500 foot ceiling and a visibility of 5 statute miles are required.
D) Only those runways with average coefficients of friction above 0.45 will be approved for wet runway LAHSO.

Answer 95

A) A pilot who has accepted the hold short clearance must remain 200 feet short of the closest edge of the runway being intersected.

Question 96

What is the definition of an infant?

A) A baby weighing less than 10KG (22 LBS).
B) A baby who is less than 2 years old.
C) A baby who is less than 4 years old.
D) A baby weighing less than 14KG (31 LBS).

Answer 96

B) A baby who is less than 2 years old.

Question 97

What is the recommended practice to restrain an infant?

A) The infant should occupy an individual seat, with the restraint system securely fastened.
B) The infant should be held securely in another passengers arms, with the restraint system securely fastened around both passengers.
C) The infant should sit on the lap of another passenger, with the restraint system securely fastened around both passengers.
D) A passenger shall securely fasten the restraint system around themselves and hold the infant securely in their arms.

Answer 97

D) A passenger shall securely fasten the restraint system around themselves and hold the infant securely in their arms.

Question 98

You are the owner of a foreign-manufatured aircraft that is now registered in Canada. If that foreign-manufacturer issues an Airworthiness Directive (AD) applicable to your aircraft type, you would know that:

A) Your compliance with the AD would not be required until it had been published in the “index of Airworthiness Directives applicable to Canada”
B) An exemption for compliance with any AD issued by a foreign government can always be obtained from the nearest TC maintenance and manufacturing office.
C) Even if compliance with a foreign AD is not met, the Certificate of Airworthiness for your aircraft will continue to remain in force until its next annual inspection.
D) You, the aircraft owner, must ensure that compliance with the AD is met.

Answer 98

D) You, the aircraft owner, must ensure that compliance with the AD is met.

Question 99

The number of entries from the previous Journey Log to be carried forward to become the first entries of a new Journey Log would be:

A) A sufficient number of relevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity.
B) The last 5 entries.
C) The number of consecutive entries required to include the last maintenance action performed on the aircraft.
D) The last page of entries.

Answer 99

A) A sufficient number of relevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity.