Penal Code 10 Flashcards

1
Q

“_____________” means force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing, death or serious bodily injury.

A

Deadly force

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2
Q

A person commits this offense if the person appears in a public place while intoxicated to the degree that the person may endanger the person or another.

A

PC 49.02.

PUBLIC INTOXICATION

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3
Q

A person commits this offense if the person knowingly possesses an open container in a passenger area of a motor vehicle that is located on a public highway, regardless of whether the vehicle is being operated or is stopped or parked.

Possession by a person of one or more open containers in a single criminal episode is a single offense.

A
    1. * *POSSESSION OF ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGE IN MOTOR VEHICLE.**

“Public highway” means the entire width between and immediately adjacent to the boundary lines of any public road, street, highway, interstate, or other publicly maintained way if any part is open for public use for the purpose of motor vehicle travel. The term includes the right-of-way of a public highway.

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4
Q

A person commits this offense if the person is intoxicated while operating a motor vehicle in a public place.

A
  1. 04.

* *DRIVING WHILE INTOXICATED**

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5
Q

A person commits this offense if the person is intoxicated while operating a motor vehicle in a public place; and the vehicle being operated by the person is occupied by a passenger who is younger than 15 years of age.

A
    1. * *DRIVING WHILE INTOXICATED WITH CHILD PASSENGER**

** 15 years of age **

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6
Q

A person commits this offense if the person is intoxicated while operating an aircraft.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)
49.05.
FLYING WHILE INTOXICATED

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7
Q

A person commits this offense if the person is intoxicated while operating a watercraft.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)
49.06.
BOATING WHILE INTOXICATED

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8
Q

A person commits this offense if the person is intoxicated while operating an amusement ride or while assembling a mobile amusement ride.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)
49.065.
ASSEMBLING OR OPERATING AN AMUSEMENT RIDE WHILE INTOXICATED

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9
Q

A person commits this offense if the person, by accident or mistake while operating an aircraft, watercraft, or amusement ride while intoxicated, or while operating a motor vehicle in a public place while intoxicated, by reason of that intoxication causes serious bodily injury to another; or as a result of assembling a mobile amusement ride while intoxicated causes serious bodily injury to another.

A
    1. * *INTOXICATION ASSAULT**

In this section, “serious bodily injury” means injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

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10
Q

A person commits this offense if the person operates a motor vehicle in a public place, operates an aircraft, a watercraft, or an amusement ride, or assembles a mobile amusement ride and is intoxicated and by reason of that intoxication causes the death of another by accident or mistake.

A
  1. 08.

* INTOXICATION MANSLAUGHTER*

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11
Q

Sec. 49.11. For DWI RELATED OFFENSES:

PROOF OF MENTAL STATE UNNECESSARY. (a) Notwithstanding Section 6.02(b), proof of a culpable mental state _____ required for conviction of an offense under this chapter.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

is not

(culpable mental states are : intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or criminal negligence — ought to be aware…)

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12
Q

A person commits this offense if, without the effective consent of the owner:

He intentionally or knowingly damages or destroys the tangible property of the owner; He intentionally or knowingly tampers with the tangible property of the owner and causes pecuniary loss or substantial inconvenience to the owner or a third person; or He intentionally or knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions, slogans, drawings, or paintings, on the tangible property of the owner.

A

PC 28.03. CRIMINAL MISCHIEF

Felonies start at $2,500 or more

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13
Q

PENAL CODE
TITLE 2. GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY CHAPTER 9. JUSTIFICATION EXCLUDING CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY SUBCHAPTER A. GENERAL PROVISIONS.

Sec.A9.02. JUSTIFICATION AS A DEFENSE.

It is a _________________ that the conduct in question is justified under this chapter.

A

defense to prosecution

i.e. Justifiable Homicides / Assaults

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14
Q

PENAL CODE

Sec. 9.02. JUSTIFICATION AS A DEFENSE.
It is a ____________ that the conduct in question is justified under this chapter.

A

defense to prosecution

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15
Q

PENAL CODE

Sec. 9.03. CONFINEMENT AS JUSTIFIABLE FORCE.
Confinement is justified when force is justified by this chapter if the actor takes reasonable measures to terminate the confinement as soon as he knows he safely can unless the person confined has been _________________.

A

arrested for an offense.

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16
Q

Sec. 9.04. THREATS AS JUSTIFIABLE FORCE.

The threat of force is justified when the use of force is justified by this chapter.
For purposes of this section, a threat to cause death or serious bodily injury by the production of a weapon or otherwise, as long as the actor’s purpose is limited to __________ that he will use deadly force if necessary, does not constitute the use of deadly force.

A

creating an apprehension

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17
Q

Sec. 9.05. RECKLESS INJURY OF INNOCENT THIRD PERSON.
Even though an actor is justified under this chapter in threatening or using force or deadly force against another, if in doing so he also recklessly injures or kills an innocent third person, the justification afforded by this chapter is ___________ in a prosecution for the reckless injury or killing of the innocent third person.

A

unavailable

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18
Q

Sec. 9.06. CIVIL REMEDIES UNAFFECTED.
The fact that conduct is justified under this chapter ________ abolish or impair any remedy for the conduct that is available in a civil suit.

A

does not

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19
Q

Sec. 9.21. PUBLIC DUTY.
(a) Except as qualified by Subsections (b) and (c), conduct is justified if the actor reasonably believes the conduct is required or authorized by law, by the judgment or order of a competent court or other governmental tribunal, or in the execution of legal process.

(b). The other sections of this chapter control when force is used against a person to:
protect persons (Subchapter C),
to protect property (Subchapter D),
for law enforcement (Subchapter E), or
by virtue of a special relationship (Subchapter F).

(c). The use of deadly force is not justified under this section unless the actor reasonably believes the deadly force is specifically required by statute or unless it occurs in the lawful conduct of war.
If deadly force is so justified, there is __________.

(d) . The justification afforded by this section is available if the actor reasonably believes:
(1) the court or governmental tribunal has jurisdiction or the process is lawful, even though the court or governmental tribunal lacks jurisdiction or the process is unlawful; or
(2) His conduct is required or authorized to assist a public servant in the performance of his official duty, even though the servant exceeds his lawful authority.

A

no duty to retreat before using it.

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20
Q

9.22. NECESSITY.
Conduct is justified if:

(1). The actor reasonably believes the conduct is
immediately necessary to ___________;

(2) . The desirability and urgency of avoiding the harm clearly outweigh, according to ordinary standards of reasonableness, the harm sought to be prevented by the law proscribing the conduct; and
(3) . A legislative purpose to exclude the justification claimed for the conduct does not otherwise plainly appear.

A

avoid imminent harm

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21
Q

Sec. 9.31. SELF-DEFENSE.
(a) Except as provided in Subsection (b),
a person is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect the actor against the other’s use or attempted use of unlawful force.
The actor’s belief that the force was immediately necessary as described by this subsection is presumed to be reasonable if the actor:

(1). Knew or had reason to believe that the person against whom the force was used:
(A). Unlawfully and with force entered, or was attempting to enter unlawfully and with force, the actor’s occupied **habitation, **vehicle, or **place of business or employment;
(B). unlawfully and with force removed, or was attempting to remove unlawfully and with force, the actor from the actor’s habitation, vehicle, or place of business or employment; or
(C). Was committing or attempting to commit **aggravated kidnapping, **murder, **sexual assault, **aggravated sexual assault, **robbery, or **aggravated robbery;
(2). Did not provoke the person against whom the force was used; and
(3). Was not otherwise engaged in criminal activity,
other than a Class C misdemeanor that is a violation of a law or ordinance regulating traffic at the time the force was used.
(b). The use of force against another is not justified: (1). In response to verbal provocation alone;
(2). To resist an arrest or search that the actor knows is being made by a peace officer, or by a person acting in a peace officer’s presence and at his direction, **even though the arrest or search is unlawful, *unless the resistance is justified under Subsection (c);
(3). If the actor consented to the exact force used or attempted by the other;
(4). If the actor provoked the other’s use or attempted use of unlawful force, unless:

(A). The actor abandons the encounter, or clearly communicates to the other his intent to do so reasonably believing he cannot safely abandon the encounter; and
(B). The other nevertheless continues or attempts
to use unlawful force against the actor; or

A

(5). If the actor sought an explanation from or discussion with the other person concerning the actor’s differences with the other person while the actor was:
(A). carrying a weapon in violation of Section
46.02; or
(B). possessing or transporting a weapon in violation of Section 46.05.

(c) . The use of force to resist an arrest or search is justified:
(1) . If, before the actor offers any resistance, the peace officer (or person acting at his direction) uses or attempts to use greater force than necessary to make the arrest or search; and
(2) . When and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect himself against the peace officer’s (or other person’s) use or attempted use of greater force than necessary.
(d) . The use of deadly force is not justified under this subchapter except as provided in Sections 9.32, 9.33, and 9.34.

(e) . A person who has a right to be present at the location where the force is used, who has not provoked the person against whom the force is used, and who is not engaged in criminal activity at the time the force is used is not required to retreat before using force as described by this section.
(f) . For purposes of Subsection (a), in determining whether an actor described by Subsection (e) reasonably believed that the use of force was necessary, a finder of fact may not consider whether the actor failed to retreat.

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22
Q

Sec. 9.32. DEADLY FORCE IN DEFENSE OF PERSON.
(a) A person is justified in using deadly force against another:
(1). If the actor would be justified in using force against the other under Section 9.31; and
(2). when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary:
(A). To protect the actor against the other’s use or attempted use of unlawful deadly force; or
(B). To prevent the other’s imminent commission of *aggravated kidnapping, *murder, *sexual assault, *aggravated sexual assault, *robbery, or *aggravated robbery.
(b). The actor’s belief under Subsection (a)(2) that the deadly force was immediately necessary as described by that subdivision is presumed to be reasonable if the actor:
(1). Knew or had reason to believe that the person against whom the deadly force was used:
(A). unlawfully and with force entered, or was attempting to enter unlawfully and with force, the actor’s occupied *habitation, *vehicle, or *place of business or employment;
(B). Unlawfully and with force removed, or was attempting to remove unlawfully and with force, the actor from the actor’s *habitation, *vehicle, or *place of business or employment; or
(C). Was committing or attempting to commit an
offense described by Subsection (a)(2)(B); aggravated kidnapping, murder, sexual assault, aggravated sexual assault, robbery, or
aggravated robbery

A

(2). Did not provoke the person against whom the force was used; and
(3). Was not otherwise engaged in criminal activity,
other than a Class C misdemeanor that is a violation of a law or ordinance regulating traffic at the time the force was used.
(c). A person who has a right to be present at the location where the deadly force is used, who has not provoked the person against whom the deadly force is used, and who is not engaged in criminal activity at the time the deadly force is used is not required to retreat before using deadly force as described by this section.
(d). For purposes of Subsection (a)(2), in determining whether an actor described by Subsection (c) reasonably believed that the use of deadly force was necessary, a finder of fact may not consider whether the actor failed to retreat

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23
Q

Sec. 9.33. DEFENSE OF THIRD PERSON.
A person is justified in using force or deadly force against another to protect a third person if:

(1) . Under the circumstances as the actor reasonably believes them to be, the actor would be justified under Section 9.31 or 9.32 in using force or deadly force to protect himself against the unlawful force or unlawful deadly force he reasonably believes to be threatening the third person he seeks to protect; and
(2) . The actor reasonably believes that his intervention is ___________ to protect the third person.

A

immediately necessary

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24
Q

Sec. 9.34. PROTECTION OF LIFE OR HEALTH.
(a) A person is justified in using force, but not deadly force, against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to prevent the other from committing suicide or inflicting serious bodily injury to himself.

A

(b). A person is justified in using both force and deadly force against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force or deadly force is immediately necessary to preserve the other’s life in an emergency.

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25
Q

Sec. 9.41. PROTECTION OF ONE’S OWN PROPERTY.

(a) A person in lawful possession of land or tangible, movable property is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary
* *to prevent or terminate the other’s trespass on the land or
* *unlawful interference with the property.

A

(b) . A person unlawfully dispossessed of land or tangible, movable property by another is justified in using force against the other when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to **reenter the land or recover the property if the actor uses the force immediately or in fresh pursuit after the dispossession and:
(1) . The actor reasonably believes the other had no claim of right when he dispossessed the actor; or
(2) . The other accomplished the dispossession by using force, threat, or fraud against the actor.

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26
Q

Sec. 9.42. DEADLY FORCE TO PROTECT PROPERTY.
A person is justified in using deadly force against another to protect land or tangible, movable property:
(1). If he would be justified in using force against the other under Section 9.41; and
(2). When and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary:
(A). To prevent the other’s imminent commission of arson, *burglary, *robbery, *aggravated robbery, *theft during the nighttime, or *criminal mischief during the nighttime; or
(B). To prevent the other who is fleeing immediately after committing _________________;
from escaping with the property and
(3). He reasonably believes that:
(A). The land or property cannot be protected or
recovered by any other means; or
(B). The use of force other than deadly force to protect or recover the land or property would expose the actor or another to a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.

A

burglary,
robbery,
aggravated robbery, or
theft during the nighttime

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27
Q

Sec. 9.43.
PROTECTION OF THIRD PERSON’S PROPERTY.
A person is justified in using force or deadly force against another to protect land or tangible, movable property of a third person if, under the circumstances as he reasonably believes them to be, the actor would be justified under Section 9.41 or 9.42 in using force or deadly force to protect his own land or property and:
(1). The actor reasonably believes the unlawful interference constitutes attempted or consummated theft of or criminal mischief to the tangible, movable property; or
(2). The actor reasonably believes that:
(A). The third person has requested his protection
of the land or property;
(B). He has a legal duty to protect the third
person’s land or property; or
(C). The third person whose land or property he
uses force or deadly force to protect is the actor’s spouse, parent, or child, resides with the actor, or is under the actor’s care.

A

Sec. 9.44. USE OF DEVICE TO PROTECT PROPERTY.
The justification afforded by Sections 9.41 and 9.43 applies to the use of a device to protect land or tangible, movable property if:
(1). The device is not designed to cause, or known by the actor to create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily injury; and
(2). Use of the device is reasonable under all the circumstances as the actor reasonably believes them to be when he installs the device.

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28
Q

Sec. 9.51. ARREST AND SEARCH.

(a) A peace officer, or a person acting in a peace officer’s presence and at his direction, is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to make or assist in making an arrest or search, or to prevent or assist in preventing escape after arrest, if:
(1) . The actor reasonably believes the arrest or search is lawful or, if the arrest or search is made under a warrant, he reasonably believes the warrant is valid; and
(2) . Before using force, the actor manifests his purpose to arrest or search and identifies himself as a peace officer or as one acting at a peace officer’s direction, unless he reasonably believes his purpose and identity are already known by or cannot reasonably be made known to the person to be arrested.
(b) . A person other than a peace officer (or one acting at his direction) is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to make or assist in making a lawful arrest, or to prevent or assist in preventing escape after lawful arrest if, before using force, the actor manifests his purpose to and the reason for the arrest or reasonably believes his purpose and the reason are already known by or cannot reasonably be made known to the person to be arrested.
(c) . A peace officer is justified in using deadly force against another when and to the degree the peace officer reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to make an arrest, or to prevent escape after arrest, if the use of force would have been justified under Subsection (a) and:
(1) . The actor reasonably believes the conduct for which arrest is authorized included the use or attempted use of deadly force; or
(2) . The actor reasonably believes there is a substantial risk that the person to be arrested will cause death or serious bodily injury to the actor or another if the arrest is delayed.

A

(d) . A person other than a peace officer acting in a peace officer’s presence and at his direction is justified in using deadly force against another when and to the degree the person reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to make a lawful arrest, or to prevent escape after a lawful arrest, if the use of force would have been justified under Subsection (b) and:
(1) . The actor reasonably believes the felony or offense against the public peace for which arrest is authorized included the use or attempted use of deadly force; or
(2) . The actor reasonably believes there is a substantial risk that the person to be arrested will cause death or serious bodily injury to another if the arrest is delayed.
(e) . There is no duty to retreat before using deadly force justified by Subsection (c) or (d).
(f) . Nothing in this section relating to the actor’s manifestation of purpose or identity shall be construed as conflicting with any other law relating to the issuance, service, and execution of an arrest or search warrant either under the laws of this state or the United States.
(g) . Deadly force may only be used under the circumstances enumerated in Subsections (c) and (d).

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29
Q

Sec. 9.52. PREVENTION OF ESCAPE FROM CUSTODY.
The use of force to prevent the escape of an arrested person from custody is justifiable when the force could have been employed to effect the arrest under which the person is in custody, except that a guard employed by a correctional facility or a peace officer is justified in using any force, including deadly force, that he reasonably believes to be immediately necessary to prevent the escape of a person from the correctional facility.

A

Sec. 9.53. MAINTAINING SECURITY IN CORRECTIONAL FACILITY.
An officer or employee of a correctional facility is justified in using force against a person in custody when and to the degree the officer or employee reasonably believes the force is necessary to maintain the security of the correctional facility, the safety or security of other persons in custody or employed by the correctional facility, or his own safety or security.

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30
Q

Sec. 9.61. PARENT-CHILD.

(a) The use of force, but not deadly force, against a child younger than 18 years is justified:
(1) . If the actor is the child’s parent or stepparent or is acting in loco parentis to the child; and
(2) . When and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary to discipline the child or to safeguard or promote his welfare.
(b) . For purposes of this section, “in loco parentis” includes grandparent and guardian, any person acting by, through, or under the direction of a court with jurisdiction over the child, and anyone who has express or implied consent of the parent or parents.

A

Sec. 9.62. EDUCATOR-STUDENT.
The use of force, but not deadly force, against a person is justified:
(1). If the actor is entrusted with the care, supervision, or administration of the person for a special purpose; and
(2). When and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary to further the special purpose or to maintain discipline in a group.

Sec. 9.63. GUARDIAN-INCOMPETENT.
The use of force, but not deadly force, against a mental incompetent is justified:
(1). If the actor is the incompetent’s guardian or someone similarly responsible for the general care and supervision of the incompetent; and
(2). When and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary:
(A). To safeguard and promote the incompetent’s
welfare; or
(B). If the incompetent is in an institution for his care and custody, to maintain discipline in the institution.

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31
Q

Sec. 19.01. TYPES OF CRIMINAL HOMICIDE.

(a) A person commits criminal homicide if he *intentionally, *knowingly, recklessly, or with
* criminal negligence
causes the death of an individual.

(b). A Criminal homicide is:

A

capital murder
murder
manslaughter
criminally negligent homicide

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32
Q

Sec. 19.02. ____________

(b) . A person commits this offense if he:
(1) . Intentionally or knowingly causes the death of an individual;
(2) . Intends to cause serious bodily injury and commits an act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of an individual; or
(3) . Commits or attempts to commit a felony, other than manslaughter, and in the course of and in furtherance of the commission or attempt, or in immediate flight from the commission or attempt, he commits or attempts to commit an act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of an individual.

(d). At the punishment stage of a trial, the defendant may raise the issue as to whether he caused the death under the immediate influence of
sudden passion arising from an adequate cause.
The defendant must prove the issue in the affirmative by a preponderance of the evidence.

A

MURDER.

(a) In this section:
(1) . “Adequate cause” means cause that would commonly produce a degree of anger, rage, resentment, or terror in a person of ordinary temper, sufficient to render the mind incapable of cool reflection.
(2) . “Sudden passion” means passion directly caused by and arising out of provocation by the individual killed or another acting with the person killed which passion arises at the time of the offense and is not solely the result of former provocation.

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33
Q

Sec. 19.03. ______________

(a). A person commits this offense if the person commits MURDER as defined under Section 19.02(b). and:

(1) . The person murders a peace officer or fireman who is acting in the lawful discharge of an official duty and who the person knows is a peace officer or fireman;
(2) . The person intentionally commits the murder in the course of committing or attempting to commit **kidnapping, *burglary, *robbery,
* aggravated sexual assault, *arson, *obstruction or retaliation, or *terroristic threat.

(3) . The person commits the murder for remuneration or the promise of remuneration or employs another to commit the murder for remuneration or the promise of remuneration;
(4) . The person commits the murder while escaping or attempting to escape from a penal institution;

(5). The person, while incarcerated in a penal institution, murders another:
(A). Who is employed in the operation of the penal
institution; or
(B). With the intent to establish, maintain, or participate in a combination or in the profits of a combination;
(6). The person:
(A). While incarcerated for an offense of MURDER or Capital Murder murders another;
(B). While serving a sentence of life imprisonment or a term of 99 years for an offense of 20.04 Aggravated Kidnapping, 22.021 Aggravated Sexual Assault , or 29.03 Aggravated Robbery, murders another;

(7). The person murders more than one person:
(A). during the same criminal transaction (killing spree); or
(B). during different criminal transactions but
the murders are committed pursuant to the same scheme or course of conduct (serial killing);

(8) . The person murders an individual under
* 10 years of. age; or
(9) . The person murders another person in retaliation for or on account of the service or status of the other person as a *judge or *justice of the supreme court, the court of criminal appeals, a court of appeals, a district court, a criminal district court, a constitutional county court, a statutory county court, a justice court, or a municipal court.

(c). If the jury or, when authorized by law, the judge does not find beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant is guilty of an offense under this section, he may be convicted of murder or of any other lesser included offense.

A

CAPITAL MURDER.

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34
Q

Sec. 19.04. __________________.

(a) A person commits this offense if he recklessly causes the death of an individual.

A

MANSLAUGHTER

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35
Q

Sec. 19.05. _________________

(a) A person commits this offense if he causes the death of an individual by criminal negligence.

A

CRIMINALLY NEGLIGENT HOMICIDE.

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36
Q

Sec. 19.06. APPLICABILITY TO CERTAIN CONDUCT.

This chapter _______ apply to the death of an unborn child if the conduct charged is:

(1) . Conduct committed by the mother of the unborn child; (attempted suicide)
(2) . A lawful medical procedure performed by a physician or other licensed health care provider with the requisite consent, if the death of the unborn child was the intended result of the procedure; (abortion)
(3) . A lawful medical procedure performed by a physician or other licensed health care provider with the requisite consent as part of an assisted reproduction as defined by Section 160.102, Family Code; (oops) or
(4) . The dispensation of a drug in accordance with law or administration of a drug prescribed in accordance with law. (The day after pill)

A

does not

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37
Q

Sec. 20.01. DEFINITIONS.
In this chapter:

(1). “Restrain” means:
to restrict a person’s movements without consent, so as to interfere substantially with the person’s liberty, by moving the person from one place to another or by confining the person.
Restraint is “without consent” if it is accomplished by:
(A). Force, intimidation, or deception; or
(B). Any means, including acquiescence of the
victim, if:
(i). The victim is a child who is less than 14 years of age or an incompetent person and the parent, guardian, or person or institution acting in loco parentis has not acquiesced in the movement or confinement; or
(ii). The victim is a child who is
14 years of age or older and younger than 17 years of age, the victim is taken outside of the state and outside a 120-mile radius from the victim’s residence, and the parent, guardian, or person or institution acting in loco parentis has not acquiesced in the movement.

A

(2). “Abduct” means:
to restrain a person with intent to prevent his liberation by:
(A). secreting or holding him in a place where he is not likely to be found; or
(B). using or threatening to use deadly force

(3). “Relative” means:
a parent or stepparent, ancestor, sibling, or uncle or aunt, including an adoptive relative of the same degree through marriage or adoption.

(4). “Person” means:
an individual, corporation, or. association.

(5). Notwithstanding Section 1.07,
“individual” means:
a human being who has been born and is alive.

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38
Q

Sec. 20.02. ________________.

(a) A person commits this offense if he intentionally or knowingly restrains another person.

(b) . It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:
(1) . The person restrained was a child younger than 14 years of age;
(2) . The actor was a relative of the child; and
(3) . The actor’s sole intent was to assume lawful control of the child.

A

UNLAWFUL RESTRAINT

(d). It is no offense to detain or move another under this section when it is for the purpose of effecting a lawful arrest or detaining an individual lawfully arrested.

(e) . It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:
(1) . The person restrained was a child who is 14 years of age or older and younger than 17 years of age;
(2) . The actor does not restrain the child by force, intimidation, or deception; and
(3) . The actor is not more than three years older than the child.

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39
Q

Sec.A20.03. _____________.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:
The abduction was not coupled with intent to use or to threaten to use deadly force;
The actor was a relative of the person abducted;
and the actor’s sole intent was to assume lawful control of the victim.

A

KIDNAPPING.

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40
Q

Sec. 20.04. ____________________.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with the intent to:

   - Hold him for ransom or reward;
   - Use him as a shield or hostage;
   - Facilitate the commission of a felony or the flight after the attempt or commission of a felony;
    - Inflict bodily injury on him or violate or abuse him sexually;
    - Terrorize him or a third person; or
    -  Interfere with the performance of any governmental or political function.

A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person and uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the commission of the offense.

At the punishment stage of a trial, the defendant may raise the issue as to whether he voluntarily released the victim in a safe place. If the defendant proves the issue in the affirmative by a preponderance of the evidence, the offense is a felony of the second degree.

A

AGGRAVATED KIDNAPPING

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41
Q

Sec. 20.05. ________________.
A person commits an offense if the person, with the intent to obtain a pecuniary benefit, knowingly:
uses a motor vehicle, aircraft, watercraft, or other means of conveyance to transport an individual with the intent to conceal the individual from a peace officer or special investigator;
or flee from a person the actor knows is a peace officer or special investigator attempting to lawfully arrest or detain the actor;
or encourages or induces a person to enter or remain in this country in violation of federal law by concealing, harboring, or shielding that person from detection.

A

SMUGGLING OF PERSONS (Han Solo)

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution of an offense under this section that the actor is related to the smuggled individual within the second degree of consanguinity or, at the time of the offense, within the second degree of affinity, except when the actor commits the offense in a manner that creates a substantial likelihood that the smuggled individual will suffer serious bodily injury or death or a smuggled individual became a victim of sexual assault or aggravated sexual assault.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the actor may be prosecuted under either section or under both sections.

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42
Q

Sec. 20.06. _______________________
A person commits this offense if, during a period that is 10 or more days in duration, the person engages two or more times in conduct that constitutes the offense 20.05 - SMUGGLING OF PERSONS.

A

CONTINUOUS SMUGGLING OF PERSONS.

If a jury is the trier of fact, members of the jury are not required to agree unanimously on which specific conduct engaged in by the defendant constituted the offense of SMUGGLING OF PERSONS or on which exact date the defendant engaged in that conduct. The Jury must agree unanimously that the defendant, during a period that is 10 or more days in duration, engaged two or more times in conduct that constitutes the offense of SMUGGLING OF PERSONS for a conviction of CONTINUOUS SMUGGLING OF PERSONS.

same victim as a victim of an offense — a defendant may not be convicted of the offense — in the same criminal action and is considered by the trier of fact to be a lesser included offense of the offense alleged.

A defendant may not be charged with more than one count if alleged to have been committed against the same victim.

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43
Q

CHAPTER 20A. TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS
Sec. 20A.01. DEFINITIONS.
In this chapter:

“Forced labor or services” means:
labor or services, other than labor or services that constitute sexual conduct, that are performed or provided by another person and obtained through an actor’s use of force, fraud, or coercion.

“Traffic” means:
to transport, entice, recruit, harbor, provide, or otherwise obtain another person by any means.

A

“Child” means:

a person younger than 18 years of age.

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44
Q

Sec. 20A.02. __________________.

A person commits this offense if the person knowingly:

traffics another person with the intent that the trafficked person engage in forced labor or services;

receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves any illegal activities of 43.02 (Prostitution); 43.03 (Promotion of Prostitution); 43.04 (Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution); or 43.05 (Compelling Prostitution); including receiving labor or services the person knows are forced labor or services;

traffics another person and, through force, fraud, or coercion, causes the trafficked person to engage in conduct prohibited by:

  1. 02 (Prostitution);
  2. 03 (Promotion of Prostitution);
  3. 04 (Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution); or
  4. 05 (Compelling Prostitution);

receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity described above or engages in sexual conduct with a person trafficked as described above.

traffics a child with the intent that the trafficked child engage in forced labor or services;

receives a benefit from participating in a venture of trafficking a child with the intent that the trafficked child engage in forced labor or service including by receiving labor or services the person knows are forced labor or services;

traffics a child and by any means causes the trafficked child to engage in, or become the victim of, conduct prohibited by:

  1. 02 Continuous Sexual Abuse of Young Child or Children
  2. 11 (Indecency with a Child);
  3. 011 (Sexual Assault);
  4. 021 (Aggravated Sexual Assault);
  5. 02 (Prostitution);
  6. 03 (Promotion of Prostitution);
  7. 04 (Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution);
  8. 05 (Compelling Prostitution);
  9. 25 (Sexual Performance by a child)
  10. 251 (Employment Harmful to children)
  11. 26 (Possession or Promotion of Child Pornography);

receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity as described Above or engages in sexual conduct with a child trafficked in the manner described above.

“coercion” includes destroying, concealing, confiscating, or withholding from the trafficked person, or threatening to destroy, conceal, confiscate, or withhold from the trafficked person, the trafficked person’s actual or purported government records or identifying information or documents.

A

TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS (Taken)

regardless of whether the actor knows the age of the child at the time of the offense.

20A.04. ACCOMPLICE WITNESS; TESTIMONY AND IMMUNITY.
A party to an offense under this chapter may be required to provide evidence or testify about the offense.
A party to an offense under this chapter may not be prosecuted for any offense about which the party is required to provide evidence or testify, and the evidence and testimony may not be used against the party in any adjudicatory proceeding except a prosecution for aggravated perjury.
For purposes of this subsection, “adjudicatory proceeding” means a proceeding before a court or any other agency of government in which the legal rights, powers, duties, or privileges of specified parties are determined.
A conviction under this chapter may be had on the uncorroborated testimony of a party to the offense.

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45
Q

CHAPTER 21. SEXUAL OFFENSES
Sec.A21.01.AADEFINITIONS.

In this chapter:

“Sexual intercourse” means:
any penetration of the female sex organ by the male sex organ.

“Spouse” means:
a person to whom a person is legally married

“Sexual contact” means,
Any touching of the anus, breast, or any part of the genitals of another person with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person that is not considered to be Deviate Sexual Intercourse.

A

“Deviate sexual intercourse” means:
any contact between any part of the genitals of one person and the mouth or anus of another person; or the penetration of the genitals or the anus of another person with an object.

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46
Q

21.02. ___________________________.

A person commits an offense if:

during a period that is 30 or more days in duration, the person commits two or more acts of sexual abuse, regardless of whether the acts of sexual abuse are committed against one or more victims; and

at the time of the commission of each of the acts of sexual abuse, the actor is 17 years of age or older and the victim is a child younger than 14 years of age, regardless of whether the actor knows the age of the victim at the time of the offense.

If a jury is the trier of fact, members of the jury are not required to agree unanimously on which specific acts of sexual abuse were committed by the defendant or the exact date when those acts were committed.
The jury must agree unanimously that the defendant, during a period that is 30 or more days in duration, committed two or more acts of sexual abuse.

A defendant may not be convicted in the same criminal action of an offense listed where the victim of which is the same victim as a victim of the offense alleged unless the offense listed:
Is charged in the alternative;
Occurred outside the period in which the offense alleged was committed; or
Is considered by the trier of fact to be a lesser included offense of the offense.
A defendant may not be charged with more than one count, if all of the specific acts of sexual abuse that are alleged to have been committed are alleged to have been committed against a single victim.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that the actor:
Was not more than five years older than:
The victim of the offense, if the offense is
alleged to have been committed against only one victim; or
The youngest victim of the offense, if the offense is alleged to have been committed against more than one victim;
Did not use duress, force, or a threat against a victim at the time of the commission of any of the acts of sexual abuse alleged as an element of the offense; and
At the time of the commission of any of the acts of sexual abuse alleged as an element of the offense:
Was not required to register for life as a sex offender;
or
Was not a person, who had a reportable conviction or adjudication for an offense under this section or an act of sexual abuse.

A

CONTINUOUS SEXUAL ABUSE OF YOUNG CHILD OR CHILDREN

“Child” means a person younger than 17 years of age

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47
Q

21.06. HOMOSEXUAL CONDUCT.

A person commits an offense if he engages in deviate sexual intercourse with another individual of the same sex.

A

21.06. HOMOSEXUAL CONDUCT
was declared unconstitutional by
“Lawrence v. Texas”, 123 S.Ct. 2472.

“Lawrence what, of Arabia?”
“Only steers and queers come from TEXAS…” FMJ

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48
Q

21.07. ___________________.
A person commits this offense if the person knowingly engages in any of the following acts in a public place or, if not in a public place, the person is “reckless” about whether another is present who will be “offended or alarmed” by the person’s:

Act of sexual intercourse;

Act of deviate sexual intercourse; or

Act of sexual contact.

A

PUBLIC LEWDNESS

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49
Q

1.08. ____________________.

A person commits this offense if he exposes his
anus or any part of his genitals with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, and he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended or alarmed by his act.

A

INDECENT EXPOSURE

Not simply shitting or pissing in public “

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50
Q

21.09. _____________.
A person commits an offense if the person knowingly:
Engages in an act involving contact between:
The person’s mouth, anus, or genitals and the
anus or genitals of an animal; or
The person’s anus or genitals and the mouth
of the animal;

Fondles or touches the anus or genitals of an
animal in a manner that is not a generally accepted and otherwise lawful animal husbandry or veterinary practice, including touching through clothing;

Causes an animal to contact the seminal fluid of
the person;

Inserts any part of a person’s body or any object into the anus or genitals of an animal in a manner that is not a generally accepted and otherwise lawful animal husbandry or veterinary practice;

Possesses, sells, transfers, purchases, or otherwise obtains an animal with the intent that the animal be used for conduct listed above.

Organizes, promotes, conducts, or participates as an observer of conduct described above.

Causes a person to engage or aids a person in engaging in conduct described above.

Permits conduct described above to occur on any premises under the person’s control;

Engages in conduct described above in the presence of a child younger than 18 years of age; or

Advertises, offers, or accepts the offer of an animal with the intent that the animal be used in this state for the conduct described above.

A

BESTIALITY

“Chicken Fucker”

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51
Q

Sec.A21.11. ____________________.
A person commits this offense if, with a child younger than 17 years of age, whether the child is of the same or opposite sex and regardless of whether the person knows the age of the child at the time of the offense, the person:

Engages in sexual contact with the child or causes the child to engage in sexual contact; or

With intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person:
Exposes the person’s anus or any part of the person’s genitals, knowing the child is present; or
Causes the child to expose the child’s anus or any part of the child’s genitals.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that the actor:
Was not more than three years older than the victim and of the opposite sex;
Did not use duress, force, or a threat against the victim at the time of the offense; and
At the time of the offense:
Was not required to register for life as a sex offender; or was not a person who had a reportable conviction or adjudication for an offense under this section.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that the actor was the spouse of the child at the time of the offense. (only in Waco)

Any touching by a person, including touching
through clothing, of the anus, breast, or any part of the genitals of a child; or

Any touching of any part of the body of a child, including touching through clothing, with the anus, breast, or any part of the genitals of a person.

A

INDECENCY WITH A CHILD

Any touching by a person, including touching
through clothing, of the anus, breast, or any part of the genitals of a child; or

Any touching of any part of the body of a child, including touching through clothing, with the anus, breast, or any part of the genitals of a person.

“Child” means a person younger than 17 years of age

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52
Q

21.12. ____________________.

An employee of a public or private primary or secondary school commits an offense if the employee:
Engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviate sexual intercourse with a person who is enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school at which the employee works;

Holds a position described by The Education Code, regardless of whether the employee holds the appropriate certificate, permit, license, or credential for the position, and engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviate sexual intercourse with a person the employee knows is:

Enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school, other than the spouse of the enrolled person at the time of the offense.

A student participant in an educational activity that is sponsored by a school district or a public or private primary or secondary school, if students enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school are the primary participants in the activity; or

A

IMPROPER RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN EDUCATOR AND STUDENT

Regardless of the age of that person.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:
The actor was the spouse of the enrolled person at the time of the offense; or
The actor was not more than three years older than the enrolled person and, at the time of the offense, the actor and the enrolled person were in a relationship that began before the actor’s employment at a public or private primary or secondary school.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the actor may be prosecuted under either section or both sections.

The name of a person who is enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school and involved in an improper relationship with an educator

  • *may not** be released to the public and is
  • *not public information**.
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53
Q

21.15. _____________________.
In this section:
“Female breast” means:
any portion of the female breast below the top of the areola.
“Intimate area” means:
the naked or clothed genitals, pubic area, anus, buttocks, or female breast of a person.
“Changing room” means:
a room or portioned area provided for or primarily used for the changing of clothing and includes dressing rooms, locker rooms, and swimwear changing areas.

A person commits this offense if, without the other
person’s consent and with intent to invade the privacy of the other person, the person:

photographs or by videotape or other electronic means records, broadcasts, or transmits a visual image of an intimate area of another person if the other person has a reasonable expectation that the intimate area is not subject to public view;

photographs or by videotape or other electronic means records, broadcasts, or transmits a visual image of another in a bathroom or changing room;
or

knowing the character and content of the photograph, recording, broadcast, or transmission, promotes a photograph, recording, broadcast, or transmission of an intimate area of another person that had a reasonable expectation that the intimate area is not subject to public view to include from a bathroom or changing room.

A

INVASIVE VISUAL RECORDING

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section or the other law.

For purposes of Subsection (b)(2), a sign or signs posted indicating that the person is being photographed or that a visual image of the person is being recorded, broadcast, or transmitted is not sufficient to establish the person’s consent under that subdivision.

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54
Q

21.16. __________________.

*A person commits this offense if:
Without the effective consent of the depicted
person, the person intentionally discloses visual material depicting another person with the person’s intimate parts exposed or engaged in sexual conduct;
The visual material was obtained by the person or created under circumstances in which the depicted person had a reasonable expectation that the visual material would remain private;
The disclosure of the visual material causes harm to the depicted person; and the disclosure of the visual material reveals the identity of the depicted person in any manner, including through:
Any accompanying or subsequent information or material related to the visual material; or
Information or material provided by a third party in response to the disclosure of the visual material.

**A person commits this offense if the person intentionally threatens to disclose, without the consent of the depicted person, visual material depicting another person with the person’s intimate parts exposed or engaged in sexual conduct and the actor makes the threat to obtain a benefit:
In return for not making the disclosure; or
In connection with the threatened disclosure.

**A person commits this offense if, knowing the character and content of the visual material, the person promotes visual material on an Internet website or other forum for publication that is owned or operated by the person.

It is not a defense to prosecution under this section
that the depicted person:
Created or consented to the creation of the visual
material
; or
Voluntarily transmitted the visual material to the
actor. (Sexting)

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under
Subsection that:
The disclosure or promotion is made in the course
Of any lawful and common practices of law enforcement or medical treatment;

reporting unlawful activity; or
a legal proceeding, if the disclosure or promotion is permitted or required by law;
the disclosure or promotion consists of visual material depicting in a public or commercial setting only a person’s voluntary exposure of:
The person’s intimate parts; or
The person engaging in sexual conduct; or
The actor is an interactive computer service and the disclosure or promotion consists of visual material provided by another person.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this
section also constitutes an offense under another law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section, the other law, or both.

A

UNLAWFUL DISCLOSURE OR PROMOTION OF INTIMATE VISUAL MATERIAL

“Intimate parts” means:
the naked genitals, pubic area, anus, buttocks, or female nipple of a person.

“Promote” means:
to procure, manufacture, issue, sell, give, provide, lend, mail, deliver, transfer, transmit, publish, distribute, circulate, disseminate, present, exhibit, or advertise or to offer or agree to do any of the above.

“Sexual conduct” means:
sexual contact, actual or simulated sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse, sexual bestiality, masturbation, or sadomasochistic abuse.

“Simulated” means:
the explicit depiction of sexual conduct that creates the appearance of actual sexual conduct and during which a person engaging in the conduct exhibits any uncovered portion of the breasts, genitals, or buttocks.

“Visual material” means:
any film, photograph, videotape, negative,
or slide or any photographic reproduction that contains or incorporates in any manner any film, photograph, videotape, negative, or slide; or any disk, diskette, or other physical medium that allows an image to be displayed on a computer or other video screen and any image transmitted to a computer or other video screen by telephone line, cable, satellite transmission, or other method.

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55
Q

21.17. _____________________.

A person commits this offense if the person, with the intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of the actor, observes another person without the other person’s consent while the other person is in a dwelling or structure in which the other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section, the other law, or both.

A

VOYEURISM

Peeping Tom — Back to the Future

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56
Q

21.18. ________________.

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally threatens, including by coercion or extortion, to commit an offense of:

Chapter 43, Public indecency
20A. Trafficking of Persons 
21.16 and other sexual offenses 
22.011.   Sexual Assault
22.021.  Aggravated Sexual Assault

to obtain, in return for not committing the threatened offense or in connection with the threatened offense, any of the following benefits:

intimate visual material;
an act involving sexual conduct causing arousal or gratification; or
a monetary benefit or other benefit of value.

A person commits an offense if the person intentionally threatens, including by coercion or extortion, to commit an offense under
Chapter 19 criminal homicide
20 kidnapping, unlawful restraint, or smuggling of persons
Section 20A.02 Trafficking of Persons

to obtain, in return for not committing the threatened offense or in connection with the threatened offense, either of the following benefits:
intimate visual material; or
an act involving sexual conduct causing arousal or gratification.

This section applies to a threat regardless of how that threat is communicated, including a threat transmitted through e-mail or an Internet website, social media account, or chat room and a threat made by other electronic or technological means.

A

SEXUAL COERCION

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57
Q

Sec. 22.01. _________.
A person commits this offense if the person:

Intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, including the person’s spouse;

Intentionally or knowingly threatens another with imminent bodily injury, including the person ’s spouse; or

Intentionally or knowingly causes physical contact with another when the person knows or should reasonably believe that the other will regard the contact as offensive or provocative.

The offense is committed by intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly impeding the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of the person by applying pressure to the person’s throat or neck or by blocking the person’s nose or mouth;

The offense is committed by a person who is not a sports participant against a person the actor knows is a sports participant or in retaliation for or on account of the participant’s performance of a duty or responsibility within the participant’s capacity as a sports participant.

A

ASSAULT

”Emergency services personnel” includes
firefighters, emergency medical services personnel, emergency room personnel, and other individuals who, in the course and scope of employment or as a volunteer, provide services for the benefit of the general public during emergency situations. The actor is presumed to have known the person assaulted was a public servant, a security officer, or emergency services personnel if the person was wearing a *distinctive uniform or badge indicating the person’s employment as a public servant or status as a security officer or emergency services personnel.

“Security officer” means a commissioned security officer or a registered noncommissioned security officer.

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58
Q

22.011. __________________.
A person commits this offense if:

the person intentionally or knowingly:
Causes the penetration of the anus or sexual organ of another person by any means, without that person’s consent; (fucks a person without that person’s consent)

Causes the penetration of the mouth of another person by the sexual organ of the actor, without that
person’s consent; or

causes the sexual organ of another person,
without that person’s consent, to contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor;

Regardless of whether the person knows the age of the child at the time of the offense, the person intentionally or knowingly causes the penetration of the anus or sexual organ of a child by any means

Causes the penetration of the mouth of a child by the sexual organ of the actor or causes the sexual organ of a child to contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor;

Causes the anus of a child to contact the
mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; or

Causes the mouth of a child to contact the anus or sexual organ of another person, including the actor.

Sexual assault is without the consent of the other person if:
The actor compels the other person to submit or participate by the use of physical force, violence, or coercion;
The actor compels the other person to submit or participate by threatening to use force or violence against the other person or to cause harm to the other person, and the other person believes that the actor has the present ability to execute the threat;

The other person has not consented and the actor knows the other person is unconscious or physically unable to resist;

The actor knows that as a result of mental disease or defect the other person, at the time of the sexual assault, is incapable either of appraising the nature of the act or of resisting it;

The other person has not consented and the actor knows the other person is unaware that the sexual assault is occurring;

The actor has intentionally impaired the other person’s power to appraise or control the other person’s conduct by administering any substance without the other person’s knowledge;

The actor compels the other person to submit or participate by threatening to use force or violence against any person, and the other person believes that the actor has the ability to execute the threat;

The actor is a public servant who coerces the other
person to submit or participate;

The actor is a mental health services provider or a
health care services provider who causes the other person, who is a patient or former patient of the actor, to submit or participate by exploiting the other person’s emotional dependency on the actor;

The actor is a clergyman who causes the other person to submit or participate by exploiting the other person’s emotional dependency on the clergyman in the clergyman ’s professional character as spiritual adviser; or

The actor is an employee of a facility where the other person is a resident, unless the employee and resident are formally or informally married to each other.

A

SEXUAL ASSAULT

“Child” means a person younger than 17 years of age.

“Spouse” means a person who is legally married to

“Health care services provider” means:
A licensed physician, A licensed chiropractor, A licensed physical therapist, A licensed physician assistant, a registered nurse, a vocational nurse, or an advanced practice nurse,

“Mental health services provider" means an individual, licensed or unlicensed, who performs or purports to perform mental health services, including a licensed: 
social worker
chemical dependency counselor
professional counselor
marriage and family therapist
member of the clergy;
psychologist offering psychological services
special officer for mental health

affirmative defense to prosecution:

that the actor was the spouse of the child at the time of the offense (only in Waco, Texas)

The actor was not more than three years older
than the victim and at the time of the offense

AND …
the actor was not required to register for life as a sex offender; or was not a person who had a reportable conviction or adjudication for an offense of sexual assault.

the victim was a child of 14 years of age or older

The victim was not a person whom the actor was prohibited from marrying or purporting to marry or with whom the actor was prohibited from living under the appearance of being married.

( - PROHIBITED SEXUAL CONDUCT - )
The actor’s ancestor or descendant by blood or adoption;

The actor ’s current or former stepchild or stepparent

The actor’s parent’s brother or sister of the whole or half blood;

The actor’s brother or sister of the whole or half blood or by adoption;

The children of the actor’s brother or sister of the whole or half blood or by adoption;

The son or daughter of the actor’s aunt or uncle of the whole or half blood or by adoption.

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59
Q

22.02. ________________.
A person commits this offense if the person commits assault and the person:

Causes serious bodily injury to another, including the person’s spouse; or

Uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the commission of the assault.

A

AGGRAVATED ASSAULT

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60
Q

22.021. _________________.

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally or knowingly:

Causes the penetration of the anus or sexual organ of another person by any means, without that person’s consent;
Causes the penetration of the mouth of another person by the sexual organ of the actor, without that
person’s consent; or
Causes the sexual organ of another person, without that person’s consent, to contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; or
Regardless of whether the person knows the age of the child at the time of the offense, intentionally or
knowingly:
Causes the penetration of the anus or sexual organ of a child by any means;
Causes the penetration of the mouth of a child by the sexual organ of the actor;
Causes the sexual organ of a child to contact or penetrate the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor;
Causes the anus of a child to contact the mouth, anus, or sexual organ of another person, including the actor; or
Causes the mouth of a child to contact the anus or sexual organ of another person, including the actor;

AND the person:

Causes serious bodily injury or attempts to cause the death of the victim or another person in the course of the same criminal episode;

By acts or words places the victim in fear that any person will become the victim of an offense of
20A.02 Trafficking of persons or that death, serious bodily injury, or kidnapping will be imminently inflicted on any person;
By acts or words occurring in the presence of the victim threatens to cause any person to become the victim of an offense under 20A.02 Trafficking of Persons or to cause the death, serious bodily injury, or kidnapping of any person;

Uses or exhibits a deadly weapon in the course of the same criminal episode;
Acts in concert with another who engages in conduct of sexual assault (gang rape) directed toward the same victim and occurring during the course of the same criminal episode; or
With the intent of facilitating the commission of the offense, administers or provides to the victim of the offense any substance capable of impairing the victim’s ability to appraise the nature of the act or to resist the act;
The victim is younger than 14 years of age,
regardless of whether the person knows the age of the victim at the time of the offense; or

The victim is an elderly individual (65 and older) or a disabled individual.

A

AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ASSAULT

Serious bodily injury

Uses or exhibits a deadly weapon

Victim is younger than 14 years of age

“Disabled individual” means:
a person older than 13 years of age who by reason of age or physical or mental disease, defect, or injury is substantially unable to protect the person’s self from harm or to provide food, shelter, or medical care for the person’s self.

“Elderly individual” means:
a person 65 years of age or older.

Gang Rape

Makes certain threats (i.e. kidnapping a family member for future Trafficking of persons - prostitution)

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61
Q

22.04. _________________.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence,
by act
or intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly
by omission,
causes to a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual:

Serious bodily injury;
Serious mental deficiency, impairment, or injury;

Bodily injury.

A person commits an offense if the person is an owner, operator, or employee of a group home, nursing facility, assisted living facility, boarding home facility, intermediate care facility for persons with an intellectual or developmental disability, or other institutional care facility and the person
*intentionally, *knowingly, *recklessly, or with criminal negligence by omission causes to a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual who is a resident of that group home or facility:

Serious bodily injury;
Serious mental deficiency, impairment, or injury;
Bodily injury.

An omission that causes, Serious bodily injury;
Serious mental deficiency, impairment, or injury;
Bodily injury, is conduct constituting an offense under this section if:

The actor has a legal or statutory duty to act; or
The actor has assumed care, custody, or control of a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual.

A

INJURY TO A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL,
OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL

“Child” means a person 14 years of age or younger.

“Elderly individual” means a person 65 years of
age or older.

“Disabled individual” means a person with one or more of the following:

Autism spectrum disorder, 
Developmental disability, 
Intellectual disability, 
Severe emotional disturbance, 
Traumatic brain injury, 
Mental illness, 

who otherwise by reason of age or physical or
mental disease, defect, or injury is substantially unable to protect the person’s self from harm or to provide food, shelter, or medical care for the person’s self.

A person who is subject to prosecution under both this section and another section of this code may be prosecuted under either or both sections.

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62
Q

22.041. _______________

A person commits this offense if, having custody, care, or control of a child younger than 15 years, he intentionally abandons the child in any place under circumstances that expose the child to an unreasonable risk of harm.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence, by act or omission, engages in conduct that places a child younger than 15 years in imminent danger of death, bodily injury, or physical or mental impairment.

It is presumed that a person engaged in conduct that places a child, younger than 15 years, in imminent danger of death, bodily injury, or physical or mental impairment if:

The person manufactured, possessed, or in any way introduced into the body of any person the controlled substance methamphetamine in the presence of the child;

The person’s conduct related to the proximity or
accessibility of the controlled substance methamphetamine to the child and an analysis of a specimen of the child’s blood, urine, or other bodily substance indicates the presence of methamphetamine in the child’s body; or

The person injected, ingested, inhaled, or otherwise introduced a controlled substance listed in
** Penalty Group 1 **, Section 481.102, Health and Safety Code, into the human body when the person was not in lawful possession of the substance.

A

ABANDONING OR ENDANGERING CHILD.

“abandon” means to leave a child in any place without providing reasonable and necessary care for the child, under circumstances under which no reasonable, similarly situated adult would leave a child of that age and ability.

It is a defense to prosecution that the act or omission enables the child to practice for or participate in an organized athletic event and that appropriate safety equipment and procedures are employed in the event.

It is an exception to the application of this section that the actor voluntarily delivered the child to a designated emergency infant care provider.

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63
Q

22.05. ________________.

A person commits an offense if he recklessly engages in conduct that places another in imminent danger of serious bodily injury.

A person commits an offense if he knowingly discharges a firearm at or in the direction of:

one or more individuals; or

a habitation, building, or vehicle and is reckless as to whether the habitation, building, or vehicle is occupied.

Recklessness and danger are presumed if the actor knowingly pointed a firearm at or in the direction of another whether or not the actor believed the firearm to be loaded.

A

DEADLY CONDUCT

Just pointed a firearm without making any threats etc.

(Not Terroristic Threats, an Aggravated Assault, or an Aggravated Robbery)

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64
Q

22.06. CONSENT AS DEFENSE TO ASSAULTIVE CONDUCT.

The victim’s effective consent or the actor’s reasonable belief that the victim consented to the actor’s conduct is a defense to prosecution under Section 22.01 (Assault), 22.02 (Aggravated Assault), or 22.05 (Deadly Conduct) if:

A

The conduct did not threaten or inflict serious bodily injury;
The victim knew the conduct was a risk of:

His occupation;
Recognized medical treatment; OR
A scientific experiment conducted by recognized methods.

The defense to prosecution provided is not available to a defendant who commits an offense as a condition of the defendant’s or the victim’s initiation or continued membership in a criminal street gang.

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65
Q

22.07. ______________________.

A person commits an offense if he threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person or property with intent to:

cause a reaction of any type to his threat by an official or volunteer agency organized to deal with emergencies;

place any person in fear of imminent serious bodily injury;

prevent or interrupt the occupation or use of a building, room, place of assembly, place to which the public has access, place of employment or occupation, aircraft, automobile, or other form of conveyance, or other public place;

cause impairment or interruption of public communications, public transportation, public water, gas, or power supply or other public service;

place the public or a substantial group of the public in fear of serious bodily injury; or

influence the conduct or activities of a branch or agency of the federal government, the state, or a political subdivision of the state.

A

TERRORISTIC THREAT

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66
Q

22.08. ____________.

A person commits this offense if, with intent to promote or assist the commission of suicide by another, he aids or attempts to aid the other to commit or attempt to commit suicide.

A

AIDING SUICIDE

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67
Q

22.09. ______________

A person commits this offense if he knowingly or intentionally tampers with a consumer product knowing that the consumer product will be offered for sale to the public or as a gift to another.

A person commits an offense if he knowingly or intentionally threatens to tamper with a consumer product with the intent to cause fear, to affect the sale of the consumer product, or to cause bodily injury to any person.

A

TAMPERING WITH CONSUMER PRODUCT

“Consumer Product” means:
any product offered for sale to or for consumption by the public and includes “food” and “drugs”.
(Food and drugs includes drinkable substances)

“Tamper” means:
to alter or add a foreign substance to a consumer product to make it probable that the consumer product will cause serious bodily injury.

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68
Q

22.10. ___________________.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally or knowingly leaves a child in a motor vehicle for longer than (5) five minutes, knowing that the child is:

  • younger than (7) seven years of age*; and not attended by an individual in the vehicle who is
  • (14) fourteen years of age or older.
A

LEAVING A CHILD IN A VEHICLE

An offense under this section is a
Class C misdemeanor (Just FYI)

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69
Q

22.11. ________________________

A person commits this offense if, with the intent to assault, harass, or alarm, the person:

While imprisoned or confined in a

  • correctional or detention facility*, causes another person to contact the
  • blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces* of the actor, any other person, or an animal;

While committed to a civil commitment facility,
causes:

An officer or employee of the
Texas Civil Commitment Office to contact the
blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of the actor, any other person, or an
animal:
While the officer or employee is lawfully discharging an official duty at a civil commitment facility; or
In retaliation for or on account of an exercise of official power or performance of an official duty by the officer or employee; or
A person who contracts with the state to perform a service in the facility or an employee of that person to contact the
blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of the actor, any other person, or an animal:

While the person or employee is engaged in performing a service within the scope of the contract, if the actor knows the person or employee is authorized by the state to provide the service; or

In retaliation for or on account of the person’s or employee’s performance of a service within the scope of the contract; or

Causes another person the actor knows to be a

  • public servant* to contact the
  • blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces* of the actor, any other person, or an animal while the public servant is lawfully discharging an official duty or in retaliation or on account of an exercise of the public servant’s official power or performance of an official duty.

The actor is presumed to have known the person was a public servant if the person was wearing a distinctive uniform or badge indicating the person’s employment as a public servant.

A

HARASSMENT BY PERSONS IN CERTAIN FACILITIES;
HARASSMENT OF PUBLIC SERVANT.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the actor may be prosecuted under either section.

The actor is presumed to have known the person was a public servant if the person was wearing a distinctive uniform or badge indicating the person’s employment as a public servant.

1.07. Definitions 
“Public servant” means:
a person elected, selected, appointed, employed, or otherwise designated as one of the following, even if he has not yet qualified for office or assumed his duties:
an officer, employee, or agent of government;

a juror or grand juror;  

an arbitrator, referee, or other person who is authorized by law or private written agreement to hear or determine a cause or controversy;

an attorney at law or notary public when participating in the performance of a governmental function;

a candidate for nomination or election to public office;

a person who is performing a governmental function under a claim of right although he is not legally qualified to do so.

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70
Q

22.12.
APPLICABILITY TO CERTAIN CONDUCT.

This chapter does not apply to conduct charged as having been committed against an individual who is an unborn child if the conduct is:

A

Committed by the mother of the unborn child;

A lawful medical procedure performed by a physician or other health care provider with the requisite consent;

A lawful medical procedure performed by a physician or other licensed health care provider with the requisite consent as part of an assisted reproduction

The dispensation of a drug in accordance with law or administration of a drug prescribed in accordance with law.

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71
Q

25.01. ____________.

An individual commits this offense if he is legally married and he:

purports to marry or does marry a person
other than his spouse in this state, or any other state or foreign country, under circumstances that would, but for the actor’s prior marriage, constitute a marriage; or
lives with a person other than his spouse in this state under the appearance of being married; or

he knows that a married person other than his spouse is married and he:
purports to marry or does marry that person in this state, or any other state or foreign country, under circumstances that would, but for the person’s prior marriage, constitute a marriage; or
lives with that person in this state under the appearance of being married.

A

BIGAMY

“under the appearance of being married” means:
holding out that the parties are married with cohabitation and an intent to be married by either party.

It is a defense to prosecution that the actor reasonably believed at the time of the commission of the offense that the actor and the person whom the actor married or purported to marry or with whom the actor lived under the appearance of being married were legally eligible to be married because the actor’s prior marriage was void or had been dissolved by death, divorce, or annulment.

or

an actor’s belief is reasonable if the belief is substantiated by a certified copy of a death certificate or other signed document issued by a court.

For the purposes of this section, the lawful wife or husband of the actor may testify both for or against the actor concerning proof of the original marriage.

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72
Q

25.02 ______________________.

A person commits an offense if the person engages in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual intercourse with another person the actor knows to be, without regard to legitimacy:

The actor’s ancestor or descendant by blood or adoption;

The actor ’s current or former stepchild or stepparent

The actor’s parent’s brother or sister of the whole or half blood;

The actor’s brother or sister of the whole or half blood or by adoption;

The children of the actor’s brother or sister of the whole or half blood or by adoption;

The son or daughter of the actor’s aunt or uncle of the whole or half blood or by adoption.

A

PROHIBITED SEXUAL CONDUCT

“Deviate sexual intercourse” means:
any contact between the genitals of one person and the mouth or anus of another person with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person.

Sexual intercourse” means:
any penetration of the female sex organ by the male sex organ.

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73
Q

25.03. ____________________.

A person commits this offense if the person takes or retains a child younger than 18 years of age:

when the person knows that the person’s taking or retention violates the express terms of a judgment or order,
including a temporary order, of a court disposing of the child’s custody;

when the person has not been awarded custody of the child by a court of competent jurisdiction,
knows that a suit for divorce or a civil suit or application for habeas corpus to dispose of the child’s custody has been filed and takes the child out of the geographic area of the counties composing the judicial district if the court is a district court or the county if the court is a statutory county court,
without the permission of the court and with the intent to deprive the court of authority over the child;
OR
outside of the United States with the intent to deprive a person entitled to possession of or access to the child of that possession or access and without the permission of that person.

A noncustodial parent commits this offense if, with the intent to interfere with the lawful custody of a child younger than 18 years,
the noncustodial parent knowingly entices or persuades the child to leave the custody of the custodial parent, guardian, or person standing in the stead of the custodial parent or guardian of the child.

A

INTERFERENCE WITH CHILD CUSTODY.

S.J. Felony

It is a defense to prosecution under that the actor returned the child to the geographic area of the counties composing the judicial district if the court is a district court or the county if the court is a statutory county court, within three days after the date of the commission of the offense.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution that:

The taking or retention of the child was pursuant to a valid order providing for possession of or access to the child; or
notwithstanding any violation of a valid order providing for possession of or access to the child, the actor’s retention of the child was due only to circumstances beyond the actor’s control and the actor promptly provided notice or made reasonable attempts to provide notice of those circumstances to the other person entitled to possession of or access to the child.

does not apply if, at the time of the offense, the person taking or retaining the child was entitled to possession of or access to the child and was fleeing the commission or attempted commission of family violence against the child or the person.

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74
Q

25.031. ________________.

A person commits this offense if the person agrees, for remuneration or the promise of remuneration,
to abduct a child younger than 18 years of age by force, threat of force, misrepresentation, stealth, or unlawful entry, knowing that the child is under the care and control of a person having custody or physical possession of the child under a court order, including a temporary order, or under the care and control of another person who is exercising care and control with the consent of a person having custody or physical possession under a court order, including a temporary order.

A

AGREEMENT TO ABDUCT FROM CUSTODY.

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75
Q

25.04. _______________.

A person commits this offense if, with the intent to interfere with the lawful custody of a
child younger than 18 years,
he knowingly entices, persuades, or takes the child from the custody of the parent or guardian or person standing in the stead of the parent or guardian of such child.

A

ENTICING A CHILD

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76
Q

25.05. __________________.

An individual commits this offense if the individual intentionally or knowingly fails to provide support for the individual’s child younger than 18 years of age, or for the individual’s child who is the subject of a court order requiring the individual to support the child.

A

CRIMINAL NONSUPPORT

For purposes of this section, “child” includes a child born out of wedlock, (A Bastard), whose paternity has either been acknowledged by the actor or has been established in a civil suit under the Family Code or the law of another state.

Under this section, a conviction may be had on the uncorroborated testimony of a party to the offense.
It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that the actor could not provide support for the actor’s child.

The pendency of a prosecution under this section does not affect the power of a court to enter an order for child support under the Family Code.

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77
Q

25.06. _______________________.

A person commits an offense if he knowingly harbors a child and he is criminally negligent about whether the child:
younger than 18 years of age; and
Has escaped from the custody of a peace officer, a probation officer, the Texas Youth Council, or a detention facility for children, or is voluntarily absent from the child’s home without the consent of the child’s parent or guardian for a substantial length of time or without the intent to return.

A

HARBORING RUNAWAY CHILD

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor was related to the child within the second degree by consanguinity or affinity.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor notified:
The person or agency from which the child escaped or a law enforcement agency of the presence of the child within 24 hours after discovering that the child had escaped from custody;

or

a law enforcement agency or a person at the child’s home of the presence of the child within
24 hours after discovering that the child was voluntarily absent from home without the consent
of the child’s parent or guardian.

On the receipt of a report from a peace officer,
probation officer, the Texas Youth Council, a foster home, or a detention facility for children that a child has escaped its custody or upon receipt of a report from a parent, guardian, conservator, or legal custodian that a child is missing, a law enforcement agency shall immediately enter a record of the child into the National Crime Information Center.

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78
Q

25.07. _________________________.

A person commits an offense if, in violation of a condition of bond set in a family violence, sexual assault or abuse, stalking, or trafficking case and related to the safety of a victim or the safety of the community, after an order issued from a court and received by the actor the person knowingly or intentionally:

commits family violence or
an act in furtherance of an offense under Section 20A.02 Trafficking of Persons, 22.011 Sexual Assault , 22.021 Aggravated Sexual Assault, or 42.072 Stalking;
communicates:
directly with a protected individual or a member of the family or household in a threatening or harassing
manner;
A threat through any person to a protected individual or a member of the family or household; or
In any manner with the protected individual or a member of the family or household except through the person’s attorney or a person appointed by the court, if the violation is of an order described by this subsection and the order prohibits any communication with a protected individual or a member of the family
or household;
Goes to or near any of the following places as
specifically described in the order or condition of bond:
The residence or place of employment or business of a protected individual or a member of the family or
household; or
Any child care facility, residence, or school where a child protected by the order or condition of bond normally resides or attends;

Possesses a firearm;

Harms, threatens, or interferes with the care, custody, or control of a pet, companion animal, or assistance animal that is possessed by a person protected by the order or condition of bond; or

Removes, attempts to remove, or otherwise tampers with the normal functioning of a global positioning monitoring system.

A

VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE, CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT, SEXUAL ASSAULT OR ABUSE, STALKING, OR TRAFFICKING CASE.

For purposes of Subsection:
possession of a pet, companion animal, or assistance animal by a person means:
actual care, custody, control, or management of a pet, companion animal, or assistance animal by the person; or constructive possession of a pet, companion animal, or assistance animal owned by the person or for which the person has been the primary caregiver.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the actor may be prosecuted under either section or under both sections.

Reconciliatory actions or agreements made by persons affected by an order do not affect the validity of the order or the duty of a peace officer to enforce this section.
A peace officer investigating conduct that may constitute an offense under this section for a violation of an order may not arrest a person protected by that order for a violation of that order.

It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that certain information has been excluded from an order to which this section applies.

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79
Q

25.071. ____________________.

A person commits an offense if, in violation of an order issued under Article 6.08, Code of Criminal Procedure, the person knowingly or intentionally:

commits an offense under Title 5 (criminal homicide, kidnapping, unlawful restraint, and smuggling of people, trafficking of persons, sexual offenses, and assaultive offenses) or Section 28.02 Arson,
28.03 criminal mischief, or 28.08 Graffiti and commits the offense because of bias or prejudice as described by Article 42.014, Code of Criminal Procedure;

communicates:

directly with a protected individual in a
threatening or harassing manner;

a threat through any person to a protected
individual; or

in any manner with the protected individual, if the order prohibits any communication with a protected
individual; or

goes to or near the residence or place of employment or business of a protected individual.

A

VIOLATION OF PROTECTIVE ORDER PREVENTING OFFENSE CAUSED BY BIAS OR PREJUDICE.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the actor may be prosecuted under either section or under both sections.

A peace officer investigating conduct that may constitute an offense under this section for a violation of an order may not arrest a person protected by that order for a violation of that order.

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80
Q

25.072. _________________________.

A person commits this offense if, during a period that is 12 months or less in duration, the person two or more times engages in conduct that constitutes an offense under Section 25.07. VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE, CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT, SEXUAL ASSAULT OR ABUSE, STALKING, OR TRAFFICKING CASE.

If the jury is the trier of fact, members of the jury must agree unanimously that the defendant, during a period that is 12 months or less in duration, two or more times engaged in conduct that constituted an offense of VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE, CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT, SEXUAL ASSAULT OR ABUSE, STALKING, OR TRAFFICKING CASE.

A

REPEATED VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN FAMILY VIOLENCE, CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT, SEXUAL ASSAULT OR ABUSE, STALKING, OR TRAFFICKING CASE.

A defendant may not be convicted in the same criminal action of another offense an element of which is any conduct that is alleged as an element of the offense unless the other offense:
is charged in the alternative;
occurred outside the period in which the offense alleged under Subsection was committed;
or
is considered by the trier of fact to be a lesser included offense

defendant may not be charged with more than one count if all of the specific conduct that is alleged to have been engaged in is alleged to have been committed in violation of a single court order or single setting of bond.

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81
Q

25.08. ________________________.

A person commits this offense if he:

possesses a child younger than 18 years of age or has the custody, conservatorship, or guardianship of a child younger than 18 years of age, whether or not he has actual possession of the child, and he offers to accept, agrees to accept, or accepts a thing of value for the delivery of the child to another or for the possession of the child by another for purposes of adoption; or

offers to give, agrees to give, or gives a thing of value to another for acquiring or maintaining the possession of a child for the purpose of adoption.

A

SALE OR PURCHASE OF CHILD

It is an exception to the application of this section that the thing of value is:

a fee or reimbursement paid to a child-placing agency as authorized by law;

a fee paid to an attorney, social worker, mental health professional, or physician for services rendered in the usual course of legal or medical practice or in providing adoption counseling;

a reimbursement of legal or medical expenses incurred by a person for the benefit of the child;
or
a necessary pregnancy-related expense paid by a child-placing agency for the benefit of the child’s parent during the pregnancy or after the birth of the child as permitted by the minimum standards for child-placing agencies and Department of Protective and Regulatory Services rules.

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82
Q

25.081. __________________________.

Except as otherwise provided by this section, a person commits this offense if the person knowingly:

conducts an unregulated custody transfer of an adopted child; or

facilitates or participates in the unregulated custody transfer of an adopted child, including by transferring, recruiting, harboring, transporting, providing, soliciting, or obtaining an adopted child for that purpose.

A

UNREGULATED CUSTODY TRANSFER OF ADOPTED CHILD.

“Adopted child” means:
a person younger than 18 years of age who was legally adopted through a governmental entity or through private means, including a person who is in foster care or from a foreign country at the time of the adoption.

“Unregulated custody transfer” means:
the transfer of the permanent physical custody of an adopted child by the parent, managing conservator, or guardian of the child without receiving approval of the transfer by a court.

This section does not apply to:
the placement of an adopted child with a licensed
child-placing agency, the Department of Family and Protective Services, or
an adult relative, stepparent, or other adult with a significant and long-standing relationship to the child;

the placement of an adopted child by a licensed child-placing agency or the Department of Family and Protective Services;

the temporary placement of an adopted child by the child’s parent, managing conservator, or guardian for a designated short-term period with a specified intent and period for return of the child due to temporary circumstances, including:
a vacation;
a school-sponsored function or activity; or
the incarceration, military service,
medical treatment, or incapacity of the parent, managing conservator, or guardian;

the placement of an adopted child in another state in accordance with the requirements of Subchapter B, Chapter 162, Family Code; or

the voluntary delivery of an adopted child under Subchapter D, Chapter 262, Family Code.

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83
Q

25.09. __________________________.

A person commits this offense if the person advertises in the public media that the person will place, provide, or obtain a child for adoption or any other form of permanent physical custody of the child.

A

ADVERTISING FOR PLACEMENT OF CHILD

This section does not apply to a licensed
child-placing agency that is identified in the advertisement as a licensed child-placing agency.

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84
Q

Sec. 25.10. _____________________.

A person commits this offense if the person takes, retains, or conceals a ward when the person knows that the person’s taking, retention, or concealment interferes with a possessory right with respect to the ward.

A

INTERFERENCE WITH
RIGHTS OF GUARDIAN OF THE PERSON

“Possessory right” means:
the right of a guardian of the person to have physical possession of a ward and to establish the ward’s legal domicile.

This section does not apply to a governmental entity where the taking, retention, or concealment of the ward was authorized.

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85
Q

25.11 ___________________________.
A person commits an offense if, during a period that is 12 months or less in duration, the person two or more times engages in conduct that constitutes an offense under Section 22.01(a)(1), Assault with bodily injury, against another person or persons with a family relationship to or association with the defendant.

A

CONTINUOUS VIOLENCE AGAINST THE FAMILY.

If the jury is the trier of fact, members of the jury are not required to agree unanimously on the specific conduct in which the defendant engaged that constituted an offense of assault against the person or persons or the exact date when that conduct occurred.
The jury must agree unanimously that the defendant, during a period that is 12 months or less in duration, two or more times engaged in conduct that constituted an offense of assault against the person or persons.
A defendant may not be convicted in the same criminal action of another offense the victim of which is an alleged victim of the alleged Assault and an element of which is any conduct that is alleged as an element of the offense unless the other offense:
is charged in the alternative;
occurred outside the period in which the alleged Assault was committed; or
is considered by the trier of fact to be a lesser included offense of the alleged Assault.

A defendant may not be charged with more than one count of CONTINUOUS VIOLENCE AGAINST THE FAMILY if all of the specific conduct that is alleged to have been engaged in, is alleged to have been committed against a single victim or members of the same household.

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86
Q

TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY
CHAPTER 28. ARSON, CRIMINAL MISCHIEF, AND OTHER PROPERTY DAMAGE OR DESTRUCTION

Sec. 28.01. DEFINITIONS.
In this chapter:
“Habitation” means:
a structure or vehicle that is adapted for the overnight accommodation of persons and includes: each separately secured or occupied portion
of the structure or vehicle; and
each structure appurtenant to or connected
with the structure or vehicle.

“Building” means:
any structure or enclosure intended for use or occupation as a habitation or for some purpose of trade, manufacture, ornament, or use.

“Property” means:
real property;
tangible or intangible personal property, including anything severed from land; or
a document, including money, that represents or embodies anything of value.

“Vehicle” includes any device in, on, or by which any person or property is or may be propelled, moved, or drawn in the normal course of commerce or transportation.

A

“Open-space land” means:
real property that is undeveloped for the purpose of human habitation.

“Controlled burning” means:
the burning of unwanted vegetation with the consent of the owner of the property on which the vegetation is located and in such a manner that the fire is controlled and limited to a designated area.

“Explosive weapon” means:
any explosive or incendiary device that is designed, made, or adapted for the purpose of inflicting serious bodily injury, death, or substantial property damage, or for the principal purpose of causing such a loud report as to cause undue public alarm or terror, and includes:
An explosive or incendiary bomb, grenade,
rocket, and mine;
A device designed, made, or adapted for delivering or shooting an explosive weapon; and
A device designed, made, or adapted to start a fire in a time-delayed manner.

“Aluminum wiring” means:
insulated or noninsulated wire or cable that consists of at least 50 percent aluminum, including any tubing or conduit attached to the wire or cable.

“Bronze wiring” means:
insulated or noninsulated wire or cable that consists of at least 50 percent bronze, including any tubing or conduit attached to the wire or cable.

“Copper wiring” means:
insulated or noninsulated wire or cable that consists of at least 50 percent copper, including any tubing or conduit attached to the wire or cable.

“Transportation communications equipment” means:
An official traffic-control device, railroad sign or signal, or traffic-control signal; or
a sign, signal, or device erected by a railroad, public body, or public officer to direct the movement of a railroad train,

“Transportation communications device” means:
any item attached to
transportation communications equipment, including
aluminum wiring, bronze wiring, and copper wiring.

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87
Q

28.02. _________.

A person commits this offense if the person starts a fire, regardless of whether the fire continues after ignition, or causes an explosion with intent
to destroy or damage:

land; or
any vegetation, fence, or structure on open-space

any building, habitation, or vehicle:

knowing that it is within the limits of an incorporated city or town;

knowing that it is insured against damage or
destruction;

knowing that it is subject to a mortgage or other security interest;

knowing that it is located on property belonging to another;

knowing that it has located within it property belonging to another; or

when the person is reckless about whether the burning or explosion will endanger the life of some individual or the safety of the property of another.

A person commits an offense if the person recklessly starts a fire or causes an explosion while manufacturing or attempting to manufacture
a controlled substance and the fire or explosion damages any building, habitation, or vehicle.

A person commits an offense if the person intentionally starts a fire or causes an explosion and in so doing:

  • Recklessly damages or destroys a building belonging to another; or
  • Recklessly causes another person to suffer bodily injury or death.
A

ARSON

It is an exception to the application of Arson that the fire or explosion was a part of the
controlled burning of open-space land.

It is a defense to prosecution that prior to starting the fire or causing the explosion, the actor obtained a permit or other written authorization granted in accordance with a city ordinance,
if any, regulating fires and explosions.

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88
Q

28.03. _________________.

A person commits this offense if, without the effective consent of the owner:

he intentionally or knowingly damages or destroys the tangible property of the owner;

he intentionally or knowingly tampers with the tangible property of the owner and causes pecuniary loss or substantial inconvenience to the owner or a third person; or

he intentionally or knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions, slogans, drawings, or paintings, on the tangible property of the owner.

A

CRIMINAL MISCHIEF

the actor causes in whole or in part impairment or interruption of any public water supply, or causes to be diverted in whole, in part, or in any manner, including installation or removal of any device for any such purpose, any public water supply, regardless of the amount of the pecuniary loss

the actor causes wholly or partly impairment or interruption of property used for flood control purposes or a dam or of public communications, public transportation, public gas or power supply, or other public service; OR
the actor causes to be diverted wholly, partly, or in any manner, including installation or removal of any device for any such purpose, any public communications or public gas or power supply

89
Q

Sec. 28.04. _____________________.

A person commits this offense if, without the effective consent of the owner, he recklessly damages or destroys property of the owner.

A

RECKLESS DAMAGE OR DESTRUCTION.

FYI ——> a Class C misdemeanor.

90
Q

28.05. ACTOR’S INTEREST IN PROPERTY.

It is ___________ to prosecution under this chapter that the actor has an interest in the property damaged or destroyed if another person also has an interest that the actor is not entitled to infringe.

A

no defense

91
Q

28.06. AMOUNT OF PECUNIARY LOSS.

The amount of pecuniary loss under this chapter, if the property is destroyed, is:

A

the fair market value of the property at the time and place of the destruction; or
if the fair market value of the property cannot be ascertained, the cost of replacing the property within a reasonable time after the destruction.

The amount of pecuniary loss under this chapter, if the property is damaged, is:
**the cost of repairing or restoring the damaged property within a reasonable time after the damage occurred.

The amount of pecuniary loss under this chapter for documents, other than those having a readily ascertainable market value, is:

The amount due and collectible at maturity less any part that has been satisfied, if the document constitutes evidence of a debt; or

The greatest amount of economic loss that the owner might reasonably suffer by virtue of the destruction or damage if the document is other than evidence of a debt.

If the amount of pecuniary loss cannot be ascertained by the criteria set forth the amount of loss is deemed to be greater than $750 but less than $2,500.

If the actor proves by a preponderance of the evidence that he gave consideration for or had a legal interest in the property involved, the value of the interest so proven shall be deducted from:
The amount of pecuniary loss if the property is destroyed; or
The amount of pecuniary loss to the extent of an amount equal to the ratio the value of the interest bears to the total value of the property, if the property is damaged.

92
Q

28.07. _______________________.

A person commits this offense if the person:

throws an object or discharges a firearm or weapon
at a train or rail-mounted work equipment; or

without the effective consent of the owner:
enters or remains on railroad property, knowing that it is railroad property;
tampers with railroad property;
places an obstruction on a railroad track or
right-of-way; or
causes in any manner the derailment of a train, railroad car, or other railroad property that moves on
tracks.

A

INTERFERENCE WITH RAILROAD PROPERTY

“Railroad property” means:
a train, locomotive, railroad car, caboose,
work equipment, rolling stock, safety device, switch, or connection that is owned, leased, operated, or possessed by a railroad; or

a railroad track, rail, bridge, trestle, or right-of-way owned or used by a railroad.

“Tamper” means to move, alter, or interfere with railroad property.

93
Q

28.08. ___________.

A person commits an offense if, without the effective consent of the owner, the person intentionally or knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions, slogans, drawings, or paintings, on the tangible property of the owner with:

paint;
an indelible marker; or
an etching or engraving device

A

GRAFFITI

“Aerosol paint” means:
an aerosolized paint product.

“Etching or engraving device” means:
a device that makes a delineation or impression on tangible property, regardless of the manufacturer’s intended use for that device.

“Indelible marker” means:
a device that makes a mark with a paint or ink product that is specifically formulated to be more difficult to erase, wash out, or remove than ordinary paint or ink products.

94
Q

29.02. _____________.

A person commits this offense if, in the course of committing theft and with intent to obtain or maintain control of the property, he:

intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another; or

intentionally or knowingly threatens or places another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death.

A

ROBBERY

“In the course of committing theft” means:
conduct that occurs in an attempt to commit, during the commission, or in immediate flight after the attempt or commission of theft.

“Property” means:
tangible or intangible personal property including anything severed from land; or a document, including money, that represents or embodies anything of value.

95
Q

29.03. ____________________.

A person commits this offense if, in the course of committing theft and with intent to obtain or maintain control of the property, he:

intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes
serious bodily injury to another; or

causes bodily injury and uses or exhibits a deadly weapon;

intentionally or knowingly threatens or places another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death and uses or exhibits a deadly weapon;

or

causes bodily injury to another person or
threatens or places another person in fear of imminent bodily injury or death, if the other person is:
65 years of age or older; or a disabled person.

A

AGGRAVATED ROBBERY

“disabled person” means:
A “💦 - 🤪” or an individual with a mental, physical, or developmental disability who is substantially unable to protect himself from harm.

96
Q

30.02. ____________.

A person commits this offense if, without the effective consent of the owner, the person:

enters a habitation, or a building (or any portion of a building) not then open to the public, with intent to commit a felony, theft, or an assault; or

remains concealed, with intent to commit a felony, theft, or an assault, in a building or habitation; or enters a building or habitation and commits or attempts to commit a felony, theft, or an assault.

For purposes of this section, “enter” means to intrude:

any part of the body;
or
any physical object connected with the body.

A

BURGLARY

Habitation” means:
a structure or vehicle that is adapted for the overnight accommodation of persons, and includes: each separately secured or occupied portion
of the structure or vehicle; and
each structure appurtenant to or connected
with the structure or vehicle.

“Building” means:
any enclosed structure intended for use or occupation as a habitation or for some purpose of trade, manufacture, ornament, or use.

“Vehicle” includes any device in, on, or by which any person or property is or may be propelled, moved, or drawn in the normal course of commerce or transportation, except such devices as are classified as “habitation.”

97
Q

30.03. _______________________.

A person commits an offense if, without the effective consent of the owner, he breaks or enters into any coin-operated machine, coin collection machine, or other coin-operated or coin collection receptacle, contrivance, apparatus, or equipment used for the purpose of providing lawful amusement, sales of goods, services, or other valuable things, or telecommunications with intent to obtain property or services.

For purposes of this section, “entry” includes every kind of entry except one made with the effective consent of the owner.

A

BURGLARY OF COIN-OPERATED OR COIN COLLECTION MACHINES.

98
Q

30.04. ______________________.

A person commits this offense if, without the effective consent of the owner, he breaks into or enters a vehicle or any part of a vehicle with INTENT to commit any FELONY or THEFT.

“enter” means to intrude:
any part of the body; or
Any physical object connected with the body.

a container or trailer carried on a rail car is a part of the rail car.

A

BURGLARY OF VEHICLES

a defendant has been previously convicted under this section if the defendant was adjudged guilty of the offense or entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere in return for a grant of deferred adjudication, regardless of whether the sentence for the offense was ever imposed or whether the sentence was probated and the defendant was subsequently discharged from community supervision.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor entered a rail car or any part of a rail car and was at that time an employee or a representative of employees exercising a right under the
Railway Labor Act

99
Q

30.05. ________________.

A person commits an offense if the person enters or remains on or in property of another, including residential land, agricultural land, a recreational vehicle park, a building, or an aircraft or other vehicle, without effective consent and the person:
had notice that the entry was forbidden; or
received notice to depart but failed to do so.

“Entry” means the intrusion of the entire body. “Notice” means:
oral or written communication by the owner or someone with apparent authority to act for the owner;

fencing or other enclosure obviously designed to exclude intruders or to contain livestock;

a sign or signs posted on the property or at the entrance to the building, reasonably likely to come to the attention of intruders, indicating that entry is forbidden;

the placement of identifying purple paint marks on trees or posts on the property, provided that the marks are:
vertical lines of *not less than eight inches in length and *not less than one inch in width;
placed so that the bottom of the mark is *not less than three feet from the ground or *more than five feet from the ground; and placed at locations that are readily visible to any person approaching the property and no more than:
100 feet apart on forest land; or
1,000 feet apart on land other than forest land;
or
the visible presence on the property of a crop grown for human consumption that is under cultivation, in the process of being harvested, or marketable if harvested at the time of entry.

A

CRIMINAL TRESPASS

“Forest land” means:
land on which the trees are potentially valuable for timber products.

“Superfund site” means a facility that:
is on the National Priorities List or is listed on the state registry.

“Critical infrastructure facility” means one of
the following, if completely enclosed by a fence or other physical barrier that is obviously designed to exclude intruders:
A chemical manufacturing facility;
A refinery;
An electrical power generating facility,
substation, switching station, electrical control center, or electrical transmission or distribution facility;
A water intake structure, water treatment
facility, wastewater treatment plant, or pump station;
A natural gas transmission compressor
station; facility; office;
A liquid natural gas terminal or storage
A telecommunications central switching
A port, railroad switching yard, trucking terminal, or other freight transportation facility;
A gas processing plant, including a plant used in the processing, treatment, or fractionation of natural gas;
or
A transmission facility used by a federally licensed radio or television station.

a person has previously been convicted of an offense described by that paragraph if the person was adjudged guilty of the offense or entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere in return for a grant of deferred adjudication community supervision, regardless of whether the sentence for the offense was ever imposed or whether the sentence was probated and the person was subsequently discharged from deferred adjudication community supervision.

This section does not apply if:
the basis on which entry on the property or land or
in the building was forbidden is that entry with a handgun or other weapon was forbidden; and the actor at the time of the offense was a peace officer, including a commissioned peace officer of a recognized state, or a special investigator regardless of whether the peace officer or special investigator was engaged in the actual discharge of an official duty while carrying the weapon.

100
Q

30.06. _________________________.

A license holder commits this offense if the license holder:
carries a concealed handgun under the authority of Subchapter H, Chapter 411, Government Code, on property of another without effective consent;

and

received notice that entry on the property by a license holder with a concealed handgun was forbidden.

A

TRESPASS BY LICENSE HOLDER WITH A CONCEALED HANDGUN.

Class C misdemeanor

For purposes of this section, a person receives notice if the owner of the property or someone with apparent authority to act for the owner provides notice to the person by:
oral or written communication.

“Written communication” means:

a card or other document (Handed to them?) on which is written language identical to the following:

“Pursuant to Section 30.06, Penal Code (trespass by license holder with a concealed handgun), a person licensed under Subchapter H, Chapter 411, Government Code (handgun licensing law), may not enter this property with a concealed handgun”;

a sign posted on the property that includes:

“Pursuant to Section 30.06, Penal Code (trespass by license holder with a concealed handgun), a person licensed under Subchapter H, Chapter 411, Government Code (handgun licensing law), may not enter this property with a concealed handgun”;

in both English and Spanish;
Appears in contrasting colors with block letters at least one inch in height; and
Is displayed in a conspicuous manner clearly visible to the public.

101
Q

30.07. ________________________.

A license holder commits this offense if the license holder:

openly carries a handgun under the authority of Subchapter H, Chapter 411, Government Code, on property of another without effective consent; and
received notice that entry on the property by a license holder openly carrying a handgun was forbidden.

For purposes of this section, a person receives notice if the owner of the property or someone with apparent authority to act for the owner provides notice to the person by oral or written communication.

A

TRESPASS BY LICENSE HOLDER WITH AN OPENLY CARRIED HANDGUN.

Class C misdemeanor

“Written communication” means:
a card or other document on which is written
language identical to the following:

“Pursuant to Section 30.07, Penal Code (trespass by license holder with an openly carried handgun), a person licensed under Subchapter H, Chapter 411, Government Code (handgun licensing law), may not enter this property with a handgun that is carried openly”;
or
a sign posted on the property that:
includes the language described ABOVE in both English and Spanish;
appears in contrasting colors with
block letters at least one inch in height; and
is displayed in a conspicuous manner clearly visible to the public at each entrance to the property.

102
Q

TITLE 8. OFFENSES AGAINST PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
CHAPTER 39. ABUSE OF OFFICE

39.01. DEFINITIONS

“Law relating to a public servant’s office or
employment” means:
a law that specifically applies to a person acting in the capacity of a public servant and that directly or indirectly:

imposes a duty on the public servant; or
governs the conduct of the public servant.

“Misuse” means:
to deal with property contrary to:
An agreement under which the public servant holds the property;
A contract of employment or oath of office of
a public servant;
A law, including provisions of the General Appropriations Act specifically relating to government property, that prescribes the manner of custody or disposition of the property; or
A limited purpose for which the property is delivered or received.

A

Sec. 39.015.
CONCURRENT JURISDICTION TO PROSECUTE OFFENSES UNDER THIS CHAPTER.

With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an offense under this chapter.

103
Q

39.02. ________________.

A public servant commits an offense if, with intent to obtain a benefit or with intent to harm or defraud another, he intentionally or knowingly:

violates a law relating to the public servant’s office or employment; or
misuses government property, services, personnel, or any other thing of value belonging to the government that has come into the public servant’s custody or possession by virtue of the public servant’s office or employment.

A

ABUSE OF OFFICIAL CAPACITY

104
Q

39.03. __________________.

A public servant acting under color of his office or employment commits this offense if he:

intentionally subjects another to mistreatment or to arrest, detention, search, seizure, dispossession, assessment, or lien that he knows is unlawful;

intentionally denies or impedes another in the exercise or enjoyment of any right, privilege, power, or immunity, knowing his conduct is unlawful; or

intentionally subjects another to sexual
harassment.

A

OFFICIAL OPPRESSION.

For purposes of this section, a public servant acts
under color of his office or employment if he acts or purports to act in an official capacity or takes advantage of such actual or purported capacity.

“sexual harassment” means:
unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature, submission to which is made a term or condition of a person’s exercise or enjoyment of any right, privilege, power, or immunity, either explicitly or implicitly.

105
Q

39.04. _______________________.

An official of a correctional facility or juvenile facility, an employee of a correctional facility or juvenile facility, a person other than an employee who works for compensation at a correctional facility or juvenile facility, a volunteer at a correctional facility or juvenile facility, or a peace officer commits this offense if the person intentionally:

denies or impedes a person in custody in the exercise or enjoyment of any right, privilege, or immunity knowing his conduct is unlawful; or

engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviate sexual intercourse with an individual in custody or, in the case of an individual in the custody of the Texas Juvenile Justice Department or placed in a juvenile facility, employs, authorizes, or induces the individual to engage in sexual conduct or a sexual performance.

A

VIOLATIONS OF THE CIVIL RIGHTS OF PERSON IN CUSTODY; IMPROPER SEXUAL ACTIVITY WITH PERSON IN CUSTODY OR UNDER SUPERVISION

The Attorney General of Texas shall have concurrent jurisdiction with law enforcement agencies to investigate violations of this statute involving serious bodily injury or death.

“Custody” means:
the detention, arrest, or confinement of an adult offender, the detention of a juvenile offender, or the commitment of a juvenile offender to a correctional facility or juvenile facility.

106
Q

39.05. ________________.

A person commits this offense if the person is required to conduct an investigation and file a report and the person fails to investigate the death, fails to file the report as required, or fails to include in a filed report facts known or discovered in the investigation.

A person commits this offense if the person is required to give notice of the death of an inmate and the person fails to give the notice or conduct an investigation and file a report.

The person:
Fails to conduct the investigation or file a report
Fails to include in the report facts known to the person or discovered by the person in the investigation.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FAILURE TO REPORT DEATH OF PRISONER.

107
Q

39.06. _______________________.

A public servant commits an offense if, in reliance on information to which the public servant has access by virtue of the person’s office or employment and that has not been made public, the person:

acquires or aids another to acquire a pecuniary interest in any property, transaction, or enterprise that may be affected by the information;
speculates or aids another to speculate on the basis of the information; or

as a public servant, including as a school administrator, coerces another into suppressing or failing to report that information to a law enforcement agency.

A public servant commits this offense if with intent to obtain a benefit or with intent to harm or defraud another, he discloses or uses information for a nongovernmental purpose that:
he has access to by means of his office or employment; and
has not been made public.

A person commits this offense if, with intent to obtain a benefit or with intent to harm or defraud another, he solicits or receives from a public servant information that:
the public servant has access to by means of his office or employment; and
has not been made public.

A

MISUSE OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION

“information that has not been made public” means:
any information to which the public does not generally have access, and that is prohibited from disclosure.

108
Q

39.07. _________________.

A person who is a sheriff, chief of police, or constable or a person who otherwise has primary authority for administering a jail commits an offense if the person:
Has custody of a person subject to an immigration detainer request issued by United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement; and

knowingly fails to comply with the detainer request.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH IMMIGRATION DETAINER REQUEST

🤔

109
Q

PENAL CODE
TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY CHAPTER 31. THEFT

“Deception” means:
creating or confirming by words or conduct a false impression of law or fact that is likely to affect the judgment of another in the transaction, and that the actor does not believe to be true;
failing to correct a false impression of law or fact that is likely to affect the judgment of another in the transaction, that the actor previously created or confirmed by words or conduct, and that the actor does not now believe to be true;
preventing another from acquiring information likely to affect his judgment in the transaction;
selling or otherwise transferring or encumbering property without disclosing a lien, security interest, adverse claim, or other legal impediment to the enjoyment of the property, whether the lien, security interest, claim, or impediment is or is not valid, or is or is not a matter of official record; or
promising performance that is likely to affect the judgment of another in the transaction and that the actor does not intend to perform or knows will not be performed, except that failure to perform the promise in issue without other evidence of intent or knowledge is not sufficient proof that the actor did
not intend to perform or knew the promise would not be performed.
“Deprive” means:
to withhold property from the owner permanently or for so extended a period of time that a major portion
of the value or enjoyment of the property is lost to the owner;
to restore property only upon payment of reward or other compensation; or
To dispose of property in a manner that makes recovery of the property by the owner unlikely.

“Effective consent” includes consent by a person legally authorized to act for the owner.
Consent is not effective if:
induced by deception or coercion;
given by a person the actor knows is not legally authorized to act for the owner;
given by a person who by reason of youth, mental disease or defect, or intoxication is known by the actor to be unable to make reasonable property dispositions;
Given solely to detect the commission of an
offense; or
Given by a person who by reason of advanced age is known by the actor to have a diminished capacity to make informed and rational decisions about the reasonable disposition of property.

“Appropriate” means:
To bring about a transfer or purported transfer of title to or other nonpossessory interest in property, whether to the actor or another; or
To acquire or otherwise exercise control over property other than real property.

“Property” means:
Real property;
Tangible or intangible personal property including anything severed from land; or
A document, including money, that represents or embodies anything of value.

“Service” includes:
Labor and professional service;
Telecommunication, public utility, or
transportation service;
Lodging, restaurant service, and entertainment; and
The supply of a motor vehicle or other property for use.

“Steal” means to acquire property or service by
theft.

“Retail merchandise” means one or more items of tangible personal property displayed, held, stored, or offered for sale in a retail establishment.

“Retail theft detector” means an electrical, mechanical, electronic, or magnetic device used to prevent or detect shoplifting and includes any article or component part essential to the proper operation of the device.

“Shielding or deactivation instrument” means any item or tool designed, made, or adapted for the purpose of preventing the detection of stolen merchandise by a retail theft detector.
The term includes a metal-lined or foil-lined shopping bag and any item used to remove a security tag affixed to retail merchandise.

“Restricted-use pesticide” means:
a pesticide classified as a restricted-use pesticide by the administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency

“Automated teller machine” means:
an unstaffed electronic information processing device that, at the request of a user, performs a financial transaction through the direct transmission of electronic impulses to a financial institution or through the recording of electronic impulses or other indicia of a transaction for delayed transmission to a financial institution. ATM
The term includes an automated banking machine.

A “Nonprofit organization” means:
an organization that is exempt from federal income taxation.

A

31.02. CONSOLIDATION OF THEFT OFFENSES.

Theft constitutes a single offense superseding the separate offenses previously known as:
theft, 
theft by false pretext, 
conversion by a bailee, 
theft from the person, 
shoplifting, 
acquisition of property by threat, 
swindling, 
swindling by worthless check, 
embezzlement, 
extortion, 
receiving or concealing embezzled property,     and receiving or concealing stolen property.

With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an offense under this section that involves the state Medicaid program.

110
Q

31.03. ________~.
A person commits this offense if he unlawfully appropriates property with intent to deprive the owner of property.

Appropriation of property is unlawful if:
it is without the owner’s effective consent;
the property is stolen and the actor appropriates
the property knowing it was stolen by another; or
property in the custody of any law enforcement
agency was explicitly represented by any law enforcement agent to the actor as being stolen and the actor appropriates the property believing it was stolen by another.

evidence that the actor has previously participated in recent transactions other than, but similar to, that which the prosecution is based is admissible for the purpose of showing knowledge or intent and the issues of knowledge or intent are raised by the actor’s plea of not guilty;

the testimony of an accomplice shall be corroborated by proof that tends to connect the actor to the crime, but the actor’s knowledge or intent may be established by the uncorroborated testimony of the accomplice;

an actor engaged in the business of buying and selling used or secondhand personal property, or lending money on the security of personal property deposited with the actor, is presumed to know upon receipt by the actor of stolen property (other than a motor vehicle) that the property has been previously stolen from another if the actor pays for or loans against the property $25 or more (or consideration of equivalent value) and the actor knowingly or recklessly:
fails to record the name, address, and seller or pledgor;
fails to record a complete description of the property, including the serial number, if reasonably available, or other identifying characteristics; or
*fails to obtain a signed warranty from the
seller or pledgor that the seller or pledgor has the right to possess the property.
It is the express intent of this provision that the presumption arises unless the actor complies with each of the listed requirements;

“identification number” means driver’s license number, military identification number, identification certificate, or other official number capable of identifying an individual;

stolen property does not lose its character as stolen when recovered by any law enforcement agency;

It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that:
the offense occurred as a result of a deception or strategy on the part of a law enforcement agency, including the use of an undercover operative or peace officer;
the actor was provided by a law enforcement agency with a facility in which to commit the offense or an opportunity to engage in conduct constituting the offense; or
The actor was solicited to commit the offense by a peace officer, and the solicitation was of a type that would encourage a person predisposed to commit the offense to actually commit the offense, but would not encourage a person not predisposed to commit the offense to actually commit the offense.

A

THEFT

**an actor engaged in the business of obtaining abandoned or wrecked motor vehicles or parts of an abandoned or wrecked motor vehicle for resale, disposal, scrap, repair, rebuilding, demolition, or other form of salvage is presumed to know on receipt by the actor of stolen property that the property has been previously stolen from another if the actor knowingly or recklessly:
**fails to maintain an accurate and legible inventory of each motor vehicle component part purchased by or delivered to the actor, including the date of purchase or delivery, the name, age, address, sex, and driver’s license number of the seller or person making the delivery, the license plate number of the motor vehicle in which the part was delivered, a complete description of the part, and the vehicle identification number of the motor vehicle from which the part was removed, or in lieu of maintaining an inventory, fails to record the name and certificate of inventory number of the person who dismantled the motor vehicle from which the part was obtained;
**fails on receipt of a motor vehicle to obtain
a certificate of authority, sales receipt, or transfer document or a certificate of title showing that the motor vehicle is not subject to a lien or that all recorded liens on the motor vehicle have been released; or
**fails on receipt of a motor vehicle to immediately remove an unexpired license plate from the motor vehicle, to keep the plate in a secure and locked place, or to maintain an inventory, on forms provided by the Texas Department of Motor Vehicles, of license plates kept under this paragraph, including for each plate or set of plates the license plate number and the make, motor number, and vehicle identification number of the motor vehicle from which the plate was removed;
**an actor who purchases or receives a used or
secondhand motor vehicle is presumed to know on receipt by the actor of the motor vehicle that the motor vehicle has been previously stolen from another if the actor knowingly or recklessly:
**fails to report to the Texas Department of Motor Vehicles the failure of the person who sold or delivered the motor vehicle to the actor to deliver to the actor a properly executed certificate of title to the motor vehicle at the time the motor vehicle was delivered; or
**fails to file with the county tax assessor-collector of the county in which the actor received the motor vehicle, not later than the 20th day after the date the actor received the motor vehicle, the registration license receipt and certificate of title or evidence of title delivered to the actor at the time the motor vehicle was delivered;

an actor who purchases or receives from any source other than a licensed retailer or distributor of pesticides a restricted-use pesticide or a state-limited-use pesticide or a compound, mixture, or preparation containing a restricted-use or state-limited-use pesticide is presumed to know on receipt by the actor of the pesticide or compound, mixture, or preparation that the pesticide or compound, mixture, or preparation has been previously stolen from another if the actor:
**fails to record the name, address, and physical description of the seller or pledgor;
**fails to record a complete description of the amount and type of pesticide or compound, mixture, or preparation purchased or received; and
**fails to obtain a signed warranty from the seller or pledgor that the seller or pledgor has the right to
possess the property; and

**an actor who is subject to the Packers and Stockyards Act that obtains livestock from a commission merchant by representing that the actor will make prompt payment is presumed to have induced the commission merchant’s consent by deception if the actor fails to make full payment in accordance with the Packers and Stockyards Act.

111
Q

31.04. ____________________.
A person commits this offense if, with intent to avoid payment for service that the actor knows is provided only for compensation:
The actor intentionally or knowingly secures performance of the service by deception, threat, or false token;
having control over the disposition of services of another to which the actor is not entitled, the actor intentionally or knowingly diverts the other’s services to the actor’s own benefit or to the benefit of another not entitled to the services;
having control of personal property under a written rental agreement, the actor holds the property beyond the expiration of the rental period without the effective consent of the owner of the property, thereby depriving the owner of the property of its use in further rentals; or
the actor intentionally or knowingly secures the performance of the service by agreeing to provide compensation and, after the service is rendered, fails to make full payment after receiving notice demanding payment.

A

THEFT OF SERVICE

intent to avoid payment is presumed if:
The actor absconded without paying for the service or expressly refused to pay for the service in circumstances where payment is ordinarily made immediately upon rendering of the service, as in hotels, campgrounds, recreational vehicle parks, restaurants, and comparable establishments;

The actor failed to make payment under a service agreement within 10 days after receiving notice demanding payment;
The actor returns property held under a rental agreement after the expiration of the rental agreement and fails to pay the applicable rental charge for the property within 10 days after the date on which the actor received notice demanding payment; or
The actor failed to return the property held under a rental agreement:
Within five days after receiving notice demanding return, if the property is valued at less than $2,500; or
Within three days after receiving notice demanding return, if the property is valued at $2,500 or more.

notice shall be notice in writing, sent by registered or certified mail with return receipt requested or by telegram with report of delivery requested, and addressed to the actor at his address shown on the rental agreement or service agreement.

It is a defense to prosecution if the defendant secured the performance of the service by giving a post-dated check or similar sight order to the person performing the service; and
the person performing the service or any other
person presented the check or sight order for payment before the date on the check or sight order.

112
Q

31.05. ____________________.

A person commits this offense if, without the owner’s effective consent, he knowingly steals a trade secret; makes a copy of an article representing a trade secret; or communicates or transmits a trade secret.

A

THEFT OF TRADE SECRETS

“Article” means:
any object, material, device, or substance or any copy thereof, including a writing, recording, drawing, sample, specimen, prototype, model, photograph, microorganism, blueprint, or map.
“Copy” means:
a facsimile, replica, photograph, or other reproduction of an article or a note, drawing, or sketch made of or from an article.
“Representing” means:
describing, depicting, containing, constituting, reflecting, or recording.
“Trade secret” means:
the whole or any part of any scientific or technical information, design, process, procedure, formula, or improvement that has value and that the owner has taken measures to prevent from becoming available to persons other than those selected by the owner to have access for limited purposes

113
Q

31.06. _______________________.

If the actor obtained property or secured performance of service by issuing or passing a check or similar sight order for the payment of money, when the issuer did not have sufficient funds in or on deposit with the bank or other drawee for the payment in full of the check or order as well as all other checks or orders then outstanding,

it is prima facie evidence of the issuer’s intent to deprive the owner of property under the offense of (Theft) including a drawee or third-party holder in due course who negotiated the check or order or to avoid payment for service under the offense of Theft of Service (except in the case of a postdated check or order) if:

the issuer had no account with the bank or other drawee at the time the issuer issued the check or sight order; or

payment was refused by the bank or other drawee for lack of funds or insufficient funds, on presentation within 30 days after issue, and the issuer failed to pay the holder in full within 10 days after receiving notice of that refusal.

The notice may be actual notice or notice in writing that contains the following statement:

"This is a demand for payment in full for a check or order not paid because of a lack of funds or insufficient funds.  If you fail to make payment in full *within 10 days* after the date of receipt of this notice, the failure to pay creates a presumption for committing an offense, and this matter may be referred for criminal prosecution."
And is sent by first class mail, evidenced by an affidavit of service; or registered or certified mail with return receipt requested, addressed to the issuer at the issuer’s address shown on the check or order; or provided from the records of the bank, other drawee, or the records of the person to whom the check or order has been issued or passed.
A

PRESUMPTION FOR THEFT BY CHECK OR SIMILAR SIGHT ORDER

If written notice is given as prescribed, it is presumed that the notice was received no later than five days after it was sent.
Nothing in this section prevents the prosecution from establishing the requisite intent by direct evidence.
(Admission of guilt)

Partial restitution does not preclude the presumption of the requisite intent under this section.

If the actor obtained property by issuing or passing a check or similar sight order for the payment of money, the actor’s intent to deprive the owner of the property under the offense of Theft is presumed, except in the case of a postdated check or order, if:
the actor ordered the bank or other drawee to stop payment on the check or order;
the bank or drawee refused payment to the holder on presentation of the check or order within 30 days after issue;
the owner gave the actor notice of the refusal of payment and made a demand to the actor for payment or return of the property; and
the actor failed to:
pay the holder within 10 days after receiving
the demand for payment; or
return the property to the owner within 10
days after receiving the demand for return of the property.

114
Q

31.07. ___________________
A person commits this offense if he intentionally or knowingly operates another’s boat, airplane, or motor-propelled vehicle without the effective consent of the owner.

A

UNAUTHORIZED USE OF A VEHICLE.

115
Q

31.08. VALUE.

Subject to the additional criteria, value under this chapter is the fair market value of the property or service at the time and place of the offense; or

if the fair market value of the property cannot be ascertained, the cost of replacing the property within a reasonable time after the theft.

The value of documents, other than those having a readily ascertainable market value, is:

The amount due and collectible at maturity less that part which has been satisfied, if the document constitutes evidence of a debt; or
The greatest amount of economic loss that the owner might reasonably suffer by virtue of loss of the document, if the document is other than evidence of a debt.

If property or service has value that cannot be reasonably ascertained by the criteria set forth above the property or service is deemed to have a value of $750 or more but less than $2,500.

If the actor proves by a preponderance of the evidence that he gave consideration for or had a legal interest in the property or service stolen, the amount of the consideration or the value of the interest so proven shall be deducted from the value of the property or service ascertained.

A

31.09. AGGREGATION OF AMOUNTS INVOLVED IN THEFT.

When amounts are obtained in violation of this chapter pursuant to one scheme or continuing course of conduct, whether from the same or several sources, the conduct may be considered as one offense and the amounts aggregated in determining the grade of the offense.

116
Q

Sec. 31.10. ACTOR’S INTEREST IN PROPERTY.

It is __________ to prosecution under this chapter that the actor has an interest in the property or service stolen if another person has the right of exclusive possession of the property.

A

no defense

117
Q

31.12. ________________________

A person commits an offense if, without the authorization of the multichannel video or information services provider, the person intentionally or knowingly:
makes or maintains a connection, whether physically, electrically, electronically, or inductively, to:
a cable, wire, or other component of or media attached to a multichannel video or information services system;
or
a television set, videotape recorder, or other receiver attached to a multichannel video or information
system;
attaches, causes to be attached, or maintains the attachment of a device to:
a cable, wire, or other component of or media attached to a multichannel video or information services system;
or
a television set, videotape recorder, or other receiver attached to a multichannel video or information
services system;
tampers with, modifies, or maintains a
modification to a device installed by a multichannel video or information services provider; or
tampers with, modifies, or maintains a modification to an access device or uses that access device or any unauthorized access device to obtain services from a multichannel video or information services provider.

“Access device,” “connection,” and “device” mean:
an access device, connection, or device wholly or partly designed to make intelligible an encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other nonstandard signal carried by a multichannel video or information services provider.

“Encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other nonstandard signal” means:
any type of signal or transmission not intended to produce an intelligible program or service without the use of a device, signal, or information provided by a multichannel video or information services provider.

A

THEFT OF OR TAMPERING WITH MULTICHANNEL VIDEO OR INFORMATION SERVICES

“Multichannel video or information services provider” means:
a licensed cable television system, video dialtone system, multichannel multipoint distribution services system, direct broadcast satellite system, or other system providing video or information services that are distributed by cable, wire, radio frequency, or other media.

This section does not prohibit the manufacture, distribution, sale, or use of satellite receiving antennas that are otherwise permitted by state or federal law.

118
Q

31.13. _____________________.

A person commits an offense if the person for remuneration intentionally or knowingly manufactures, assembles, modifies, imports into the state, exports out of the state, distributes, advertises, or offers for sale,
with an intent to aid in the commission of an offense under Section 31.12, THEFT OF OR TAMPERING WITH MULTICHANNEL VIDEO OR INFORMATION SERVICES,
a device, a kit or part for a device, or a plan for a system of components wholly or partly designed to make intelligible an encrypted, encoded, scrambled, or other nonstandard signal carried or caused by a multichannel video or information services provider.

A

MANUFACTURE, DISTRIBUTION, OR ADVERTISEMENT OF MULTICHANNEL VIDEO OR INFORMATION SERVICES DEVICE

This section does not prohibit the manufacture, distribution, advertisement, offer for sale, or use of satellite receiving antennas that are otherwise permitted by state or federal law.

119
Q

31.15. ________________________.

A person commits an offense if, with the intent to use the instrument to commit theft, the person:
possesses a shielding or deactivation instrument;
or
knowingly manufactures, sells, offers for sale, or otherwise distributes a shielding or deactivation instrument.

A

POSSESSION, MANUFACTURE, OR DISTRIBUTION OF CERTAIN INSTRUMENTS USED TO COMMIT RETAIL THEFT.

120
Q

31.16. _______________________.

A person commits an offense if the person intentionally conducts, promotes, or facilitates an activity in which the person receives, possesses, conceals, stores, barters, sells, or disposes of:

stolen retail merchandise; or
merchandise explicitly represented to the person as being stolen retail merchandise.

A

ORGANIZED RETAIL THEFT

121
Q

31.17. ___________________________.

A person commits this offense if the person, knowing that the person is not entitled to obtain or possess that financial information:
obtains the financial sight order or payment card information of another by use of an electronic, photographic, visual imaging, recording, or other device capable of accessing, reading, recording, capturing, copying, imaging, scanning, reproducing, or storing in any manner the financial sight order or payment card information; or

transfers to a third party information obtained by the actions listed above and without consent of the owner.

A

UNAUTHORIZED ACQUISITION OR TRANSFER OF CERTAIN FINANCIAL INFORMATION.

“Financial sight order or payment card information” means:
financial information that is contained on either side of a check or similar sight order, check card, debit card, or credit card; or encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a check card, debit card, or credit card.

122
Q

31.18.. ______________.

A person commits this offense if the person:

knowingly or intentionally conducts, promotes, or facilitates an activity in which the person receives, possesses, conceals, stores, barters, sells, abandons, or disposes of stolen cargo; or cargo explicitly represented to the person as being stolen cargo;
or is employed as a driver lawfully contracted to transport a specific cargo by vehicle from a known point of origin to a known point of destination and, with the intent to conduct, promote, or facilitate an activity listed above; knowingly or intentionally:

fails to deliver the entire cargo to the known point of destination as contracted; or causes the seal to be broken on the vehicle or on an intermodal container containing any part of the cargo.

A

** CARGO THEFT**

“Cargo” means:
goods that constitute, wholly or partly, a commercial shipment of freight moving in commerce.
A shipment is considered to be moving in commerce if the shipment is located at any point between the point of origin and the final point of destination regardless of any temporary stop that is made for the
purpose of transshipment or otherwise.

123
Q

Sec. 31.19. _____________________.

A person commits an offense if the person unlawfully appropriates a petroleum product with intent to deprive the owner of the petroleum product by possessing, removing, delivering, receiving, purchasing, selling, moving, concealing, or transporting the petroleum product; or making or causing a connection to be made with, or drilling or tapping or causing a hole to be drilled or tapped in, a pipe, pipeline, or tank used to store or transport a petroleum product.

Appropriation of a petroleum product is unlawful if it is without the owner’s effective consent.

A

THEFT OF PETROLEUM PRODUCT.

“petroleum product” means crude oil, natural gas, or condensate.

124
Q

Sec. 31.11. _________________.

A person commits an offense if the person:

knowingly or intentionally removes, alters, or obliterates the serial number or other permanent identification marking on tangible personal property; or possesses, sells, or offers for sale tangible personal property and the actor knows that the serial number or other permanent identification marking has been removed, altered, or obliterated;

or

a reasonable person in the position of the actor would have known that the serial number or other permanent identification marking has been removed, altered, or obliterated. (i.e.Someone who is in possession of stolen property with identification numbers removed, altered, or obliterated)

A

TAMPERING WITH IDENTIFICATION NUMBERS

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that the person was:
the owner or acting with the effective consent of
the owner of the property involved;

a peace officer acting in the actual discharge of
official duties or acting with respect to a number assigned to a vehicle by the Texas Department of Transportation or the Texas Department of Motor Vehicles, as applicable, and the person was:
in the actual discharge of official duties as an employee or agent of the department; or
in full compliance with the rules of the department as an applicant for an assigned number approved by the department.

Property involved in a violation of this section may be
treated as stolen for purposes of custody and disposition of the property.

125
Q

PENAL CODE
TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY CHAPTER 32. FRAUD

“Financial institution” means:
a bank, trust company, insurance company, credit union, building and loan association, savings and loan association, investment trust, investment company, or any other organization held out to the public as a place for deposit of funds or medium of savings or collective investment.

“Property” means:
Real property;
Tangible or intangible personal property including anything severed from land; or
A document, including money, that represents or embodies anything of value.

Service" includes:
Labor and professional service; telecommunication, public utility, and
transportation service;
Lodging, restaurant service, and
entertainment; and
The supply of a motor vehicle or other
property for use.

“Steal” means:
to acquire property or service by
theft.

A

Sec. 32.02. VALUE.
Subject to the additional criteria, value under this chapter is:
the fair market value of the property or service at the time and place of the offense; or

if the fair market value of the property cannot be ascertained, the cost of replacing the property within a reasonable time after the offense.

The value of documents, other than those having a readily ascertainable market value, is:
The amount due and collectible at maturity less any part that has been satisfied, if the document constitutes evidence of a debt; or
the greatest amount of economic loss that the owner might reasonably suffer by virtue of loss of the document, if the document is other than evidence of a debt.

If property or service has value that cannot be reasonably ascertained by the criteria set forth above, the property or service is deemed to have a value of $750 or more but less than $2,500.

If the actor proves by a preponderance of the evidence that he gave consideration for or had a legal interest in the property or service stolen, the amount of the consideration or the value of the interest so proven shall be deducted from the value of the property or service.

126
Q

32.03. AGGREGATION OF AMOUNTS INVOLVED IN FRAUD.

When amounts are obtained in violation of this chapter pursuant to one scheme or continuing course of conduct, whether from the same or several sources, the conduct may be considered as one offense and the amounts aggregated in determining the grade of offense.

A

A”Forge” means:
To alter, make, complete, execute, or authenticate any writing so that it purports to be the act of another who did not authorize that act;

To alter, make, complete, execute, or authenticate any writing so that it purports to have been executed at a time or place or in a numbered sequence other than was in fact the case; or

To alter, make, complete, execute, or authenticate any writing so that it purports to be a copy of an original when no such original existed;

To alter, make, complete, execute, or authenticate any writing so that it purports to issue, transfer, register the transfer of, pass, publish, or otherwise utter a writing that is forged; or

To alter, make, complete, execute, or authenticate any writing so that it purports to possess a writing that is forged with intent to utter it in a manner that it is NOT forged.

“Writing” includes:
A printing or any other method of recording
information; money, coins, tokens, stamps, seals, credit cards, badges, and trademarks; and symbols of value, right, privilege, or identification.

127
Q

32.21. ___________

A person commits this offense if he forges a writing with intent to defraud or harm another.

A

FORGERY

A person is presumed to intend to defraud or harm another if the person acts with respect to two or more writings of the same type and if each writing is a government record

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section or the other law.

128
Q

32.22. _____________________.

A person commits this offense if, with intent to defraud or harm another:

He makes or alters an object, in whole or in part, so that it appears to have value because of age, antiquity, rarity, source, or authorship that it does not have;
He possesses an object so made or altered, with intent to sell, pass, or otherwise utter it; or
He authenticates or certifies an object so made or altered as genuine or as different from what it is.

A

CRIMINAL SIMULATION

not in material 2020

129
Q

32.23. ____________________.

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally manufactures, displays, advertises, distributes, offers for sale, sells, or possesses with intent to sell or distribute a counterfeit mark or an item or service that:
Bears or is identified by a counterfeit mark; or
The person knows or should have known bears or is identified by a counterfeit mark.

A state or federal certificate of registration of intellectual property is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in the certificate.

When items or services are the subject of counterfeiting in violation of this section pursuant to one scheme or continuing course of conduct, the conduct may be considered as one offense and the retail value of the items or services aggregated in determining the grade of offense.

A

TRADEMARK COUNTERFEITING
(Not in 2020 study material)

“Counterfeit mark” means:
a mark that is identical to or substantially indistinguishable from a protected mark the use or production of which is not authorized by the owner of the protected mark.

“Identification mark” means:
a data plate, serial number, or part identification number.

“Protected mark” means:
a trademark or service mark or an identification mark that is:
Registered with the secretary of state;
Registered on the principal register of the United States Patent and Trademark Office;
Registered under the laws of another state;
or
protected by Business & Commerce Code, or by U.S.C.

“Retail value” means:
the actor’s regular selling price for a counterfeit mark or an item or service that bears or is identified by a counterfeit mark, except that if an item bearing a counterfeit mark is a component of a finished product, the retail value means the actor’s regular selling price of the finished product on or in which the component is used, distributed, or sold.

130
Q

32.24. ______________________.

A person commits this offense if the person steals an unsigned check or similar sight order or, with knowledge that an unsigned check or similar sight order has been stolen, receives the check or sight order with intent to use it, to sell it, or to transfer it to a person other than the person from whom the check or sight order was stolen.

A

STEALING OR RECEIVING STOLEN CHECK OR SIMILAR SIGHT ORDER

Not in 2020 study material

131
Q

SUBCHAPTER C. CREDIT

A “Cardholder” means:
the person named on the face of a credit card or debit card to whom or for whose benefit the card is issued.

“Credit card” means:
an identification card, plate, coupon, book, number, or any other device authorizing a designated person or bearer to obtain property or services on credit.
The term includes the number or description of the device if the device itself is not produced at the time of ordering or obtaining the property or service.

“Expired credit card” means:
a credit card bearing an expiration date after that date has passed.

“Debit card” means:
an identification card, plate, coupon, book, number, or any other device authorizing a designated person or bearer to communicate a request to an unmanned teller machine or a customer convenience terminal or obtain property or services by debit to an account at a financial institution.
The term includes the number or description of the device if the device itself is not produced at the time of ordering or obtaining the benefit.

“Expired debit card” means:
a debit card bearing as its expiration date a date that has passed.

A

“Unmanned teller machine” means:
a machine, other than a telephone, capable of being operated by a customer, by which a customer may communicate to a financial institution a request to withdraw a benefit for himself or for another directly from the customer’s account or from the customer’s account under a line of credit previously authorized by the institution for the customer.

“Customer convenience terminal” means:
an unmanned teller machine the use of which does not involve personnel of a financial institution.

132
Q

32.31. _______________________

A person commits an offense if:
with intent to obtain a benefit fraudulently, he
presents or uses a credit card or debit card with knowledge that:

the card, whether or not expired;
*has not been issued to him and is not used with the effective consent of the cardholder; OR the card has expired or has been revoked or cancelled;

with intent to obtain a benefit, he uses a fictitious credit card or debit card or the pretended number or description of a fictitious card;

He receives a benefit that he knows has been obtained by a card in the manner described above.

he steals a credit card or debit card or, with
knowledge that it has been stolen, receives a credit card or debit card with intent to use it, to sell it, or to transfer it to a person other than the issuer or the cardholder;

he buys a credit card or debit card from a person who he knows is not the issuer;

not being the issuer, he sells a credit card or
debit card;

he uses or induces the cardholder to use the cardholder’s credit card or debit card to obtain property or service for the actor’s benefit for which the cardholder is financially unable to pay;

not being the cardholder, and without the effective consent of the cardholder, he possesses a credit card or debit card with intent to use it;

he possesses two or more incomplete credit cards or debit cards that have not been issued to him with intent to complete them without the effective consent of the issuer.

For purposes of this subdivision, a card is incomplete if part of the matter that an issuer requires to appear on the card before it can be used, other than the signature of the cardholder, has not yet been stamped, embossed, imprinted, or written on it;

being authorized by an issuer to furnish goods or services on presentation of a credit card or debit card, he, with intent to defraud the issuer or the cardholder, furnishes goods or services on presentation of a credit card or debit card obtained or retained in violation of this section or a credit card or debit card that is forged, expired, or revoked; or being authorized by an issuer to furnish goods or services on presentation of a credit card or debit card, he, with intent to defraud the issuer or a cardholder, fails to furnish goods or services that he represents in writing to the issuer that he has furnished.

A

CREDIT CARD OR DEBIT CARD ABUSE.

It is presumed that a person who used a revoked, cancelled, or expired credit card or debit card had knowledge that the card had been revoked, cancelled, or expired if he had received notice of revocation, cancellation, or expiration from the issuer. For purposes of this section, notice may be either notice given orally in person or by telephone, or in writing by mail or by telegram.
If written notice was sent by registered or certified mail with return receipt requested, or by telegram with report of delivery requested, addressed to the cardholder at the last address shown by the records of the issuer, it is presumed that the notice was received by the cardholder no later than five days after sent.

133
Q

32.32. __________________________.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally or
knowingly makes a materially false or misleading written statement to obtain property or credit, including a mortgage loan.

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally or knowingly makes a materially false or misleading written statement in providing an appraisal of real property for compensation.

The following agencies shall assist a prosecuting attorney of the United States or of a county or judicial district of this state, a county or state law enforcement agency of this state, or a federal law enforcement agency in the investigation of an offense under this section involving a mortgage loan:

The office of the attorney general;
The Department of Public Safety;
The Texas Department of Insurance;
The Office of Consumer Credit Commissioner;
The Texas Department of Banking;
The credit union department;
The Department of Savings and Mortgage Lending;
The Texas Real Estate Commission;
The Texas Appraiser Licensing and Certification Board; and
The Texas Department of Housing and Community
Affairs.

With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an offense under this section that involves a mortgage loan.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FALSE STATEMENT TO OBTAIN PROPERTY OR CREDIT OR IN THE PROVISION OF CERTAIN SERVICES.

“credit” includes:
A loan of money;
A furnishing property or service on credit;
A extending the due date of an obligation;
A co-making, endorsing, or guaranteeing a note or
other instrument for obtaining credit;
A line or letter of credit;
A credit card, and
A mortgage loan.

134
Q

32.33. ____________________.

A person who has signed a security agreement creating a security interest in property or a mortgage or deed of trust creating a lien on property
commits this offense if,
with intent to hinder enforcement of that interest or lien, he destroys, removes, conceals, encumbers, or otherwise harms or reduces the value of the property.

a person is presumed to have intended to hinder enforcement of the security interest or lien if, when any part of the debt secured by the security interest or lien was due, he failed to pay the part then due and if the secured party had made demand, to deliver possession of the secured property to the secured party.

A person who is a debtor under a security agreement, and who does not have a right to sell or dispose of the secured property or is required to account to the secured party for the proceeds of a permitted sale or disposition,
commits this offense
if the person sells or otherwise disposes of the secured property, or does not account to the secured party for the proceeds of a sale or other disposition as required, with intent to appropriate the proceeds or value of the secured property.
A person is presumed to have intended to appropriate proceeds if the person does not deliver the proceeds to the secured party or account to the secured party for the proceeds before the 11th day after the day that the secured party makes a lawful demand for the proceeds or account.

A

HINDERING SECURED CREDITORS

“Remove” means:
transport, without the effective consent of the secured party, from the state in which the property was located when the security interest or lien attached.

“Security interest” means:
an interest in personal property or fixtures that secures payment or performance of an obligation

135
Q

32.34. __________________________.

A person commits this offense if the person acquires, accepts possession of, or exercises control over the motor vehicle of another under a written or oral agreement to arrange for the transfer of the vehicle to a third party and:
knowing the vehicle is subject to a security interest, lease, or lien, the person transfers the vehicle to a third party without first obtaining written authorization from the vehicle’s secured creditor, lessor, or lienholder;

intending to defraud or harm the vehicle’s owner, the person transfers the vehicle to a third party;

intending to defraud or harm the vehicle’s owner, the person disposes of the vehicle in a manner other than by transfer to a third party; or
the person does not disclose the location of the vehicle on the request of the vehicle’s owner, secured creditor, lessor, or lienholder.

the actor is presumed to have intended to defraud or harm the motor vehicle’s owner if the actor does not take reasonable steps to determine whether or not the third party is financially able to pay for the vehicle.

It is a defense to prosecution that the entire indebtedness secured by or owed under the security interest, lease, or lien is paid or satisfied in full not later than the 30th day after the date that the transfer was made.

It is not a defense to prosecution that the motor vehicle’s owner has violated a contract creating a security interest, lease, or lien in the motor vehicle.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FRAUDULENT TRANSFER OF A MOTOR VEHICLE.

“Lease” means:
the grant of use and possession of a motor vehicle for consideration, whether or not the grant includes an option to buy the vehicle.

“Motor vehicle” means:
a device in, on, or by which a person or property is or may be transported or drawn on a highway, except a device used exclusively on stationary rails or tracks.

“Security interest” means:
an interest in personal property or fixtures that secures payment or performance of an obligation.

“Third party” means:
a person other than the actor or the owner of the vehicle.

“Transfer” means:
to transfer possession, whether or not another right is also transferred, by means of a sale, lease, sublease, lease assignment, or other property transfer.

136
Q

32.35. _____________________.

A person commits this offense if the person is an authorized vendor who, with intent to defraud the creditor or cardholder, presents to a creditor, for payment, a credit card transaction record of a sale that was not made by the authorized vendor or the vendor’s agent.

A person commits this offense if, without the creditor’s authorization, the person employs, solicits, or otherwise causes an authorized vendor or the vendor’s agent to present to a creditor, for payment, a credit card transaction record of a sale that was not made by the authorized vendor or the vendor’s agent.

It is presumed that a person is not the agent of an authorized vendor if a fee is paid or offered to be paid by the person to the authorized vendor in connection with the vendor’s presentment to a creditor of a credit card transaction record.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

CREDIT CARD TRANSACTION RECORD LAUNDERING

“Agent” means:
a person authorized to act on behalf of another and includes an employee.

“Authorized vendor” means:
a person authorized by a creditor to furnish property, service, or anything else of value upon presentation of a credit card by a cardholder.

“Cardholder” means:
the person named on the face of a credit card to whom or for whose benefit the credit card is issued, and includes the named person’s agents.

“Credit card” means:
an identification card, plate, coupon, book, number, or any other device authorizing a designated person or bearer to obtain property or services on credit. It includes the number or description on the device if the device itself is not produced at the time of ordering or obtaining the property or service.

“Creditor” means:
a person licensed, a bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or other regulated financial institution that lends money or otherwise extends credit to a cardholder through a credit card and that authorizes other persons to honor the credit card.

137
Q

SUBCHAPTER D.
OTHER DECEPTIVE PRACTICES
32.41. ______________________.

A person commits an offense if he issues or passes a check or similar sight order for the payment of money knowing that the issuer does not have sufficient funds in or on deposit with the bank or other drawee for the payment in full of the check or order as well as all other checks or orders outstanding at the time of issuance.

This section does not prevent the prosecution from establishing the required knowledge by direct evidence; however, for purposes of this section, the issuer ’s knowledge of insufficient funds is presumed (except in the case of a postdated check or order) if:

he had no account with the bank or other drawee at the time he issued the check or order; or

payment was refused by the bank or other drawee for lack of funds or insufficient funds on presentation within 30 days after issue and the issuer failed to pay the holder in full within 10 days after receiving notice of that refusal.

Notice may be actual notice or notice in writing that:
sent by first class mail, evidenced by an affidavit
of service; or registered or certified mail with return receipt requested;
is addressed to the issuer at the issuer’s address shown on: the check or order; the records of the bank or other drawee; or the records of the person to whom the check or order has been issued or passed; and contains the following statement:

“This is a demand for payment in full for a check or order not paid because of a lack of funds or insufficient funds. If you fail to make payment in full within 10 days after the date of receipt of this notice, the failure to pay creates a presumption for committing an offense, and this matter may be referred for criminal prosecution.”

If notice is given in accordance with the above requirements, it is presumed that the notice was received no later than five days after it was sent.

A person charged with an offense under this section may make restitution for the bad checks or sight orders.
Restitution shall be made through the prosecutor’s office if collection and processing were initiated through that office.
In other cases restitution may be, with the approval of the court in which the offense is filed:
made through the court; or
collected by a law enforcement agency if a peace officer of that agency executes a warrant against the person charged with the offense.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ISSUANCE OF BAD CHECK OR SIMILAR SIGHT ORDER.

138
Q

SUBCHAPTER D.
OTHER DECEPTIVE PRACTICES
32.42. _______________________________.

A person commits this offense if in the course of business he intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence commits one or more of the following deceptive business practices:

using, selling, or possessing for use or sale a false weight or measure, or any other device for falsely determining or recording any quality or quantity;

selling less than the represented quantity of a property or service;

taking more than the represented quantity of property or service when as a buyer the actor furnishes the weight or measure;

selling an adulterated or mislabeled commodity;

passing off property or service as that of
another;

representing that a commodity is original or new if it is deteriorated, altered, rebuilt, reconditioned, reclaimed, used, or secondhand;

representing that a commodity or service is of a particular style, grade, or model if it is of another;

advertising property or service with intent:
not to sell it as advertised, or
not to supply reasonably expectable public demand, unless the advertising adequately discloses a time or
quantity limit;

representing the price of property or service
falsely or in a way tending to mislead;

making a materially false or misleading statement
of fact concerning the reason for, existence of, or amount of a price or price reduction;

conducting a deceptive sales contest; or making a materially false or misleading statement:
in an advertisement for the purchase or sale of property or service or otherwise in connection with the purchase or sale of property or service.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

DECEPTIVE BUSINESS PRACTICES

“Adulterated” means:
varying from the standard of composition or quality prescribed by law or set by established commercial usage.

“Business” includes:
trade and commerce and advertising, selling, and buying service or property.

“Commodity” means:
any tangible or intangible personal property.

“Contest” includes:
sweepstake, puzzle, and game of chance

“Deceptive sales contest” means a sales contest:
that misrepresents the participant’s chance of winning a prize; that fails to disclose to participants on a conspicuously displayed permanent poster:

(if the contest is conducted by or through a retail outlet) or on each card game piece, entry blank, or other paraphernalia required for participation in the contest

(if the contest is not conducted by or through a retail outlet) the geographical area or number of outlets in which the contest is to be conducted:

an accurate description of each type of prize;
the minimum number and minimum amount of cash prizes;
the minimum number of each other type of prize; or

that is manipulated or rigged so that prizes are given to predetermined persons or retail establishments.

A sales contest is not deceptive if the total value of prizes to each retail outlet is in a uniform ratio to the number of game pieces distributed to that outlet.

“Mislabeled” means:
varying from the standard of truth or disclosure in labeling prescribed by law or set by established commercial usage.

“Prize” includes gift, discount, coupon, certificate, gratuity, and any other thing of value awarded in a sales contest.

“Sales contest” means:
a contest in connection with the sale of a commodity or service by which a person may, as determined by drawing, guessing, matching, or chance, receive a prize and which is not regulated by the rules of a federal regulatory agency.

“Sell” and “sale” include offer for sale, advertise for sale, expose for sale, keep for the purpose of sale, deliver for or after sale, solicit and offer to buy, and every disposition for value.

139
Q

32.43. ____________________.

A person who is a fiduciary commits this offense if,
without the consent of his beneficiary, he intentionally or knowingly solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit from another person on agreement or understanding that the benefit will influence the conduct of the fiduciary in relation to the affairs of his beneficiary.

A person commits this offense if he offers, confers, or agrees to confer any benefit the acceptance of which is an offense as listed above.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

COMMERCIAL BRIBERY

“Beneficiary” means a person for whom a fiduciary is acting.

“Fiduciary” means:

An agent or employee;

A trustee, guardian, custodian, administrator, executor, conservator, receiver, or similar fiduciary;

A lawyer, physician, accountant, appraiser, or other professional advisor; or

An officer, director, partner, manager, or other participant in the direction of the affairs of a corporation or association.

140
Q

32.44. ____________________________.

A person commits this offense if, with intent to affect the outcome of the score in a publicly exhibited contest:
he offers, confers, or agrees to confer any
benefit on, or threatens harm to:
A participant in the contest to induce him
not to use his best efforts; or
An official or other person associated with
the contest; or
The tampers with a person, animal, or thing in a
manner contrary to the rules of the contest.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally or
knowingly solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit the conferring of which would affect the outcome of the score in a publicly exhibited contest.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

RIGGING PUBLICLY EXHIBITED CONTEST.

141
Q
    1. ____________________
      • A person commits this offense if, without the consent of the governing body or a designee of the governing body of an institution of higher education, the person intentionally or knowingly solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept any benefit from another on an agreement or understanding that the benefit will influence the conduct of the person in enrolling in the institution and participating in intercollegiate athletics.*

A person commits an offense if he offers, confers, or agrees to confer any benefit the acceptance of which is the listed offense above.

It is an exception to prosecution that the person offering, conferring, or agreeing to confer a benefit and the person soliciting, accepting, or agreeing to accept a benefit are related within the second degree of consanguinity or affinity, as (a family member)

It is an exception to prosecution under the above offense that, not later than the 60th day after the date the person accepted or agreed to accept a benefit, the person contacted a law enforcement agency and furnished testimony or evidence about the offense.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ILLEGAL RECRUITMENT OF AN ATHLETE.

142
Q

32.45. __________________________…

A person commits this offense if he intentionally,
knowingly, or recklessly misapplies property he holds as a fiduciary or property of a financial institution in a manner that involves substantial risk of loss to the owner of the property or to a person for whose benefit the property is held.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

MISAPPLICATION OF FIDUCIARY PROPERTY OR PROPERTY OF FINANCIAL INSTITUTION.

“Fiduciary” includes:
a trustee, guardian, administrator, executor, conservator, and receiver; an attorney in fact or agent appointed under a durable power of attorney

Any other person acting in a fiduciary capacity, but not a commercial bailee unless the commercial bailee is a party in a motor fuel sales agreement with a distributor or supplier

An officer, manager, employee, or agent carrying on fiduciary functions on behalf of a fiduciary.

“Misapply” means:
deal with property contrary to an agreement under which the fiduciary holds the property or a law prescribing the custody or disposition of the property.

With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an offense under this section that involves the state Medicaid program.

143
Q

32.46. ___________________…

A person commits this offense if, with intent to defraud or harm any person, he, by deception:
causes another to sign or execute any document affecting property or service or the pecuniary interest of any person; or
causes or induces a public servant to file or record any purported judgment or other document purporting to memorialize or evidence an act, an order, a directive, or process of:
A purported court that is not expressly created or established under the constitution or the laws of this
state or of the United States;
A purported judicial entity that is not expressly created or established under the constitution or laws of this state or of the United States; or
A purported judicial officer of a purported court or purported judicial entity described above.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

SECURING EXECUTION OF DOCUMENT BY DECEPTION.

With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an offense under this section that involves the state Medicaid program.

144
Q

32.47. ____________________…

A person commits this offense if, with intent to defraud or harm another, he destroys, removes, conceals, alters, substitutes, or otherwise impairs the verity, legibility, or availability of a writing, other than a governmental record.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FRAUDULENT DESTRUCTION, REMOVAL, OR CONCEALMENT OF WRITING.

“writing” includes:
printing or any other method of recording information;
money, coins, tokens, stamps, seals, credit cards,
badges, trademarks;
symbols of value, right, privilege, or
identification; and
universal product codes, labels, price tags, or
markings on goods.

a will or codicil of another, whether or not the
maker is alive or dead and whether or not it has been admitted to probate, a deed, mortgage, deed of trust, security instrument, security agreement, or other writing for which the law provides public recording or filing, whether or not the writing has been acknowledged.

145
Q
    1. SIMULATING LEGAL PROCESS.
      • A person commits this offense if the person recklessly causes to be delivered to another any document that simulates a summons, complaint, judgment, or other court process with the intent to:

induce payment of a claim from another person; or cause another to:
submit to the putative authority of the
document*; or

take any action or refrain from taking any action in response to the document, in compliance with the
document, or on the basis of the document.

Proof that the document was mailed to any person with the intent that it be forwarded to the intended recipient is a sufficient showing that the document was delivered.

It is not a defense to prosecution under this section that the simulating document:
states that it is not legal process; or
purports to have been issued or authorized by a person or entity who did not have lawful authority to issue or authorize the document.

If it is shown on the trial of an offense under this section that the simulating document was filed with, presented to, or delivered to a clerk of a court or an employee of a clerk of a court created or established under the constitution or laws of this state, there is a rebuttable presumption that the document was delivered with the intent described above

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

SIMULATING LEGAL PROCESS.

146
Q

32.49. ____________________________.

A person commits this offense if, with intent to defraud or harm another, the person:

owns, holds, or is the beneficiary of a purported lien or claim asserted against real or personal property or an interest in real or personal property that is fraudulent, as described by Government Code; and

Not later than the 21st day after the date of receipt of actual or written notice sent by either certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, to the person’s last known address, or by telephonic document transfer to the recipient’s current telecopier number, requesting the execution of a release of the fraudulent lien or claim, refuses to execute the release on the request of:
the obligor or debtor or any person who owns any interest in the real or personal property described in the document or instrument that is the basis for the lien or claim.

The person who fails to execute a release of the purported lien or claim within the period prescribed is presumed to have had the intent to harm or defraud another.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

REFUSAL TO EXECUTE RELEASE OF FRAUDULENT LIEN OR CLAIM.

147
Q

32.50. ________________…

A person commits this offense if, with intent to make a profit, the person prepares, sells, offers or advertises for sale, or delivers to another person an academic product when the person knows, or should reasonably have known, that a person intends to submit or use the academic product to satisfy an academic requirement of a person other than the person who prepared the product.

A person commits this offense if, with intent to induce another person to enter into an agreement or obligation to obtain or have prepared an academic product, the person knowingly makes or disseminates a written or oral statement that the person will prepare or cause to be prepared an academic product to be sold for use in satisfying an academic requirement of a person other than the person who prepared the product.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor’s conduct consisted *solely of action taken as an employee of an institution of higher education in providing instruction, counseling, or tutoring in research or writing to students of the institution.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor’s conduct consisted solely of offering or providing tutorial or editing assistance to another person in connection with the other person’s preparation of an academic product to satisfy the other person’s academic requirement, and the actor does not offer or provide substantial preparation, writing, or research in the production of the academic product.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor’s conduct consisted solely of typing, transcribing, or reproducing a manuscript for a fee, or of offering to do so.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

DECEPTIVE PREPARATION AND MARKETING OF ACADEMIC PRODUCT.

“Academic product” means:
a term paper, thesis, dissertation, essay, report, recording, work of art, or other written, recorded, pictorial, or artistic product or material submitted or intended to be submitted by a person to satisfy an academic requirement of the person.

“Academic requirement” means:
a requirement or prerequisite to receive course credit or to complete a course of study or degree, diploma, or certificate program at an institution of higher education.

“Institution of higher education” means:
an institution of higher education or private or independent institution of higher education, or a private postsecondary educational institution.

148
Q

32.51. __________________…

A person commits this offense if the person, with the intent to harm or defraud another, obtains, possesses, transfers, or uses an item of:

identifying information of another person without the other person’s consent;
information concerning a deceased natural person, including a stillborn infant or fetus, that would be identifying information of that person were that person alive, if the item of information is obtained, possessed, transferred, or used without legal authorization; or identifying information of a child younger than 18 years of age.

the actor is presumed to have the intent to harm or defraud another if the actor possesses:

the information described above concerning three or more persons including deceased persons.

The presumption established does not apply to a business or other commercial entity or a government agency that is engaged in a business activity or governmental function that does not violate a penal law of this state.

A
  • FRAUDULENT USE OR POSSESSION OF IDENTIFYING INFORMATION.*

“Identifying information” means:
information that alone or in conjunction with other information identifies a person, including a person’s:

name and date of birth;

unique biometric data, including the person’s fingerprint, voice print, or retina or iris image;

unique electronic identification number, address, routing code, financial institution account number, telecommunication identifying information or access device, and social security number or other government-issued identification number.

“Telecommunication access device” means:
a card, plate, code, account number, personal identification number, electronic serial number, mobile identification number, or other telecommunications service, equipment, or instrument identifier or means of account access that alone or in conjunction with another telecommunication access device may be used to:
obtain money, goods, services, or other thing
of value; or initiate a transfer of funds other than a transfer originated solely by paper instrument.

If a court orders a defendant convicted of an offense under this section to make restitution to the victim of the offense, the court may order the defendant to reimburse the victim for lost income or other expenses, other than attorney’s fees, incurred as a result of the offense.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section, the other law, or both.

149
Q

32.52. ______________________.

A person commits this offense if the person:
uses or claims to hold a postsecondary degree that
the person knows:
is a fraudulent or substandard degree;
is fictitious or has otherwise not been granted to the person; or
has been revoked; and

uses or claims to hold that degree:

In a written or oral advertisement or other
promotion of a business; or

with the intent to: obtain employment, obtain a license or certificate to practice a trade, profession, or occupation; obtain a promotion, a compensation or other benefit, or an increase in compensation or other benefit, in employment or in the practice of a trade, profession, or occupation; obtain admission to an educational program in this state; or gain a position in government with authority over another person, regardless of whether the actor receives compensation for the position.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FRAUDULENT, SUBSTANDARD, OR FICTITIOUS DEGREE.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this
section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section or the other law.

150
Q

32.53. _______________…

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes the exploitation of a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual.

With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to prosecute an offense under this section that involves the Medicaid program.

A

EXPLOITATION OF CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL.

“Exploitation” means:
the illegal or improper use of a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual or of the resources of a child, elderly individual, or disabled individual for monetary or personal benefit, profit, or gain.

“Child” means a person 14 years of age or younger.

“Elderly individual” means a person 65 years of
age or older.

“Disabled individual” means a person with one or more of the following:

Autism spectrum disorder, 
Developmental disability, 
Intellectual disability, 
Severe emotional disturbance, 
Traumatic brain injury, 
Mental illness, 

who otherwise by reason of age or physical or
mental disease, defect, or injury is substantially unable to protect the person’s self from harm or to provide food, shelter, or medical care for the person’s self.

151
Q

32.54. ________________….

A person commits this offense if the person:
uses or claims to hold a military record that the
person knows:
is fraudulent, is fictitious, has otherwise not been granted, assigned to the person, or has been revoked;

and

uses or claims to hold that military record:
in a written or oral advertisement or other promotion of a business; or

with the intent to:
obtain priority in receiving services or resources under The Labor Code;
qualify for a veteran’s employment preference under Government Code;

obtain a license or certificate to practice a trade, profession, or occupation;

obtain a promotion, compensation, or other benefit, or an increase in compensation or other benefit, in employment or in the practice of a trade, profession, or occupation;

from another person;
obtain a benefit, service, or donation; obtain admission to an educational program in this state; or gain a position in state government with authority over another person, regardless of whether the actor receives compensation for the position.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FRAUDULENT OR FICTITIOUS MILITARY RECORD.

“Military record” means an enlistment record, occupation specialty, medal, award, decoration, or certification obtained by a person through the person’s service in the armed forces of the United States or the state military forces. (Guard & Reserve)

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this
section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section or the other law.

152
Q

TITLE 9.
OFFENSES AGAINST PUBLIC ORDER AND DECENCY
CHAPTER 42. DISORDERLY CONDUCT AND RELATED OFFENSES

A

It is a defense to prosecution that the actor had significant provocation for his abusive or threatening conduct.

Does not apply to a person who, at the time the person engaged in conduct prohibited under the applicable subdivision, was a student younger than 12 years of age, and the prohibited conduct occurred at a public school campus during regular school hours.

“public place” includes:
a public school campus or the school grounds on which a public school is located.

an act is deemed to occur in a public place or near
a private residence if it produces its offensive or proscribed consequences in the public place or near a private residence;
AND
a noise is presumed to be unreasonable if the noise exceeds a decibel level of 85 after the person making the noise receives notice from a magistrate or peace officer that the noise is a public nuisance.

Noise arising from space flight activities does not constitute “unreasonable noise” for purposes of this section.

153
Q

42.01. ___________________.
A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly:

uses abusive, indecent, profane, or vulgar language in a public place, and the language by its very utterance tends to incite an immediate breach of the peace;

makes an offensive gesture or display in a public place, and the gesture or display tends to incite an immediate breach of the peace;

creates, by chemical means, a noxious and unreasonable odor in a public place;

abuses or threatens a person in a public place in an obviously offensive manner;

makes unreasonable noise in a public place, other than a sport shooting range, or in or near a private residence that he has no right to occupy;

fights with another in a public place;

discharges a firearm in a public place other than a public road or a sport shooting range.

displays a firearm or other deadly weapon in a public place in a manner calculated to alarm;

discharges a firearm on or across a public road;

exposes his anus or genitals in a public place and is reckless about whether another may be present who will be offended or alarmed by his act; (pissing or shitting in public)

or

for a lewd or unlawful purpose:
enters on the property of another and looks
into a dwelling on the property through any window or other opening in the dwelling; while on the premises of a hotel or comparable establishment, looks into a guest room not the person’s own through a window or other opening in the room; or while on the premises of a public place, looks into an area such as a restroom or shower stall or changing or dressing room that is designed to provide privacy to a person using the area. (Peeping Tom)

A

DISORDERLY CONDUCT

it is a defense to prosecution for an offense that the person who discharged the firearm had a reasonable fear of bodily injury to the person or to another by a dangerous wild animal.

154
Q

42.02. ___________.

A person commits this offense if he knowingly participates in the assemblage of seven or more persons resulting in conduct which:

creates an immediate danger of damage to property or injury to persons; substantially obstructs law enforcement or other governmental functions or services; or by force, threat of force, or physical action deprives any person of a legal right or disturbs any person in the enjoyment of a legal right.

A

RIOT

“riot” = seven or more persons

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the assembly was at first lawful and when one of those assembled manifested an intent to engage in a riot the actor retired from the assembly.

It is no defense to prosecution under this section that another who was a party to the riot has been acquitted, has not been arrested, prosecuted, or convicted, has been convicted of a different offense or of a different type or class of offense, or is immune from prosecution.

155
Q

42.03. _____________________…

A person commits an offense if, without legal privilege or authority, he intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly:

obstructs a highway, street, sidewalk, railway, waterway, elevator, aisle, hallway, entrance, or exit to which the public or a substantial group of the public has access, or any other place used for the passage of persons, vehicles, or conveyances, regardless of the means of creating the obstruction and whether the obstruction arises from his acts alone or from his acts and the acts of others; or

disobeys a reasonable request or order to move issued by a person the actor knows to be or is informed is a peace officer, a fireman, or a person with authority to control the use of the premises:

To prevent obstruction of a highway or any of those areas mentioned above; or

To maintain public safety by dispersing those gathered in dangerous proximity to a fire, riot, or other hazard.

A

OBSTRUCTING HIGHWAY OR OTHER PASSAGEWAY. (Bexar Co. = DWI)

“obstruct” means:
to render impassable or to render passage unreasonably inconvenient or hazardous.

156
Q

**42.04. DEFENSE WHEN CONDUCT CONSISTS OF SPEECH OR OTHER EXPRESSION. **
If conduct that would otherwise violate Section 42.01(a)(5) (Unreasonable Noise), 42.03 (Obstructing Passageway), or 42.055 (Funeral Service Disruptions) consists of speech or other communication, of gathering with others to hear or observe such speech or communication, or of gathering with others to picket or otherwise express in a nonviolent manner a position on social, economic, political, or religious questions,

the actor must be ordered to move, disperse, or otherwise remedy the violation prior to his arrest if he has not yet intentionally harmed the interests of others which those sections seek to protect.

The order required by this section may be given by a peace officer, a fireman, a person with authority to control the use of the premises, or any person directly affected by the violation.

A

It is a defense to prosecution under Section 42.01(a)(5) (Unreasonable Noise), 42.03 (Obstructing Passageway), or 42.055 (Funeral Service Disruptions)
that in circumstances in which this section requires an order no order was given;
that an order, if given, was manifestly unreasonable in scope; or
that an order, if given, was promptly obeyed.

157
Q

42.05. ___________________.

A person commits an offense if, with intent to prevent or disrupt a lawful meeting, procession, or gathering, he obstructs or interferes with the meeting, procession, or gathering by physical action or verbal utterance.

A

DISRUPTING MEETING OR PROCESSION

158
Q

42.055. _____________________.

A person commits an offense if, during the period
beginning three hours before the service begins and ending three hours after the service is completed, the person engages in picketing within 1,000 feet of a facility or cemetery being used for a funeral service.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FUNERAL SERVICE DISRUPTIONS.

A “Facility” means:
a building at which any portion of a funeral service takes place, including a funeral parlor, mortuary, private home, or established place of worship.

A “Funeral service” means:
a ceremony, procession, or memorial service, including a wake or viewing, held in connection with the burial or cremation of the dead.

“Picketing” means:

standing, sitting, or repeated walking,
riding, driving, or other similar action by a person displaying or carrying a banner, placard, or sign;

engaging in loud singing, chanting, whistling, or yelling, with or without noise amplification through
a device such as a bullhorn or microphone; or

blocking access to a facility or cemetery
being used for a funeral service.

159
Q

42.06. __________________.

A person commits this offense if he knowingly initiates, communicates or circulates a report of a present, past, or future bombing, fire, offense, or he knows is false or baseless and that would ordinarily:
cause action by an official or volunteer agency organized to deal with emergencies; place a person in fear of imminent serious bodily injury; or prevent or interrupt the occupation of a building, room, place of assembly, place to which the public has access, or aircraft, automobile, or other mode of conveyance.

A

FALSE ALARM OR REPORT

160
Q

42.061. ________________….

A person commits this offense if the person makes a call to a 9-1-1 service, or requests 9-1-1 service using an electronic communications device, when there is not an emergency and knowingly or intentionally:

Remains silent or makes abusive or harassing statements to a PSAP (“public safety answering point”) employee.

A person commits an offense if the person knowingly permits an electronic communications device, including a telephone, under the person’s control to be used by another person in a manner described above.

A

SILENT OR ABUSIVE CALLS TO 9-1-1 SERVICE

“9-1-1 service” and “public safety answering point” or “PSAP” = (dispatchers and call-takers)

161
Q

42.062. ____________….

An individual commits this offense if the individual knowingly prevents or interferes with another individual’s ability to place an emergency call or to request assistance, including a request for assistance using an electronic communications device, in an emergency from a law enforcement agency, medical facility, or other agency or entity the primary purpose of which is to provide for the safety of individuals.

An individual commits this offense if the individual recklessly renders unusable an electronic communications device, including a telephone, that would otherwise be used by another individual to place an emergency call or to request assistance in an emergency from a law enforcement agency, medical facility, or other agency or entity the primary purpose of which is to provide for the safety of individuals.

A

INTERFERENCE WITH EMERGENCY REQUEST FOR ASSISTANCE

“emergency” means:
a condition or circumstance in which any individual is or is reasonably believed by the individual making a call or requesting assistance to be in fear of imminent assault or
in which property is or is reasonably believed by the individual making the call or requesting assistance to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.

162
Q

42.07. ________________….

A person commits this offense if, with intent to harass, annoy, alarm, abuse, torment, or embarrass another, the person:

initiates communication and in the course of the communication makes a comment, request, suggestion, or proposal that is obscene;

threatens, in a manner reasonably likely to alarm the person receiving the threat, to
inflict bodily injury on the person or to
commit a felony against the person, a member of the person’s family or household, or the person’s property;

conveys, in a manner reasonably likely to alarm the person receiving the report, a false report, which is known by the conveyor to be false, that another person has suffered death or serious bodily injury;

causes the telephone of another to ring *repeatedly or makes repeated telephone communications *anonymously or in a manner reasonably likely to harass, annoy, alarm, abuse, torment, embarrass, or offend another;
makes a telephone call and *intentionally fails to hang up or disengage the connection;

knowingly permits a telephone under the person’s control to be used by another to commit an offense under this section; or

sends repeated electronic communications in a manner reasonably likely to harass, annoy, alarm, abuse, torment, embarrass, or offend another.

this includes when this offense is against a
child under 18 years of age with the intent that the child:
commit suicide; or
engage in conduct causing serious bodily injury to the child

A

HARASSMENT

“Electronic communication” means:
a transfer of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photo-optical system.
The term includes:

a communication initiated through the use of electronic mail, instant message, network call, a cellular or other type of telephone, a computer, a camera, text message, a social media platform or application, an Internet website, any other
Internet-based communication tool, or facsimile machine; and a communication made to a “pager”!

“Obscene” means:
containing a patently offensive description of or a solicitation to commit an ultimate sex act, including sexual intercourse, masturbation, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anilingus, or a description of an excretory function.

163
Q

42.072. _____________….

A person commits an offense if the person, on more than one occasion and pursuant to the same scheme or course of conduct that is directed specifically at another person, knowingly engages in conduct that:

constitutes an offense under Section 42.07, (Harassment) or that the actor knows or reasonably should know the other person will regard as threatening:
bodily injury or death for the other person;
bodily injury or death for a member of the other person’s family or household or for an individual with whom the other person has a dating relationship; or
that an offense will be committed against the
other person’s property (“Property” includes a pet, companion animal, or assistance animal.)

causes the other person, a member of the other
person’s family or household, or an individual with whom the other person has a dating relationship to be placed in fear of bodily injury or death or in fear that an offense will be committed against the other person’s property, or to feel harassed, annoyed, alarmed, abused, tormented, embarrassed, or offended; and

would cause a reasonable person to:
fear bodily injury or death for himself or
herself;
fear bodily injury or death for a member of the person’s family or household or for an individual with whom the person has a dating relationship;
fear that an offense will be committed
against the person’s property; or
feel harassed, annoyed, alarmed, abused,
tormented, embarrassed, or offended.
A

STALKING

For purposes of this section, a trier of fact may find that different types of conduct, if engaged in on more than one occasion, constitute conduct that is engaged in pursuant to the same scheme or course of conduct.

“Property” includes a pet, companion animal, or assistance animal.

164
Q

42.08. _________________.

A person commits an offense if the person, without legal authority, knowingly:
disinters, disturbs, damages, dissects, in whole or in part, * carries away*, or treats in an offensive manner a human corpse;

conceals a human corpse knowing it to be illegally disinterred;

sells or buys a human corpse or in any way traffics in a human corpse;

transmits or conveys, or procures to be transmitted or conveyed, a human corpse to a place outside the state.

vandalizes, damages, or treats in an offensive manner the space in which a human corpse has been interred or otherwise permanently laid to rest.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ABUSE OF CORPSE.

“human corpse” includes:
any portion of a human corpse; the cremated remains of a human corpse; or any portion of the cremated remains of a human corpse.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section
also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the actor may be prosecuted under either section or both sections.

it is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor:
as a member or agent of a cemetery organization, removed or damaged anything that had been placed in or on any portion of the organization’s cemetery in violation of the rules of the organization; or
removed anything:
placed in the cemetery in violation of the
rules of the cemetery organization; or
placed in the cemetery by or with the cemetery organization’s consent but that, in the organization’s judgment, had become wrecked, unsightly, or dilapidated.

165
Q

42.09. _______________….

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally or knowingly:
tortures a livestock animal;
fails unreasonably to provide necessary food, water, or care for a livestock animal in the person’s custody;
abandons unreasonably a livestock animal in the person’s custody;
transports or confines a livestock animal in a cruel and unusual manner;
administers poison to a livestock animal, other than cattle, horses, sheep, swine, or goats, belonging to another without legal authority or the owner’s effective consent;
causes one livestock animal to fight with another livestock animal or with another animal.

uses a live livestock animal as a lure in dog race training or in dog coursing on a racetrack;

trips a horse; or

seriously overworks a livestock animal.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

CRUELTY TO LIVESTOCK ANIMALS

“Abandon” includes:
abandoning a livestock animal in the person’s custody without making reasonable arrangements for assumption of custody by another person.

“Cruel manner” includes:
a manner that causes or permits unjustified or unwarranted pain or suffering.

“Custody” includes responsibility for the health, safety, and welfare of a livestock animal subject to the person’s care and control, regardless of ownership of the livestock animal.

“Livestock animal” means:
cattle, sheep, swine, goats, ratites, or
poultry commonly raised for human consumption;

a horse, pony, mule, donkey, or hinny;

native or nonnative hoofstock raised under agriculture practices; or

native or nonnative fowl commonly raised under agricultural practices.

“Necessary food, water, or care” includes:
food, water, or care provided to the extent required to maintain the livestock animal in a state of good health.

“Torture” includes:
any act that causes unjustifiable pain or suffering.

“Trip” means:
to use an object to cause a horse to fall or lose its balance.

It is a defense to prosecution: That the actor tripped the horse for the purpose of identifying the ownership of the horse or giving veterinary care to the horse.

It is a defense to prosecution for an offense under this section that the actor was engaged in bona fide experimentation for scientific research.

It is an exception to the application of this section that the conduct engaged in by the actor is a generally accepted and otherwise lawful:
form of conduct occurring solely for the purpose of or in support of:
fishing, hunting, or trapping; or wildlife management, wildlife or depredation control, or shooting preserve practices as regulated by state and federal law; or

animal husbandry or agriculture practice
involving livestock animals.

This section does not create a civil cause of action for damages or enforcement of this section.

166
Q

42.091. _____________.

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly attacks, injures, or kills an assistance animal.

A person commits an offense if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly incites or permits an animal owned by or otherwise in the custody of the actor to attack, injure, or kill an assistance animal and, as a result of the person’s conduct, the assistance animal is attacked, injured, or killed.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ATTACK ON ASSISTANCE ANIMAL

A court shall order a defendant convicted of this offense to make restitution to the owner of the assistance animal for:

related veterinary or medical bills;
the cost of:
replacing the assistance animal; or
retraining an injured assistance animal by an organization generally recognized by agencies involved in the rehabilitation of persons with disabilities as reputable and competent to provide special equipment for or special training to
an animal to help a person with a disability; and
any other expense reasonably incurred as a result
of the offense.

167
Q

42.092. ________________…

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly:
tortures an animal or in a cruel manner kills or
causes serious bodily injury to an animal;

without the owner’s effective consent, kills,
administers poison to, or causes serious bodily injury to an animal;

fails unreasonably to provide necessary food, water, care, or shelter for an animal in the person’s custody;

abandons unreasonably an animal in the person’s custody;

transports or confines an animal in a cruel manner;

without the owner’s effective consent, causes bodily injury to an animal;

causes one animal to fight with another animal, if either animal is not a dog;

uses a live animal as a lure in dog race training or in dog coursing on a racetrack; or

seriously overworks an animal.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

CRUELTY TO NONLIVESTOCK ANIMALS.

“Abandon” includes:
abandoning an animal in the person’s custody without making reasonable arrangements for assumption of custody by another person.

“Animal” means:
a domesticated living creature, including any stray or feral cat or dog, and a wild living creature previously captured.

The term does not include an uncaptured wild living creature or a livestock animal.

“Cruel manner” includes:
a manner that causes or permits unjustified or unwarranted pain or suffering.

“Custody” includes:
responsibility for the health, safety, and welfare of an animal subject to the person’s care and control, regardless of ownership of the animal.

“Necessary food, water, care, or shelter” includes:
food, water, care, or shelter provided to the extent required to maintain the animal in a state of good health.

“Torture” includes:
any act that causes unjustifiable pain or suffering.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that:

The actor had a reasonable fear of bodily injury to the actor or to another person by a dangerous wild animal; or
The actor was engaged in bona fide experimentation for scientific research.

It is a defense to prosecution that:

the animal was discovered on the person’s property in the act of or after injuring or killing the person’s livestock animals or damaging the person’s crops and that the person killed or injured the animal at the time of this discovery; or

the person killed or injured the animal within the scope of the person’s employment as a public servant or in furtherance of activities or operations associated with electricity transmission or distribution, electricity generation or operations associated with the generation of electricity, or natural gas delivery.

It is an exception to the application of this section that the conduct engaged in by the actor is a generally accepted and otherwise lawful:
form of conduct occurring solely for the purpose of or in support of:
fishing, hunting, or trapping; or
wildlife management, wildlife or depredation control, or shooting preserve practices as regulated by state and federal law; or
animal husbandry or agriculture practice
involving livestock animals.

This section does not create a civil cause of action for damages or enforcement of the section.

168
Q

42.10. _______________.

A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly:
causes a dog to fight with another dog;

participates in the earnings of or operates a facility used for dog fighting;

uses or permits another to use any real estate, building, room, tent, arena, or other property for dog fighting;

owns or possesses dog-fighting equipment with the intent that the equipment be used to train a dog for dog fighting or in furtherance of dog fighting;

owns or trains a dog with the intent that the dog be used in an exhibition of dog fighting; or

attends as a spectator an exhibition of dog
fighting.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

DOG FIGHTING.

“Dog fighting” means:
any situation in which one dog attacks or fights with another dog.

A conviction may be had upon the uncorroborated testimony of a party to the offense.

It is a defense to prosecution that the actor caused a dog to fight with another dog to protect livestock, other property, or a person from the other dog, and for no other purpose.

169
Q

42.105. _____________.

A person commits an offense if the person knowingly:
causes a cock to fight with another cock;

participates in the earnings of a cockfight;

uses or permits another to use any real estate,
building, room, tent, arena, or other property for cockfighting;

owns or trains a cock with the intent that the cock
be used in an exhibition of cockfighting;

manufactures, buys, sells, barters, exchanges,
possesses, advertises, or otherwise offers a gaff, slasher, or other sharp implement designed for attachment to a cock with the intent that the implement be used in cockfighting; or

attends as a spectator an exhibition of cockfighting.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

🐓 COCKFIGHTING. 🐓

“Bridle” means:
a leather device designed to fit over the head and beak of a cock to prevent the cock from injuring
another cock.

“Cock” means:
the male of any type of domestic fowl.

“Cockfighting” means:
any situation in which one cock attacks or fights with another cock.

“Gaff” means:
an artificial steel spur designed to attach to the leg of a cock to replace or supplement the cock’s natural spur.

“Slasher” means:
a steel weapon resembling a curved knife blade designed to attach to the foot of a cock.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that the actor’s conduct:

occurred solely for the purpose of or in support of breeding cocks for poultry shows in which a cock is judged by the cock’s physical appearance; or

was incidental to collecting bridles, gaffs, or
slashers.

An affirmative defense to prosecution is not available
if evidence shows that the actor is also engaging in use of the cocks for cockfighting.

It is a defense to prosecution for an offense under this section that:
the actor was engaged in bona fide experimentation
for scientific research; or
the conduct engaged in by the actor is a generally
accepted and otherwise lawful animal husbandry or agriculture practice involving livestock animals.

It is an exception to the application (attends as a spectator an exhibition of cockfighting) that the actor is 15 years of age or younger at the time of the offense.

170
Q

42.11. _______________.

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally or knowingly damages, defaces, mutilates, or burns the flag of the United States or the State of Texas.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

DESTRUCTION OF FLAG

“flag” means:
an emblem, banner, or other standard or a copy of an emblem, standard, or banner that is an official or commonly recognized depiction of the flag of the United States or of this state and is capable of being flown from a staff of any character or size.

The term does not include a representation of a flag on a written or printed document, a periodical, stationery, a painting or photograph, or an article of clothing or jewelry.

It is an exception to the application of this section that the act that would otherwise constitute an offense is done in conformity with statutes of the United States or of this state relating to the proper disposal of damaged flags.

171
Q

42.12. _________….

A person commits this offense if the person recklessly discharges a firearm inside the corporate limits of a municipality having a population of 100,000 or more.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the person may be prosecuted under either section.

This offense does not affect the authority of a municipality to enact an ordinance which prohibits the discharge of a firearm.

A

DISCHARGE OF FIREARM IN CERTAIN MUNICIPALITIES

172
Q

42.14. ___________________…

A person commits an offense if:
the person intentionally directs a light from a laser pointer or other light source at an aircraft;
and
the light has an intensity sufficient to impair the operator’s ability to control the aircraft.

A

ILLUMINATION OF AIRCRAFT BY INTENSE LIGHT.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that the actor was using the light to send an emergency distress signal.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section or the other law.

173
Q

42.13. ___________________.

A person commits this offense if the person knowingly directs a light from a laser pointer at a uniformed safety officer, including a peace officer, security guard, firefighter, emergency medical service worker, or other uniformed municipal, state, or federal officer.

A

USE OF LASER POINTERS.

“laser pointer” means a device that emits a visible light amplified by the stimulated emission of radiation.

174
Q

PENAL CODE
TITLE 8. OFFENSES AGAINST PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION CHAPTER 38. OBSTRUCTING GOVERNMENTAL OPERATION
38.01. DEFINITIONS.

“Custody” means:
under arrest by a peace officer or under restraint by a public servant pursuant to an order of a court of
this state or another state of the United States; or

under restraint by an agent or employee of a
facility that is operated by or under contract with the United States and that confines persons arrested for, charged with, or convicted of criminal offenses.

“Escape” means:
unauthorized departure from custody or failure to return to custody following temporary leave for a specific purpose or limited period or leave that is part of an intermittent sentence, but
does not include a violation of conditions of community supervision or parole other than conditions that impose a period of confinement in a secure correctional facility.

“Economic benefit” means:
anything reasonably regarded as an economic gain or advantage, including accepting or offering to accept employment for a fee, accepting or offering to accept a fee, entering into a fee contract, or accepting or agreeing to accept money or anything of value.

“Finance” means:
to provide funds or capital or to furnish with necessary funds.

“Fugitive from justice” means:
a person for whom a valid arrest warrant has been issued.

“Governmental function” includes:
any activity that a public servant is lawfully authorized to undertake on behalf of government.

“Invest funds” means:
to commit money to earn a financial return.

“Member of the family” means:
anyone related within the third degree of consanguinity or affinity

A

“Qualified nonprofit organization” means:
a nonprofit organization that meets the following conditions:
the primary purposes of the organization do not include the rendition of legal services or education regarding legal services;
the recommending, furnishing, paying for, or educating persons regarding legal services is incidental and reasonably related to the primary purposes of the organization;
the organization does not derive a financial
benefit from the rendition of legal services by a lawyer; and the person for whom the legal services are rendered, and not the organization, is recognized as the client of a lawyer.

“Public media” means:
a telephone directory or legal directory, newspaper or other periodical, billboard or other sign, radio or television broadcast, recorded message the public may access by dialing a telephone number, or a written communication not prohibited.

“Solicit employment” means:
to communicate in person or by telephone with a prospective client or a member of the prospective client’s family concerning professional employment within the scope of a professional’s license, registration, or certification arising out of a particular occurrence or event, or series of occurrences or events, or concerning an existing problem of the prospective client within the scope of the professional’s license, registration, or certification, for the purpose of providing professional services to the prospective client, when neither the person receiving the communication nor anyone acting on that person’s behalf has requested the communication.
The term does not include a communication initiated by a family member of the person receiving a communication, a communication by a professional who has a prior or existing professional-client relationship with the person receiving the communication, or communication by an attorney for a qualified nonprofit organization with the organization ’s members for the purpose of educating the organization’s members to understand the law, to recognize legal problems, to make intelligent selection of legal counsel, or to use available legal services.
The term does not include an advertisement by a professional through public media.

“Professional” means:
an attorney, chiropractor, physician, surgeon, private investigator, or any other person licensed, certified, or registered by a state agency that regulates a health care profession.

175
Q

38.02. __________________.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally refuses to give his name, residence address, or date of birth to a peace officer who has lawfully arrested the person and requested the information.

A person commits this offense if he intentionally gives a false or fictitious name, residence address, or date of birth to a peace officer who has:
lawfully arrested the person; lawfully detained the person; or requested the information from a person that the peace officer has good cause to believe is a witness to a criminal offense.

A

FAILURE TO IDENTIFY

176
Q

38.03. ____________________…

A person commits this offense if he intentionally prevents or obstructs a person he knows is a peace officer or a person acting in a peace officer’s presence and at his direction from effecting an arrest, search, or transportation of the actor or another by using force against the peace officer or another.

A

RESISTING ARREST, SEARCH, OR TRANSPORTATION.

It is no defense to prosecution under this section that the arrest or search was unlawful.

177
Q

38.04. ________________…

A person commits this offense if he intentionally flees from a person he knows is a peace officer or federal special investigator attempting lawfully to arrest or detain him.

A

EVADING ARREST OR DETENTION.

A person who is subject to prosecution under both this section and another law may be prosecuted under either or both this section and the other law.

178
Q

38.05. _________________…

A person commits this offense if, with intent to hinder the arrest, prosecution, conviction, or punishment of another for an offense or, with intent to hinder the arrest, detention, adjudication, or disposition of a child for engaging in delinquent conduct that violates a penal law of the state, or with intent to hinder the arrest of another under the authority of a warrant or capias, he:

harbors or conceals the other;

provides or aids in providing the other with any means of avoiding arrest or effecting escape; or

warns the other of impending discovery or apprehension.

A

HINDERING APPREHENSION OR PROSECUTION.

179
Q

38.06. ___________

A person commits an offense if the person escapes from custody when the person is under; arrest for, lawfully detained for, charged with, or convicted of an offense, in custody pursuant to a lawful order of a court, detained in a secure detention facility, or in the custody of a juvenile probation officer for violating an order imposed by the juvenile court.

A

ESCAPE

180
Q

38.07. ____________…

An official or employee of a correctional facility commits this offense if he knowingly permits or facilitates the escape of a person in custody.

A person commits this offense if he knowingly causes or facilitates the escape of one who is in custody pursuant to:
an allegation or adjudication of delinquency; or
involuntary commitment for mental illness or for chemical dependency

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

PERMITTING OR FACILITATING ESCAPE.

181
Q

38.08. EFFECT OF UNLAWFUL CUSTODY. It is ____________ to prosecution under Section 38.06 ESCAPE or 38.07 PERMITTING OR FACILITATING ESCAPE that the custody was unlawful.

(Not in 2020 study material)

A

no defense

Not in 2020 study material

182
Q

38.09. __________________________.

A person commits this offense if, with intent to facilitate escape, he introduces into a correctional facility, or provides a person in custody or an inmate with, a deadly weapon or anything that may be useful for escape.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

IMPLEMENTS FOR ESCAPE

183
Q

38.10. _________________________.

A person lawfully released from custody, with or without bail, on condition that he subsequently appear commits this offense if he intentionally or knowingly fails to appear in accordance with the terms of his release.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

BAIL JUMPING AND FAILURE TO APPEAR.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the appearance was incident to community supervision, parole, or an intermittent sentence.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor had a reasonable excuse for his failure to appear in accordance with the terms of his release.

184
Q

38.11. ______________________…

A person commits this offense if the person provides, or possesses with the intent to provide:
an alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or dangerous drug to a person in the custody of a correctional facility or civil commitment facility, except on the prescription of a practitioner;

a deadly weapon to a person in the custody of a correctional facility or civil commitment facility;

a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device or a component of one of those devices to a person in the custody of a correctional facility;

money to a person confined in a correctional facility; or

a cigarette or tobacco product to a person
confined in a correctional facility, except that if the facility is a local jail regulated by the Commission on Jail Standards, the person commits an offense only if providing the cigarette or tobacco product violates a rule or regulation adopted by the sheriff or jail administrator that:
prohibits the possession of a cigarette or tobacco product by a person confined in the jail; or

places restrictions on:
the possession of a cigarette or tobacco product by a person confined in the jail; or the manner in which a cigarette or tobacco product may be provided to a person confined in the jail.

A person commits this offense if the person takes an alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or dangerous drug into a correctional facility or civil commitment facility.

A person commits this offense if the person takes a
controlled substance or dangerous drug on property owned, used, or controlled by a correctional facility or civil commitment facility.

A person commits this offense if the person: possesses a controlled substance or dangerous drug while in a correctional facility or civil commitment facility or on property owned, used, or controlled by a correctional facility or civil commitment facility; or

possesses a deadly weapon while in a correctional facility or civil commitment facility.

A person commits this offense if the person, while
confined in a correctional facility, possesses a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device or a component of one of those devices.

A person commits an offense if, with the intent to provide to or make a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device or a component of one of those devices available for use by a person in the custody of a correctional facility, the person:

acquires a cellular telephone or other wireless
communications device or a component of one of those devices to be delivered to the person in custody;

provides a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device or a component of one of those devices to another person for delivery to the person in custody; or

makes a payment to a communication common carrier or to any communication service that provides to its users the ability to send or receive wire or electronic communications.

person commits an offense if, with the intent to provide to or make a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device or a component of one of those devices available for use by a person in the custody of a correctional facility, the person:

acquires a cellular telephone or other wireless
communications device or a component of one of those devices to be delivered to the person in custody;

provides a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device or a component of one of those devices to another person for delivery to the person in custody; or
makes a payment to a communication common carrie or to any communication service that provides to its users the ability to send or receive wire or electronic communications.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution that the person possessed the alcoholic beverage, controlled substance, or dangerous drug pursuant to a prescription issued by a practitioner or while delivering the beverage, substance, or drug to a warehouse, pharmacy, or practitioner on property owned, used, or controlled by the correctional facility or civil commitment facility.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution that the person possessing the deadly weapon is a peace officer or is an officer or employee of the correctional facility or civil commitment facility who is authorized to possess the deadly weapon while on duty or traveling to or from the person’s place of assignment.

"Component" means:
any item necessary for the current, ongoing, or future operation of a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device, including a subscriber identity module card or functionally equivalent portable memory chip, a battery or battery charger, and any number of minutes that have been purchased or for which a contract has been entered into and during which a cellular telephone or other wireless communications device is capable of transmitting or receiving communications.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution that the actor:
is a duly authorized member of the clergy with rights and privileges granted by an ordaining authority that includes administration of a religious ritual or ceremony requiring the presence or consumption of an alcoholic beverage; and takes four ounces or less of an alcoholic beverage into a correctional facility and personally consumes all of the alcoholic beverage or departs from the facility with any portion of the beverage not consumed.

185
Q

38.111. ___________________.

A person commits an offense if the person, while confined in a correctional facility after being charged with or convicted of an offense of a violation of;
Section 43.04 (Aggravated promotion of prostitution), 43.05 (Compelling prostitution), 43.25 (Sexual performance by a child), 43.26 (Possession or promotion of child pornography), or 20.04(a)(4) (Aggravated kidnapping) and if the actor committed the offense or engaged in the conduct with intent to violate or abuse the victim sexually;
contacts by letter, telephone, or any other means, either directly or through a third party, a victim of the offense or a member of the victim’s family, if:

the victim was younger than 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense for which the person is confined; and the director of the correctional facility has not, before the person makes contact with the victim:

received written and dated consent to the
contact from:
a parent of the victim;
a legal guardian of the victim;
the victim, if the victim is 17 years of age or older at the time of giving the consent;
or
a member of the victim’s family who is 17 years of age or older; and provided the person with a copy of the consent.

A person confined in a correctional facility may not give the written consent required.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this
section that the contact was:
indirect contact made through an attorney
representing the person in custody; and
solely for the purpose of representing the person in a criminal proceeding.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

IMPROPER CONTACT WITH VICTIM.

186
Q

Sec. 38.113. ____________________…

A person commits this offense if the person:

is sentenced to or is required as a condition of community supervision or correctional programming to submit to a period of detention or treatment in a community corrections facility or county correctional center; fails to report to or leaves the facility, the center, or a community service assignment site as directed by the court, community supervision and corrections department supervising the person, or director of the facility or center in which the person is detained or treated, as appropriate; and in failing to report or leaving acts without the approval of the court, the community supervision and corrections department supervising the person, or the director of the facility or center in which the person is detained or treated.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

UNAUTHORIZED ABSENCE FROM COMMUNITY CORRECTIONS FACILITY, COUNTY CORRECTIONAL CENTER, OR ASSIGNMENT SITE.

187
Q

38.114. _________…

A person commits an offense if the person:

provides contraband to an inmate of a correctional facility; otherwise introduces contraband into a correctional facility; or possesses contraband while confined in a correctional facility.

“contraband” means:

any item not provided by or authorized by the operator of the correctional facility; or

Any item provided by or authorized by the operator of the correctional facility that has been altered to accommodate a use other than the originally intended use; and does not include any item specifically prohibited in section 38.11, PROHIBITED SUBSTANCES AND ITEMS IN CORRECTIONAL OR CIVIL COMMITMENT FACILITY.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

CONTRABAND IN CORRECTIONAL FACILITY.

188
Q

38.12. ______________….

A person commits this offense if, with intent to obtain an economic benefit the person:
knowingly institutes a suit or claim that the person has not been authorized to pursue;
solicits employment, either in person or by telephone, for himself or for another;
pays, gives, or advances or offers to pay, give, or advance to a prospective client money or anything of value to obtain employment as a professional from the prospective client;
pays or gives or offers to pay or give a person money or anything of value to solicit employment;
pays or gives or offers to pay or give a family member of a prospective client money or anything of value to solicit employment; or
accepts or agrees to accept money or anything of value to solicit employment.

A person commits this offense if the person: knowingly finances the commission of this offense;
invests funds the person knows or believes are
intended to further the commission of this offense under Subsection ; or is a professional who knowingly accepts employment within the scope of the person’s license, registration, or certification that results from the solicitation of employment in violation this offense.

It is an exception to prosecution that the person’s conduct is authorized by the Texas Disciplinary Rules of Professional Conduct or any rule of court.

A person commits an offense if the person:
is an attorney, chiropractor, physician, surgeon,
or private investigator licensed to practice in this state or any person licensed, certified, or registered by a health care regulatory agency of this state; and with the intent to obtain professional employment for the person or for another, provides or knowingly permits to be provided to an individual who has not sought the person’s employment, legal representation, advice, or care a written communication or a solicitation, including a solicitation in person or by telephone, that:

concerns an action for personal injury or wrongful death or otherwise relates to an accident or disaster involving the person to whom the communication or solicitation is provided or a relative of that person and that was provided before the 31st day after the date on which the accident or disaster occurred;
concerns a specific matter and relates to legal representation and the person knows or reasonably should know that the person to whom the communication or solicitation is directed is represented by a lawyer in the matter;

concerns a lawsuit of any kind, including an
action for divorce, in which the person to whom the communication or solicitation is provided is a defendant or a relative of that person, unless the lawsuit in which the person is named as a defendant has been on file for more than 31 days before the date on which the communication or solicitation was provided;
is provided or permitted to be provided by a person who knows or reasonably should know that the injured person or relative of the injured person has indicated a desire not to be contacted by or receive communications or solicitations concerning employment;
involves coercion, duress, fraud, overreaching, harassment, intimidation, or undue influence; or contains a false, fraudulent, misleading, deceptive, or unfair statement or claim.

a desire not to be contacted is presumed if an accident report reflects that such an indication has been made by an injured person or that person’s relative.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

BARRATRY AND SOLICITATION OF PROFESSIONAL EMPLOYMENT

189
Q

38.122. ___________…

A person commits an offense if, with intent to obtain an economic benefit for himself or herself, the person holds himself or herself out as a lawyer, unless he or she is currently licensed to practice law in this state, another state, or a foreign country and is in good standing with the State Bar of Texas and the state bar or licensing authority of any and all other states and foreign countries where licensed.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FALSELY HOLDING ONESELF OUT AS A LAWYER.

An offense under this section is a felony of the third degree.

Final conviction of falsely holding oneself out to be a lawyer is a serious crime for all purposes and acts, specifically including the State Bar Rules.

190
Q

38.123. ____________________…

A person commits an offense if, with intent to obtain an economic benefit for himself or herself, the person:

contracts with any person to represent that person with regard to personal causes of action for property damages or personal injury;

advises any person as to the person’s rights and the advisability of making claims for personal injuries or property damages;

advises any person as to whether or not to accept an offered sum of money in settlement of claims for personal injuries or property damages;

enters into any contract with another person to represent that person in personal injury or property damage matters on a contingent fee basis with an attempted assignment of a portion of the person’s cause of action; or

enters into any contract with a third person which purports to grant the exclusive right to select and retain legal counsel to represent the individual in any legal proceeding.

This section does not apply to a person currently licensed to practice law in this state, another state, or a foreign country and in good standing with the State Bar of Texas and the state bar or licensing authority of any and all other states and foreign countries where licensed.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

UNAUTHORIZED PRACTICE OF LAW

191
Q

38.13. _________________….

A person commits this offense if he intentionally hinders an official proceeding by noise or violent or tumultuous behavior or disturbance or if he recklessly hinders an official proceeding by noise or violent or tumultuous behavior or disturbance and continues after explicit official request to desist.

A

HINDERING PROCEEDINGS BY DISORDERLY CONDUCT

192
Q

38.14. _______________……

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally or knowingly and with force takes or attempts to take from a peace officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer:
the officer’s, investigator’s, employee’s, or official’s firearm, nightstick, stun gun, or personal protection chemical dispensing device with the intention of harming the officer, investigator, employee, or official or a third person.
The actor is presumed to have known that the peace officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer was a peace officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer if:

the officer, investigator, employee, or official was wearing a distinctive uniform or badge indicating his employment; or
the officer, investigator, employee, or official identified himself as a peace officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer.

A

TAKING OR ATTEMPTING TO TAKE WEAPON FROM PEACE OFFICER, FEDERAL SPECIAL INVESTIGATOR, EMPLOYEE OR OFFICIAL OF CORRECTIONAL FACILITY, PAROLE OFFICER, COMMUNITY SUPERVISION AND CORRECTIONS DEPARTMENT OFFICER, OR COMMISSIONED SECURITY OFFICER.

“Stun gun” means a device designed to propel darts or other projectiles attached to wires that, on contact, will deliver an electrical pulse capable of incapacitating a person.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the defendant took or attempted to take the weapon from a peace officer, federal special investigator, employee or official of a correctional facility, parole officer, community supervision and corrections department officer, or commissioned security officer who was using force against the defendant or another in excess of the amount of force permitted by law.

193
Q

38.15. __________________…

A person commits this offense if the person with criminal negligence interrupts, disrupts, impedes, or otherwise interferes with:

a peace officer while the peace officer is performing a duty or exercising authority imposed or granted by law;

A person who is employed to provide emergency medical services including the transportation of ill or injured persons while the person is performing that duty;

A fire fighter, while the fire fighter is fighting a fire or investigating the cause of a fire;

An animal under the supervision of a peace officer, corrections officer, or jailer, if the person knows the animal is being used for law enforcement, corrections, prison or jail security, or investigative purposes;

The transmission of a communication over a citizen’s band radio channel, the purpose of which communication is to inform or inquire about an emergency;

An officer with responsibility for animal control
in a county or municipality, while the officer is performing a duty or exercising authority imposed or granted under the Health and Safety Code; or

A person who:
has responsibility for assessing, enacting,
or enforcing public health, environmental, radiation, or safety measures for the state or a county or municipality is investigating a particular site as part of the person’s responsibilities, is acting in accordance with policies and procedures related to the safety and security of the site described, or is performing a duty or exercising authority
imposed or granted under the Agriculture Code, Health and Safety Code, Occupations Code, or Water Code.

A

INTERFERENCE WITH PUBLIC DUTIES.

“emergency” means a condition or circumstance in which an individual is or is reasonably believed by the person transmitting the communication to be in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or in which property is or is reasonably believed by the person transmitting the communication to be in imminent danger of damage or destruction.

194
Q

38.151. _______________.

A person commits this offense if the person recklessly taunts, torments, or strikes a police service animal; throws an object or substance at a police service animal; interferes with or obstructs a police service animal or interferes with or obstructs the handler or rider of a police service animal in a manner that inhibits or restricts the handler ’s or rider’s control of the animal; or deprives the handler or rider of control of the animal; releases a police service animal from its area of control; enters the area of control of a police service animal without the effective consent of the handler or rider, including placing food or any other object or substance into that area; injures or kills a police service animal; or

engages in conduct likely to injure or kill a police service animal, including administering or setting a poison, trap, or any other object or substance.

A

INTERFERENCE WITH POLICE SERVICE ANIMALS.

“Area of control” includes:
a vehicle, trailer, kennel, pen, or yard.

“Handler or rider” means:
a peace officer, corrections officer, or jailer who is specially trained to use a police service animal for law enforcement, corrections, prison or jail security, or investigative purposes.

“Police service animal” means:
a dog, horse, or other domesticated animal that is specially trained for use by a handler or rider.

195
Q

38.152. ____________________….

A person commits this offense if, without the effective consent of the law enforcement agency, fire department, or emergency medical services provider, the person intentionally interrupts, disrupts, impedes, jams, or otherwise interferes with a radio frequency that is licensed by the Federal Communications Commission to a government entity and is used by the law enforcement agency, fire department, or emergency medical services provider.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

INTERFERENCE WITH RADIO FREQUENCY LICENSED TO GOVERNMENT ENTITY.

If conduct constituting an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under another section of this code, the actor may be prosecuted under either section or under both sections.

196
Q

Sec. 38.16. _________________…

A person commits this offense if he intentionally or knowingly by words or physical action prevents the execution of any process in a civil cause.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

PREVENTING EXECUTION OF CIVIL PROCESS

It is an exception to the application of this section that the actor evaded service of process by avoiding detection.

197
Q

38.17. _____________________…

A person, other than a person who has a relationship with a child, commits this offense if:

The actor observes the commission or attempted commission of an offense prohibited by Section 21.02 (CONTINUOUS SEXUAL ABUSE OF YOUNG CHILD OR CHILDREN) or 22.021 (Aggravated Sexual Assault)
under circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that an offense of a sexual or assaultive nature was being committed or was about to be committed against the child;

the actor fails to assist the child or immediately report the commission of the offense to a peace officer or law enforcement agency; and

the actor could assist the child or immediately report the commission of the offense without placing the actor in danger of suffering serious bodily injury or death.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FAILURE TO STOP OR REPORT AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ASSAULT OF CHILD.

198
Q

38.171. ________________________.

A person commits this offense if the person:

observes the commission of a felony under circumstances in which a reasonable person would believe that an offense had been committed in which serious bodily injury or death may have resulted;

and

fails to immediately report the commission of the offense to a peace officer or law enforcement agency under circumstances in which:

a reasonable person would believe that the commission of the offense had not been reported;

and

the person could immediately report the commission of the offense without placing himself or herself in danger of suffering serious bodily injury or death.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FAILURE TO REPORT FELONY

199
Q

Sec. 38.18. ____________________________

A person commits this offense if:

The person obtains information regarding a motor vehicle accident from the Department of Public Safety of the State of Texas or other governmental entity;

and

The information is subsequently used for the direct solicitation of business or employment for pecuniary gain by:

The person;

An agent or employee of the person; or the person on whose behalf the information was requested.

A person who employs or engages another to obtain information on motor vehicle accidents from the Department of Public Safety or other governmental entity commits an offense if the person subsequently uses the information for direct solicitation of business or employment for pecuniary gain.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

USE OF ACCIDENT REPORT INFORMATION AND OTHER INFORMATION FOR PECUNIARY GAIN.

200
Q

38.19. ________________________…

A superintendent or general manager of an institution commits this offense if, as required by the Code of Criminal Procedure, the person fails to:

provide notice of the death of an individual under the care, custody, or control of or residing in the institution; submit a report on the death of the individual; or include in the report material facts known or discovered by the person at the time the report was filed.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

FAILURE TO PROVIDE NOTICE AND REPORT OF DEATH OF RESIDENT OF INSTITUTION.

201
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

TITLE 7. OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY
CHAPTER 33. COMPUTER CRIMES
Sec. 33.01. DEFINITIONS.

In this chapter:
“Access” means:
to approach, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve or intercept data from, alter data or computer software in, or otherwise make use of any resource of a computer, computer network, computer program, or computer system.

“Aggregate amount” means the amount of:
any direct or indirect loss incurred by a victim, including the value of money, property, or service stolen, appropriated, or rendered unrecoverable by the offense; or any expenditure required by the victim to determine whether data or a computer, computer network, computer program, or computer system was altered, acquired, appropriated, damaged, deleted, or disrupted by the offense; or attempt to restore, recover, or replace any data altered, acquired, appropriated, damaged,
deleted, or disrupted.

Text of subdivision effective on January 01, 2019

“Communication common carrier” means:
a person who owns or operates a telephone system in this state that includes equipment or facilities for the conveyance, transmission, or reception of communications and who receives compensation from persons who use that system.

“Computer” means:
an electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other high-speed data processing device that performs logical, arithmetic, or memory functions by the manipulations of electronic or magnetic impulses and includes all input, output, processing, storage, or communication facilities that are connected or related to the device.

“Computer network” means:
the interconnection of two or more computers or computer systems by satellite, microwave, line, or other communication medium with the capability to transmit information among the computers.

“Computer program” means:
an ordered set of data representing coded instructions or statements that when executed by a computer cause the computer to process data or perform specific functions.

“Computer services” means:
the product of the use of a computer, the information stored in the computer, or the personnel supporting the computer, including computer time, data processing, and storage functions.

“Computer system” means:
any combination of a computer or computer network with the documentation, computer software, or physical facilities supporting the computer or computer network.

“Computer software” means:
a set of computer programs, procedures, and associated documentation related to the operation of a computer, computer system, or computer network.

“Computer virus” means:
an unwanted computer program or other set of instructions inserted into a computer’s memory, operating system, or program that is specifically constructed with the ability to replicate itself or to affect the other programs or files in the computer by attaching a copy of the unwanted program or other set of instructions to one or more computer programs or files.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

“Critical infrastructure facility” means:
a chemical manufacturing facility; a refinery; an electrical power generating facility, substation, switching station, electrical control center, or electrical transmission or distribution facility; a water intake structure, water treatment facility, wastewater treatment plant, or pump station; a port, railroad switching yard, trucking terminal, or other freight transportation facility; a gas processing plant, including a plant used in the processing, treatment, or fractionation of natural gas; a transmission facility used by a federally licensed radio or television station; a cable television or video service provider
headend; a natural gas transmission compressor station; a liquid natural gas terminal or storage facility; or a telecommunications central switching office;

“Data” means:
a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that is being prepared or has been prepared in a formalized manner and is intended to be stored or processed, is being stored or processed, or has been stored or processed in a computer.
Data may be embodied in any form, including but not limited to computer printouts, magnetic storage media, laser storage media, and punchcards, or may be stored internally in the memory of the computer.

“Decryption,” “decrypt,” or “decrypted” means:
the decoding of encrypted communications or information, whether by use of a decryption key, by breaking an encryption formula or algorithm, or by the interference with a person’s use of an encryption service in a manner that causes information or communications to be stored or transmitted without encryption.

“Effective consent” includes consent by a person legally authorized to act for the owner.
Consent is not effective if:
induced by deception or induced by coercion; given by a person the actor knows is not legally authorized to act for the owner; given by a person who by reason of youth, mental disease or defect, or intoxication is known by the actor to be unable to make reasonable property dispositions; given solely to detect the commission of an offense; or used for a purpose other than that for which the consent was given.

“Encrypted private information” means:
encrypted data, documents, wire or electronic communications, or other information stored on a computer or computer system, whether in the possession of the owner or a provider of an electronic communications service or a remote computing service, and which has not been accessible to the public.

“Encryption,” “encrypt,” or “encrypted” means:
the encoding of data, documents, wire or electronic communications, or other information, using mathematical formulas or algorithms in order to preserve the confidentiality, integrity, or authenticity of, and prevent unauthorized access to, such information.

“Encryption service” means:
a computing service, a computer device, computer software, or technology with encryption capabilities, and includes any subsequent version of or update to an encryption service.

“Harm” includes:
partial or total alteration, damage, or erasure of stored data, interruption of computer services, introduction of a computer virus, or any other loss, disadvantage, or injury that might reasonably be suffered as a result of the actor’s conduct.

“Owner” means a person who:
has title to the property, possession of the property, whether lawful or not, or a greater right to possession of the property than the actor; has the right to restrict access to the property; or is the licensee of data or computer software.

“Privileged information” means:
protected health information, as that term is defined by The Health and Safety Code; information that is subject to the attorney-client privilege; or information that is subject to the accountant-client privilege under the Occupations Code, or other law, if the information is on a computer, computer network, or computer system owned by a person possessing a license issued under the Occupations Code.

“Property” means:
tangible or intangible personal property including a computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, or data; or the use of a computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, or data.

202
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.02. __________________…

A person commits this offense if the person knowingly accesses a computer, computer network, or computer system without the effective consent of the owner.

A person commits this offense if, with the intent to defraud or harm another or alter, damage, or delete property, the person knowingly accesses:
a computer, computer network, or computer system
without the effective consent of the owner; or
a computer, computer network, or computer system:
that is owned by the government or a business or other commercial entity engaged in a business activity in violation of a clear and conspicuous prohibition by the owner of the computer, computer network, or computer system; or a contractual agreement to which the person has expressly agreed; and with the intent to obtain or use a file, data, or proprietary information stored in the computer, network, or system to defraud or harm another or alter, damage, or delete property.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

BREACH OF COMPUTER SECURITY.

When benefits are obtained, a victim is defrauded or
harmed, or property is altered, damaged, or deleted in violation of this section, whether or not in a single incident, the conduct may be considered as one offense and the value of the benefits obtained and of the losses incurred because of the fraud, harm, or alteration, damage, or deletion of property may be aggregated in determining the grade of the offense.

A person who is subject to prosecution under this section and any other section of this code may be prosecuted under either or both sections.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the person acted with the intent to facilitate a lawful seizure or search of, or lawful access to, a computer, computer network, or computer system for a legitimate law enforcement purpose.

It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection that the actor’s conduct consisted solely of action taken pursuant to a contract that was entered into with the owner of the computer, computer network, or computer system for the purpose of assessing the security of the computer, network, or system or providing other security-related services.

203
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.021. _______________________…

“Minor” means:
An individual who is younger than 17 years of
age; or an individual whom the actor believes to be younger than 17 years of age.

A person who is 17 years of age or older commits this offense if they intentionally communicate in a sexually explicit manner with a minor; or distributes sexually explicit material to a minor over the Internet, by electronic mail or text message or other electronic message service or system, or through a commercial online service,

A person who is 17 years of age or older commits this offense if they intentionally communicate to a minor over the Internet, by electronic mail or text message or other electronic message service or system, or through a commercial online service,
with the intent to commit an offense of:
21.02 (Continuous sexual abuse of young child or children),
21.09 (Bestiality),
21.11 (Indecency with a child),
22.011 (Sexual assault),
22.021 (Aggravated sexual assault),
25.02 (Prohibited sexual conduct),
43.04 (Aggravated promotion of prostitution),
43.05 (Compelling prostitution),
43.25 (Sexual performance by a child),
43.26 (Possession or promotion of child pornography),
43.02 (Prostitution), or
20A.02(a) (Trafficking of persons)

A person commits this offense if the person, over the Internet, by electronic mail or text message or other electronic message service or system, or through a commercial online service, knowingly solicits a minor to meet another person, including the actor, with the intent that the minor will engage in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviate sexual intercourse with the actor or another person.

It is NOT a defense to prosecution that the meeting did not occur.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ONLINE SOLICITATION OF A MINOR

“Sexually explicit” means:
any communication, language, or material, including a photographic or video image, that relates to or describes sexual conduct.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that at the time conduct described was committed:
the actor was married to the minor; or
the actor was not more than three years older than the minor and the minor consented to the conduct.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section, the other law, or both.

204
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.022. _____________________.

A person, other than a network provider or online service provider acting for a legitimate business purpose, commits this offense if the person intentionally interrupts or suspends access to a computer system or computer network without the effective consent of the owner.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ELECTRONIC ACCESS INTERFERENCE.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the person acted with the intent to facilitate a lawful seizure or search of, or lawful access to, a computer, computer network, or computer system for a legitimate law enforcement purpose.

205
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.023. ______________________.

A. person commits this offense if the person intentionally alters data as it transmits between two computers in a computer network or computer system through deception and without a legitimate business purpose.
A. person commits this offense if the person intentionally introduces ransomware onto a computer, computer network, or computer system through deception and without a legitimate business purpose.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ELECTRONIC DATA TAMPERING

“ransomware” means:
a computer contaminant or lock that restricts access by an unauthorized person to a computer, computer system, or computer network or any data in a computer, computer system, or computer network under circumstances in which a person demands money, property, or a service to remove the computer contaminant or lock, restore access to the computer, computer system, computer network, or data, or otherwise remediate the impact of the computer contaminant or lock.

When benefits are obtained, a victim is defrauded or harmed, or property is altered, appropriated, damaged, or deleted in violation of this section, whether or not in a single incident, the conduct may be considered as one offense and the value of the benefits obtained and of the losses incurred because of the fraud, harm, or alteration, appropriation, damage, or deletion of property
may be aggregated in determining the grade of the offense.

A person who is subject to prosecution under this section and any other section of this code may be prosecuted under either or both sections.

Software is not ransomware for the purposes of this
section if the software restricts access to data because:
authentication is required to upgrade or access purchased content; or access to subscription content has been blocked for nonpayment.

206
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.024. _____________________.

A person commits this offense if the person intentionally decrypts encrypted private information through deception and without a legitimate business purpose.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

UNLAWFUL DECRYPTION.

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor’s conduct was pursuant to an agreement entered into with the owner for the purpose of:
assessing or maintaining the security of the
information or of a computer, computer network, or computer system; or
providing other services related to security.

A person who is subject to prosecution under this section and any other section of this code may be prosecuted under either or both sections.

207
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.03. DEFENSES.

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under Section 33.02 (BREACH OF COMPUTER SECURITY) or 33.022 (ELECTRONIC ACCESS INTERFERENCE) that the actor was an officer, employee, or agent of a communications common carrier or electric utility and committed the proscribed act or acts in the course of employment while engaged in an activity that is a necessary incident to the rendition of service or to the protection of the rights or property of the communications common carrier or electric utility.

Text of section effective on January 01, 2019

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.04. ASSISTANCE BY ATTORNEY GENERAL.

The attorney general, if requested to do so by a prosecuting attorney, may assist the prosecuting attorney in the investigation or prosecution of an offense under this chapter or of any other offense involving the use of a computer.

208
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

33.05. ________________________.

A person commits this offense if the person knowingly accesses a computer, computer network, computer program, computer software, or computer system that is a part of a voting system that uses direct recording electronic voting machines and by means of that access or prevents a person from lawfully casting a vote; changes a lawfully cast vote; prevents a lawfully cast vote from being counted; or causes a vote that was not lawfully cast to be
counted.

An offense under this section does not require that the votes are affected by the person’s actions or actually be the votes used in the official determination of the outcome of the election.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

TAMPERING WITH DIRECT RECORDING ELECTRONIC VOTING MACHINE.

With the consent of the appropriate local county or district attorney, the attorney general has concurrent jurisdiction with that consenting local prosecutor to investigate or prosecute an offense under this section.

209
Q

(Not in 2020 study material)

Sec. 33.07. _____________________.

A person commits this offense if the person, without obtaining the other person’s consent and with the intent to harm, defraud, intimidate, or threaten any person, uses the name or persona of another person to:
create a web page on a commercial social networking site or other Internet website; or

post or send one or more messages on or through a commercial social networking site or other Internet website, other than on or through an electronic mail program or message board program.

A person commits this offense if the person sends an electronic mail, instant message, text message, or similar communication that references a name, domain address, phone number, or other item of identifying information belonging to any person:

without obtaining the other person’s consent;
with the intent to cause a recipient of the communication to reasonably believe that the other person authorized or transmitted the communication; and
with the intent to harm or defraud any person.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this
section also constitutes an offense under any other law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section, the other law, or both.

A

(Not in 2020 study material)

ONLINE IMPERSONATION

It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the actor is any of the following entities or that the actor’s conduct consisted solely of action taken as an employee of any of the following entities:
a commercial social networking site;
an Internet service provider;
an interactive computer service;
a telecommunications provider; or
a video service provider or cable service provider,

“Commercial social networking site” means:
any business, organization, or other similar entity operating a website that permits persons to become registered users for the purpose of establishing personal relationships with other users through direct or real-time communication with other users or the creation of web pages or profiles available to the public or to other users.AAThe term does not include an electronic mail program or a message board program.

210
Q

Sec 22.012 ____________________

A person commits this offense if, without the other person’s consent and with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, the person:

1) touches the ANUS, BREAST, or any part of the GENITALS of another person.
2) touches another person with the ANUS, BREAST, or any part of the GENITALS of any person
3) exposes or attempts to expose another person’s GENITALS, PUBIC AREA, ANUS, BUTTOCKS, or FEMALE AREOLA
4) causes another person to contact the BLOOD, SEMINAL FLUID, VAGINAL FLUID, SALIVA, URINE, or FECES of any person.

A

INDECENT ASSAULT

211
Q

Sec 21.19 ______________________

A person commits this offense if the person knowingly transmits by electronic means visual material that:

1) Depicts any person engaging in sexual conduct or with the person’s intimate parts exposed AND is not sent at the request or with the express consent of the recipient.
2) Depicts the covered genitals of a male person that are in a discernibly turgid state (Covered Dick Pics) AND is not sent at the request or with the express consent of the recipient.

A

UNLAWFUL ELECTRONIC TRANSMISSION OF SEXUALLY EXPLICIT VISUAL MATERIAL

212
Q

Sec. 38.13. _____________________________

A person commits this offense if he intentionally hinders an official proceeding by noise or violent or tumultuous behavior or disturbance.

A person commits this offense if he recklessly hinders an official proceeding by noise or violent or tumultuous behavior or disturbance and continues after explicit official request to desist.

A

HINDERING PROCEEDINGS BY DISORDERLY CONDUCT.

213
Q

Sec. 49.01 DEFINITIONS.
In this chapter:

"Alcohol concentration" means the number of grams
of alcohol per:
210 liters of breath;
100 milliliters of blood;
67 milliliters of urine.

“Intoxicated” means NOT having the normal use of mental or
physical faculties by reason of the introduction of alcohol, a controlled substance, a drug, a dangerous drug, a combination of two or more of those substances, or any other substance into the body; or having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or
more.

“___________” means a vessel, one or more water skis, an aquaplane, or another device used for transporting or carrying a person on water, other than a device propelled only by the current of water.

A

Watercraft

214
Q

P.C. 20.07 __________________________

A person commits this offense if the person KNOWINGLY uses or permits another to use any real estate, building, room, tent, vehicle, boat, or other property owned by the person or under the person’s control to commit an offense or to facilitate the commission of an offense of SMUGGLING OF PERSONS (20.05 20.06), TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS (20A.02 20A.03), AGGRAVATED PROMOTION OF PROSTITUTION (43.04), and COMPELLING PROSTITUTION.

A

P.C. 20.07 OPERATION OF STASH HOUSE

Rents or leases any property to another, intending that the property be used to commit an offense or to facilitate the commission of an offense of SMUGGLING OF PERSONS (20.05 20.06), TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS (20A.02 20A.03), AGGRAVATED PROMOTION OF PROSTITUTION (43.04), and COMPELLING PROSTITUTION.

215
Q

P.C. 20A.02. ____________________.

A person commits an offense if the person knowingly:
(1) another person with the intent that the trafficked person engage in forced labor or services;

(2) receives a benefit from participating in a venture that involves an activity described by Subdivision (1), including by receiving labor or services the person knows are forced labor or services;
(3) traffics another person and, through force, fraud, or coercion, causes the trafficked person to engage in conduct prohibited by:

A

TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS

Section 43.02 (Prostitution);

Section 43.03 (Promotion of Prostitution);

Section 43.04 (Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution);

Section 43.05 (Compelling Prostitution);

216
Q

P.C. 20A.03. CONTINUOUS TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS.
A person commits an offense if, during a period that is _________________ in duration, the person engages two or more times in conduct that constitutes an offense under TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS against one or more victims.

A

30 or more days

217
Q

P.C. 20A.04. ACCOMPLICE WITNESS; TESTIMONY AND IMMUNITY

A party to an offense under this chapter (TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS) may be required to provide evidence or testify about the offense.

A party to an offense under this chapter ______ be prosecuted for any offense about which the party is required to provide evidence or testify,…..

A

may not

and the evidence and testimony may not be used against the party in any adjudicatory proceeding except a prosecution for aggravated perjury.
For purposes of this subsection, “adjudicatory proceeding” means a proceeding before a court or any other agency of government in which the legal rights, powers, duties, or privileges of specified parties are determined.

A conviction under this chapter may be had on the uncorroborated testimony of a party to the offense.

218
Q

Sec. 21.02.
CONTINUOUS SEXUAL ABUSE OF
YOUNG CHILD OR CHILDREN.

(a) In this section, “child” has the meaning assigned by Section 22.011(c).
(b) A person commits an offense if during a period that is ________ days in duration, the person commits two or more acts of sexual abuse, regardless of whether the acts of sexual abuse are committed against one or more victims;

A

30 or more

219
Q
    1. __________________.
      • A person commits this offense if:

Without the effective consent of the depicted person, the person intentionally discloses visual material depicting another person with the person’s intimate parts exposed or engaged in sexual conduct;

The visual material was obtained by the person or created under circumstances in which the depicted person had a reasonable expectation that the visual material would remain private;

The disclosure of the visual material causes harm to the depicted person; and the disclosure of the visual material reveals the identity of the depicted person in any manner, including through:

Any accompanying or subsequent information or material related to the visual material; or
Information or material provided by a third party in response to the disclosure of the visual material.

**A person commits this offense if the person intentionally threatens to disclose, without the consent of the depicted person, visual material depicting another person with the person’s intimate parts exposed or engaged in sexual conduct and the actor makes the threat to obtain a benefit:
In return for not making the disclosure; or
In connection with the threatened disclosure.

**A person commits this offense if, knowing the character and content of the visual material, the person promotes visual material on an Internet website or other forum for publication that is owned or operated by the person.

It is not a defense to prosecution under this section
that the depicted person:
Created or consented to the creation of the visual
material
; or
Voluntarily transmitted the visual material to the
actor. (Sexting)

It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under
Subsection that:
The disclosure or promotion is made in the course
of ANY lawful and common practices of law enforcement or medical treatment;

reporting unlawful activity; or
a legal proceeding, if the disclosure or promotion is permitted or required by law;
the disclosure or promotion consists of visual material depicting in a public or commercial setting only a person’s voluntary exposure of:
The person’s intimate parts; or
The person engaging in sexual conduct; or
The actor is an interactive computer service and the disclosure or promotion consists of visual material provided by another person.

If conduct that constitutes an offense under this
section also constitutes an offense under another law, the actor may be prosecuted under this section, the other law, or both.

A

21.16 UNLAWFUL DISCLOSURE OR PROMOTION OF INTIMATE VISUAL MATERIAL.