PEM Sample Q part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Boyle’s law

A

(P1V1 = P2V2)
-volume of gas is inversely proportional to pressure (increased altitude = decreased pressure = increased volume of air) –> PTX will expand with higher altitude and may cause tension physiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dalton’s law

A

partial pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of all the partial pressures of the gases within the mixture
- Increasing altitude = decreased atmospheric pressure = for any given FiO2, you will have a lower PaO2
Lower PaO2 causes increase in ventilation and thus decrease in PaCO2 (higher pH = shifts oxygen dissociation curve to L = increases PaO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

4 steps to carry-out prior to air transport

A
  1. NGT insertion to decompress stomach
  2. Chest tube placement for even small PTX
  3. Instill liquid into foley/ETT balloons
  4. Ensure adequate oxygenation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Advantages of ground transport

A
  • Less expensive
    • Not dependent on weather
    • Door to door transfer
    • Better for shorter distances
      • Less noise/vibration/thermal variances etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Disadvantages of air transport

A
  • Cost
  • Size of aircraft limits # of pts, equipment, personnel
  • Weather dependent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Management of Necrotizing Fasciitis

A
  • Consult surgery: debridement

IV Abx: Ceftriaxone, Clindamycin, Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RF associated with Nec Fasc

A
  • Omphalitis
    • Varicella infection
    • Immunocompromised state (leukemia, HIV, DM)
    • Recent hx of trauma or surgery
      • NSAID use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 precipitating events for thyroid storm

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Infections: pneumonia, URI, enteric infections
  3. Iodinated contrast studies
  4. Surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mngmt of Thyroid Storm

A
  1. Inhibiting thyroid hormone production: methimazole
  2. Cardiovascular support: propranolol
  3. Temperature: cooling measures (tepid washcloths, Tylenol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Complications of cooling post arrest

A
  • coagulopathy
  • bradycardia
  • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Indications for cooling s/p arrest

A

Limited data in children - persistent coma s/p out of hospital arrest; use 32-34 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

10 ways to rewarm a patient

A
  1. Passive - remove wet clothing, warm room, warm blankets, warm IVF, bear hugger
  2. Active: ECMO, peritoneal lavage, pleural irrigation, bladder irrigation, warmed humidified air through canula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DDx. knee pain in athlete

A
  1. Osgood-Schlatter: TTP at tibial tuberosity
    1. Singed-Larsen syndrome: TTP at inferior pole of patella
    2. Patellofemoral syndrome
    3. Osteochondritis dissecans
      1. SCFE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DDx. leg weakness /paresthesias in gymnast

A
  1. Spinal cord tumor
  2. Spondylolisthesis
  3. Disc herniation
  4. Transverse myelitis
  5. Vertebral osteomyelitis/discitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neurologic injury with anterior knee dislocation

A

Peroneal N –> foot drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vascular injury with anterior knee dislocation

A

popliteal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

XR findings for hip joint effusion

A
  • asymmetric widening > 1 mm in teardrop distance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Medication Tx. Status epilepticus

A
  1. First line = IN/IV/IM Ativan or Midazolam, PR Diazepam

2. Second line: phenobarbital, phenytoin, fosphenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DDx status epilepticus

A
  • Febrile seizure
  • Electrolyte changes: hyponatremia, hypoglycemia
  • Toxic ingestion: TCA antidepressant
  • Cardiac dysrhythmia
  • Meningoencephalitis
  • Intracranial mass or hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 indications for laparotomy in Blunt Abdominal Trauma

A
  1. Hypotension with (+) FAST or w/o other source of bleeding
  2. Free air or rupture of hemidiaphragm on XR
  3. Peritonitis
  4. Multisystem injuries with indication for craniotomy in presence of + DPL or + FAST
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinical findings in Neurogenic Shock (4)

A
  • Hypotension
  • Bradycardia
  • Widened pulse pressure
  • Flushed/warm periphery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most likely injured abdominal organs with blunt trauma

A

spleen > liver > kidney > pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

5 factors that affect severity of electrical injury

A
  1. Frequency = AC > DC
  2. Intensity of current = higher voltage is worse
  3. Duration of contact
  4. Resistance (wet skin decreases resistance)
  5. If thrown a distance, associated injuries increase severity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

C/I to IO placement

A
  • fracture at site of placement
  • overlying skin infection
  • bone dysplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Complications of IO placement

A
Complications:
	- Fracture
	- Compartment syndrome
	- Osteomyelitis (if > 24 hours used)
	- Subcutaneous abscess
	- Skin necrosis
Pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

US measurements in pyloric stenosis

A

Thickness > 3 mm

Length > 15-17 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

EKG changes in hyperkalemia

A
  1. peaked T waves
  2. prolonged PR / QRS interval
  3. Decreased amplitude of p waves
  4. sine wave pattern
  5. > 10: v.fib / asystole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Non-medication causes of hyperkalemia (4)

A
  1. Tumor lysis syndrome
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Trauma / Burns / Crush injuries
  4. Adrenal insufficiency
  5. Renal insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most emergent ED management of hyperkalemia

A

IV Calcium Gluconate 10% IV, 60-100 mg/kg, max 2 g

others: insulin/glucose, albuterol, furosemide, kayexalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RF for sepsis in newborn (5)

A
  • Prolonged ROM
    • Maternal infection - chorioamnionitis
    • Maternal GBS (+) or Previous sibling with GBS (+) infection
    • Birth outside of hospital setting
      • Prematurity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Four causes of jaundice (non-hemolytic)

A
  1. Gilbert’s syndrome
  2. Autoimmune hepatitis
  3. Viral hepatitis
  4. Cholangitis / cholelithiasis with obstruction
  5. Acetaminophen overdose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

3 clinical features of acute liver failure

A
  • Jaundice / icterus
  • Hepatomegaly / splenomegaly
  • Encephalopathy
  • RUQ pain
  • Easy bruising/bleeding (coagulopathy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Infant with vomiting, FTT, ammonia > 200 - 2 urgent ED management steps

A
  1. Begin IVF with dextrose containing solution
  2. Prepare for hemodialysis
  3. Obtain labs including CBC, BMP, Liver panel, urine / serum organic acids, blood gas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Associated conditions with SCFE

A
  • Hypothyroidism, GH supplementation, hypogonadism –> check TFTs, GH levels
    RF: male, obesity, black
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

4 xray findings in SCFE

A
  1. Steel sign
  2. Widening of physis
  3. Decreased height of epiphysis
  4. Klein’s line - lateral cortical line along femoral neck does not intersect the epiphysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

4 conditions assoc with rectal prolapse

A
  1. Constipation
  2. Cystic fibrosis
  3. Crohn’s disease / Ulcerative colitis
  4. Hirschsprung disease
  5. Intussusception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Causes of PID that are NOT STI

A
  • childbirth
    • Miscarriage /abortion
    • IUD use
    • Pelvic surgery or endometrial biopsy
      • appendicitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Minimum clinical criteria for PID

A
  1. Sexually active pt with pelvic / lower abdominal pain with no other cause AND one of CMT, uterine TTP or adnexal TTP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Definitive clinical criteria for PID

A
  1. Endometrial biopsy with histopathologic evidence of endometritis
  2. Laparoscopic abnormalities c/w PID
  3. US or MRI with thickening fluid filled tubes or tuboovarian complex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CF of salicylate toxicity

A
  • Tachypnea
  • Fever
  • Tachycardia
  • Tinnitus / vertigo
  • Nausea /vomiting/diarrhea
    AMS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MOA of succinylcholine

A

binds at nicotinic Ach-R at NMJ, is not broken down by Ach-esterase, thus does not allow motor unit to repolarize
Causes bradycardia by acting on PNS –> Ach-R –> M2 cholinergic R and sinus and AV nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

C/I to succinylcholine

A
  • hypersensitivity
    • History of muscular dystrophy or myopathy
    • Family hx or personal hx of malignant hyperthermia
    • Hyperkalemia
    • Significant trauma or burn (after acute phase)
    • Ocular surgery, penetrating eye injuries or close angle glaucoma
      • Pseudocholinesterase deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Indications for arthrocentesis

A
  • Concern for septic joint
    • Traumatic hemarthrosis to relieve pain
      • Joint effusion causing severe pain / limitation of function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

C/I to arthrocentesis

A
  • overlying skin infection
    • Hemophilia
      • Presence of fracture near joint site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Jefferson fx

A

burst of C1 –> axial load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hangman’s fx

A

fx of pedicle of C2 –> hyperextension

47
Q

Cervical distraction injury

A

increase in atlantoaxial distance –> acceleration/deceleration injuries, NAT, difficult delivery

48
Q

Unstable Cervical Fractures

A
  • Jefferson, C1, axial
    • Hangman’s, C2, hyperextension
    • Odontoid, type 2/3
    • Bilateral facet dislocation
      • Teardrop fx: flexion
49
Q

MOA of Epi in CPR

A

increased arterial blood pressure and coronary perfusion pressure via alpha-1 adrenergic effects
Secondarily: inotropic (increases cardiac contractility)

50
Q

LEAN mnemonic for ETT meds

A

L - lidocaine
E - epinephrine
A - atropine
N - naloxone

51
Q

4 physical exam findings with rib fracture

A
  • Tenderness on palpation
    • Crepitus
    • Chest wall deformity
    • Ecchymoses of chest wall
  • Sx of respiratory insufficiency: tachypnea, retractions, acc mm use
52
Q

6 underlying thoracic injuries from rib fracture

A
  • Pneumothorax
    • Hemothorax
    • Pulmonary contusion
    • Pulmonary laceration
    • Pericardial injury with pericardial tamponade
    • Large vessel (subclavian A) laceration or tracheal lac in 1st rib fx
      • Spleen / liver / diaphragm laceration
53
Q

2 mechanisms of acidosis in severe asthma

A

ineffective ventilation = increased CO2 retained –> respiratory acidosis
- Salbutamol use = lactic acidosis –> metabolic acidosis
Also get lactic acidosis from hypoxia and tissue hypoperfusion

54
Q

3 meds used to tx methanol ingestion

A
  • Folic acid
  • Ethanol
  • Fomepizole
  • Sodium bicarbonate
  • Thiamine / pyridoxine (ethylene glycol)
55
Q

Medium Risk - CATCH Head injury rule

A
  • Any sign of basilar skull fx
  • Large, boggy hematoma of scalp
  • Dangerous MOI: MVC, fall from > 3 ft or 5 stairs, fall from bicycle w/ no helmet
56
Q

High Risk - CATCH Head Injury Rule

A
  • Hx of worsening headache
    • GCS < 15 at 2 hours
    • Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      • Irritability on examination
57
Q

Locations for occult blood loss in trauma patients

A
  • Retroperitoneal
    • Scalp
    • Pelvis
    • Long bone fracture
      • Chest
58
Q

Qualities of heart murmur that require further work-up

A
  • Harsh, diastolic murmur
  • Grade >3
  • Location: not apex or LLSB
  • Radiation to back
59
Q

Non-cardiac causes of heart murmur

A
  • High output states: fever, anemia, hyperthyroidism
    • Pulmonary HTN
      Pregnancy
60
Q

Topical meds you can use for T&A bleed

A
  • Epinephrine 1:1000 - Oxymetazoline
  • TXA (can use topical or IV)
  • also give IVF, PRBC, pressors
61
Q

Mngmt of post T&A bleed

A
  • Suction
  • Apply pressure to bleeding site (gauze + vasoconstrictor, use McGill forceps)
  • Consider intubation to prevent aspiration
62
Q

Chance fracture

A
lumbar fracture (through vertebral body, spinous process and pedicles) from flexion-distraction injury
Typically T12-L2
63
Q

What types of injuries is a Chance fx assoc with? (4)

A

Associated with intraabdominal injuries

- Pancreas
- Duodenal hematoma
- Mesenteric pedicle injury
    - Hollow viscous injury
64
Q

6 signs/effects of ecstacy or MDMA use

A

CNS: euphoria, hyperactivity –> panic, psychosis
VS: hyperthermia, HTN, tachycardia
MSK: rhabdomyolysis, bruxism
Ocular: mydriasis –> blurry vision
Metabolic: hyponatremia (increased free water intake)

65
Q

4 labs to guide massive transfusion protocol (1:1:1)

A
  • CBC (Hb, platelets)
  • Coags: PT/INR, PTT, fibrinogen
  • Calcium (can get hypocalcemia)
66
Q

Complications of massive transfusion protocol

A
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypothermia
  • Hyperkalemia
67
Q

4 steps to instruct parent on how to give epi-pen

A
  1. Recognize signs/symptoms of anaphylaxis
  2. Given in anterolateral thigh
  3. Take cap off, swiftly insert needle, hold for 10 sec for med to release
  4. Call 911 or proceed to closest ED immediately
68
Q

Fever in transplant pt < 1 month post surgery

A

normal post surgical complications - wound infection or infection present before that was exacerbated by surgery, infection transmitted by allograft

69
Q

Fever in transplant pt 1-6 mos post op

A
  1. latent viral infections (CMV, EBC, HHV6, hepB/hepC)

2. Opportunistic infections: listeria, aspergillus, pneumocystis

70
Q

Fever in transplant pt > 6 mos post op

A

community acquired infections (resp viruses), opportunistic infections

71
Q

Mngmt of FAO

A
  1. ABCs
  2. IVF - bolus with normal saline –> D10 infusion to suppress lipolysis
  3. Obtain blood work: VBG, glucose, ammonia
  4. Avoidance of fasting
  5. Oral carnitine replacement
72
Q

What are the SIRS criteria?

A
  1. Core temp > 38.5 or < 36
  2. Increased HR > 2 SD or if < 1 yr old bradycardia
  3. Increased RR or need for mechanical ventilation
  4. Elevated /reduced WBC with > 10% bands
73
Q

Signs/symptoms of severe colitis

A
  • Severe abdominal pain / distension
  • Bloody stool
  • Fever
  • Signs of dehydration (tachycardic, low BP, poor perfusion, dry MM)
  • Signs of anemia (pale, low BP)
74
Q

Extraintestinal manifestations of IBD (8)

A
  • Oral: aphthous ulcers
    • Eyes: uveitis
    • Skin: erythema nodosum
    • Joints: arthritis
    • Liver: hepatitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis
    • Venous thromboembolism
    • Kidney stones
    • Pancreatitis
      • Low bone mineral density / osteoporosis
75
Q

When do you start and stop deferoxamine?

A

START –> iron level > 500 mcg/dL, severely symptomatic patients, sig AG met acidosis

STOP –>usually 24 hours, when metabolic acidosis and shock are resolved; prolonged tx risks pulmonary toxicity from deferoxamine

76
Q

5 stages of iron toxicity

A
  1. GI symptoms: 6 hours - NV, pain
    1. Latent recovery phase: 6-24 hours
    2. Shock/metabolic acidosis: 6-72 hrs
    3. Fulminant hepatic failure: 12-96 hrs
      1. Recovery with GI scarring/obstruction (weeks later)
77
Q

2 determinants of hydrocarbon toxicity

A
  • High volatility (aspiration)
    • Low surface tension (displaces surfactant)
  • Low viscosity (aspiration)
78
Q

What substances does activated charcoal NOT work on?

A
  • Hydrocarbons
    • Toxic alcohols
    • Metals: iron, lithium
    • Pesticides
      • Solvents
79
Q

Admission criteria for omphalitis (4):

A
  • Signs of systemic illness
  • Significant cellulitis/abscess
  • Age < 2 months
  • Tenderness, discharge
80
Q

Pathogens - omphalitis (5)

A
  • Polymicrobial
    • Staph aureus
    • GAS
    • Gram negative: e.coli, klebsielle, proteus
      anaerobes
81
Q

Four causes of Methemoglobinema (not drug/chemical induced)

A
  • Drinking well water
    • Congenital: enzyme deficiency
    • Infants < 6 months when exposed to dehydration, illness or topical anesthetics (inadequate enzyme levels)
  • G6PD deficiency
82
Q

What medications can cause methemoglobinemia?

A

Antibiotics: TMP-SMX, dapsone
Local anesthetics
Metoclopramide
Nitrates

83
Q

What are some vagal maneuvers to try in SVT? (4)

A
  • Bearing down x 15-20 secs
    • Rectal stim w/ thermometer
    • Blowing into straw
    • Diving reflex: place bag of ice / water over nose and eyes x 35 sec OR in older kid - knees to chest, hold breath and bear down

*Contraindicated: carotid massage, orbital pressure

84
Q

Medical mngmt of SVT

A
  1. adenosine 0.1 mg/kg, second 0.2 mg/kg, max 6 then 12 mg

2. synchronized cardioversion (0.5 to 1 J/kg)

85
Q

Criteria for dx of sinusitis (3)

A
  1. Persistent nasal discharge > 10 days
  2. Worsening cough, fever or discharge after period of improvement
  3. Severe onset with fever > 39 sec or purulent nasal dc > 3 day
86
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities seen in acute renal failure

A
  • Hyperkalemia
    • Hyperphosphatemia
    • Hyponatremia
    • Hypocalcemia
      • Metabolic acidosis
87
Q

2 complications of vaginal lacerations

A
  • Assoc urethral tears
  • Urinary retention from severe pain or injury
  • Significant bleeding from deep vulvar lacerations
88
Q

Life threatening complications of heat stroke (8)

A
  1. Rhabdomyolysis
  2. AKI
  3. Hyponatremic dehydration
  4. Liver failure –> Coagulopathy
  5. High output cardiac failure
  6. Pulmonary edema / 7. ARDS
  7. Cerebral edema
89
Q

3 signs of urethral injury

A
  1. Blood at urethral meatus
  2. Bruising of penis or perineum
  3. High riding prostate
  4. Urinary retention or inability to urinate
90
Q

4 injuries associated with crack cocaine use

A
  • Oral mucosal burns
  • Laryngeal / airway burns
  • Crack lung = interstitial fibrosis, noncardiogenic pulm edema
  • Aspiration
91
Q

Risk of using labetalol in sympathomimetic syndrome?

A

Labetalol is a BB which would result in unopposed alpha stimulation with increased HTN, cardiac output and cardiac ischemia

92
Q

Causes of congenital stridor (7)

A
  1. Laryngomalacia
  2. Esophageal web/sling
  3. Vascular ring/sling
  4. Subglottic stenosis
  5. Laryngeal N paralysis or vocal cord paralysis
  6. Tracheal hemangioma
  7. GERD
93
Q

Newborn sepsis (bacteria, abx)

A

Group B strep, Strep pneumo, E.coli, Listeria

Tx. Ampicillin + Cefotaxime

94
Q

Infants/children sepsis (bacteria, abx)

A

Strep pneumo, Neisseria meningitis, H Flu, GBS

Tx. Ceftriaxone, Vanco

95
Q

Adolescent sepsis (bacteria, abx)

A

N.mening, s. pneumo

Tx. Ceftriaxone, Vanco

96
Q

Features of Organic Psychosis (6)

A
  • Rapid onset (days to weeks)
  • Disoriented
  • Memory loss
  • Visual/olfactory/tactile hallucinations
  • May have abnormal VS or pathologic autonomic signs
  • Fluctuating cognition and attentions
97
Q

Concern for elevated ICP w/ impending herniation - mngmt?

A
  1. HOB at 30 degrees elevated
  2. Intubation with hyperventilation
  3. Hyperosmolar therapy: 3% NS or mannitol
  4. Decrease metabolic demand: ventilation, normothermia, normoglycemia, can allow permission HTN
  5. Immediate neurosurgical consult
98
Q

Indications for imaging in penetrating trauma of oropharynx?

A
  • Location: lateral tonsillar pillar
  • Continued bleeding
  • Large, expanding hematoma
99
Q

Adenosine - MOA, indication

A

MOA: slows conduction thru AV node
Indication: SVT
0.1 mg/kg –> 0.2 mg/kg (6 mg –> 12 mg)

100
Q

Amiodarone - MOA, indication

A

5 mg/kg
MOA: class III antiarrhythmic, inhibits alpha and beta R, affects Na,K and Ca channels, prolongs AP and refractory period, decreases AV conduction
Indication: VT, refractory pulseless Vfib / VT

101
Q

Clinical features SVC syndrome

A
  • Plethora
  • Facial edema
  • JVD
102
Q

Landmarks for Chest tube placement

A
5th intercostal space (between 4th and 5th rib), midaxillary line, at level of nipple, insert above lower rib, advance posteriorly in apical direction
	- Secure with sutures
	- Apply occlusive dressing
	- Attach to drainage system (suction)
	- Check placement on CXR
Measure output drainage
103
Q

Complications of chest tube placement (8)

A
  • Bleeding (injury to vessels)
  • Infection
  • Laceration of intraabdominal organs
  • Subcutaneous emphysema
  • Pain
  • Reexpansion pulmonary edema
  • Intercostal neuralgia/neuritis
104
Q

What are two measures in the hyperoxia test?

A
  • Measure level of PaO2 while breathing 100% O2
    PaO2 < 100 mmHg and failure to increase systemic arterial oxygen saturation implied cardiac etiology (measure preductal - R radial AA)
105
Q

Signs/symptoms of hypocalcemia (6)

A
  • Muscle cramps (carpopedal spasm)
  • Paresthesias (oral, hands/feet)
  • Laryngospasm
  • Bronchospasm
  • Hypotension
  • Dysrhythmias
106
Q

Bones at risk of idiopathic avascular necrosis (5)

A
Tarsal navicular bone
Femoral head and condyles
Scaphoid
Metatarsal heads
Humeral
107
Q

clinical features of acute liver failure

A
  1. jaundice
  2. scleral icterus
  3. coagulopathy
  4. hepatomegaly
  5. encephalopathy
  6. Constitutional: NV, fever, fatigue, pain
108
Q

Risk factors for opioid addiction in teens

A
  1. Chronic disease
  2. History of abuse (physical / sexual)
  3. Family member with addiction
  4. Hx of mental health illness
  5. Low SES/homelessness
109
Q

Potential causes of jaundice (not hemolytic)

A
  1. Medication/toxin induced - tylenol o/d
  2. Autoimmune hepatitis
  3. Cholangitis
  4. Sepsis
  5. Obstruction: biliary atresia, choledochal cyst, cholelithiasis
  6. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (IBD)
  7. Tumors of hepatobiliary system
110
Q

anion gap formula

A

Na - (Cl + HCO3), normal < 10

111
Q

Serum osmolarity formula

A

2Na + BUN/2.8 + Glucose / 18

112
Q

fluid deficit formula

A

% dehydration x weight [ 1 kg = 1 L]

113
Q

max lidocaine dose (ml) formula

A

max dose (mg/kg) x wt / 10 x 1 / conc %