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RCPEM > PEM Notes Qs > Flashcards

PEM Notes Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Varicella prophylaxis in pregnancy

A
  • if IgG negative and exposed: give VZIG w/in 96 hours, acyclovir is they develop symptoms
  • transmission risk 5 days before and 2 days after delivery
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2
Q

Evaluation of congenital syphillis

A
  • labs: cbc, lfts
  • Lumbar puncture for CSF studies
  • skeletal survey
  • serology
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3
Q

E’s of injury prevention (6)

A 
Engineering
Enforcement
Education
Empowerment
Enabling
Employment
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4
Q

Ways to minimize bias in RCT

A
  • double blinding
  • randomize groups
  • intention to treat analysis
  • objective measures
  • homogenous study population
  • pre-specified protocol, endpoints, statistical plan
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5
Q

poor prognostic factors in drowning (6)

A
  1. duration of submersion > 10 min
  2. absent pupillary reflexes
  3. hyperglycemia (glucose > 250)
  4. acidosis (pH < 7.1)
  5. No spontaneous circulation after 25 min
  6. prolonged coma
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6
Q

Name anatomical landmarks in three zones of neck

A
  1. sternal notch to cricoid
  2. cricoid to angle of mandible
  3. angle of mandible to skull base
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7
Q

What test would you do for penetrating injury in Zone 3

A

CT angiogram

Consult surgery

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8
Q

4 XR findings in epiglottitis

A
  1. Thumb sign - epiglottis > 8 mm
  2. hypopharynx overdistended
  3. thickening of aryepiglottic folds
  4. circumferential narrowing of subglottic portion of trachea
  5. reversal of normal lordotic curve
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9
Q

XR findings in retropharyngeal abscess (3)

A
  1. prevertebral space > 7 mm @ C2 and >14 mm @ C6 (>22 mm in adults)
  2. loss of lordosis
  3. soft tissue mass, gas or air fluid level
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10
Q

3 MC bacteria causing RPA

A
  1. Group A strep
  2. Staph aureus
  3. Oral anaerobes (bacteroides, prevotella, fusobacteria)
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11
Q

Tx of RPA (3)

A
  1. Consult ENT for possible I&D
  2. IV access, IVF, pain control
  3. Start IV antibiotics - Clindamycin
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12
Q

8 areas of the face you palpate looking for a fracture

A
  1. supraorbital ridge
  2. infraorbital ridge
  3. zygomatic arches
  4. infraorbital ridge/zygoma/maxilla from above
  5. nasal bone and maxilla (finger in mouth for stability)
  6. . nasal bridge / septum
  7. mandible
  8. occlusion of teeth
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13
Q

5 locations of mandibular fx

A
  1. condyles
  2. rami
  3. body
  4. symphysis
  5. angle
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14
Q

8 reasons for OR of neck injury

A
  1. airway obstruction/stridor
  2. cerebral ischemia/neuro deficit
  3. expanding/large hematoma
  4. hematemesis/hemoptysis
  5. severe bleeding
  6. vascular bruit or decreased pulses
  7. hemorrhagic shock
  8. massive subcutaneous emphysema / air bubbling through wound
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15
Q

Auricular hematoma - 2 steps in management

A
  1. Drain hematoma
  2. Apply compressive bandage
  3. ENT f/u for re-examination in 1-2 days
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16
Q

Complications of auricular hematoma

A
  1. peri/chondritis

2. cartilage deformation “cauliflower ear”

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17
Q

Complications of septal hematoma

A
  1. saddle nose deformity
  2. septal ischemia/necrosis –> septal perforation
  3. infection (septal abscess)
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18
Q

Child with 5 episodes of bilateral parotitis - what 2 tests would you do?

A
  1. Ultrasound - eval for stones
  2. Labs for immunodeficiency
  3. ENT consult –> sialography
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19
Q

Complications of chronic TM perforation? (4)

A
  1. Conductive hearing loss
  2. Cholesteatoma
  3. Mastoiditis
  4. Chronic otitis media
  5. Vertigo
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20
Q

Indications for ENT c/s with penetrating ear trauma

A
  1. assoc facial N injury
  2. persistent bleeding
  3. retained /protruding foreign body
  4. assoc basilar skull fx
  5. refractory N/V
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21
Q

Ways to get bead out of external ear canal? (4)

A
  1. Lighted currette
  2. Forceps with direct visualization
  3. Irrigation
  4. Dermabond
  5. Katz extractor
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22
Q

MCC of halitosis

A

retained nasal foreign body

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23
Q

Indications for repair of tongue laceration (2)

A
  1. Large flap
  2. Edge of tongue
  3. Significant bleeding
  4. Deep lacs on margins
  5. Through / through lacs
    * use 4.0 absorbable suture
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24
Q

Mastoiditis - 3 physical exam findings

A
  1. Protrusion of pinna
  2. Posterior mastoid erythema/warmth/swelling and tenderness
  3. Pain with manipulation of ear
  4. AOM
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25
Q

Complication of mastoiditis

A
  1. Meningitis
  2. Intracranial abscess
  3. Facial N palsy
  4. Osteomyelitis
  5. Bezold abscess
  6. Hearing loss
  7. Sinus venous thrombosis
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26
Q

Neck pain and fever but normal pharynx and no lymphadenopathy - ddx (4)

A
  1. RPA
  2. Meningitis
  3. AOM
  4. Discitis/osteomyelitis
  5. Epidural abscess
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27
Q

2 nasal foreign bodies that require immediate removal

A
  1. button battery
  2. paired magnets
  3. organic material ?
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28
Q

6 causes of halitosis

A
  1. nasal foreign body
  2. sinusitis
  3. dental infxn
  4. tonsilolith
  5. GERD
  6. gingivitis
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29
Q

4 ways to stop epistaxis

A
  1. Direct pressure
  2. Local vasoconstrictor: Epi, afrin
  3. Nasal packing
  4. Cautery
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30
Q

Auricular hematoma drainage - outline steps

A
  1. Analgesia: local or auricular block
  2. Wipe with betadine
  3. Insert 18G needle or make small incision with scalper (Aspirate)
  4. irrigate
  5. apply compressive bandage
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31
Q

Causes of stridor (6) in newborn

A
  1. Laryngotracheomalacia
  2. Subglottic stenosis
  3. Esophageal ring/sling
  4. Vascular ring/sling
  5. Tracheal web
  6. Infectious - croup
  7. Airway hemangioma
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32
Q

Impt structures to consider when repairing cheek laceration

A
  1. facial N

2. parotid gland/duct

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33
Q

Immediate mngmt steps with avulsed tooth

A
  1. Rinse with saline or water, handle by crown not root
  2. replace immediately and splint
  3. If unable to replace, place in Hanks solution or milk, c/s dental
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34
Q

4 life-threatening injuries that can result from blunt neck trauma

A
  1. laryngeotracheal fracture
  2. vascular injury/hematoma
  3. esophageal rupture
  4. airway obstruction
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35
Q

Complications of parotitis

A
  1. airway obstruction
  2. septicemia
  3. facial bone osteo
  4. septic jugular thrombophlebitis
  5. facial N paralysis
  6. xerostomia (chronic dry mouth)
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36
Q

Classification of Supracondylar fx

A

Type 1: Nondisplaced
Type 2: Displaced in one plane only, posterior cortex in tact
Type 3: Displaced in 2 or 3 planes
Type 4: Complete periosteal disruption with instability

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37
Q

Anterior shoulder dislocation - what N is injured? how do you assess this N?

A

Axillary N

- Assess for sensation over lateral deltoid

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38
Q

stimson method for shoulder reduction

A

Lay prone, arm draped over bed, attach 10-15 lb weights, muscle relaxation with benzos and should spontaneously reduce

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39
Q

External rotation method for shoulder reduction

A

Supine or sitting
Arm held in adduction, elbow/forearm at 90 degrees, gradually rotate arm externally
Can apply gentle traction at elbow and abduct arm to overhead position

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40
Q

Scapular manipulation method for shoulder reduction

A

Prone position, traction on arm, push inferior scapula medially and superior scapula pulled laterally

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41
Q

Monteggia fracture

A

Proximal ulnar fracture

Radial head dislocation

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42
Q

Galeazzi fracture

A

Distal radius fx

Distal radioulnar joint dislocation

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43
Q

4 causes of backpain (no trauma)

A
  1. spondylolysis / spondylolisthesis
  2. discitis/osteomyelitis
  3. scoliosis
  4. renal: nephrolithiasis / UTI
  5. malignancy
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44
Q

SCFE - normal XR, next best test?

A

MRI

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45
Q

4 signs of tenosynovitis

A

Kanavel signs

  1. Fusiform swelling
  2. Pain with passive extension
  3. Pain along flexor tendon sheath
  4. Finger held in flexion
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46
Q

Compartment syndrome - sx

A
  1. Pain - out of proportion
  2. Pallor
  3. Paresthesias
  4. Poikolothermia
  5. Paralysis
  6. Loss of 2 point discrimination
  7. Pulselessness
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47
Q

Tx of compartment syndrome

A
  1. Measure cpt pressures > 30-40 or delta pressure < 30
  2. Remove cast
  3. Fasciotomy (ortho c/s)
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48
Q

Fracture of MT #2,3,4 from crush injury

A

Lis Franc injury - one or more MT are displaced from the tarsals (> 1 mm bw 1st and 2nd MT)

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49
Q

4 XR findings in SCFE

A
  1. Klein’s line
  2. Flattening of epiphysis
  3. Widening of growth plate
  4. Steel sign - double density at metaphysis
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50
Q

3 High risk criteria - Canadian C-spine Rule

A
  1. Dangerous MOI (fall > 5 steps, axial load, high speed MVC, bicycle collision)
  2. Age > 65 years
  3. Paresthesias
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51
Q

Low Risk Criteria - Canadian C-spine Rule

A 
Simple MVC
Sitting in ED
Ambulatory at any time
Delayed onset neck pain
No midline C-spine TTP
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52
Q

4 classic RF SCFE

A

Obesity
Male
African American
Adolescent

53
Q

4 RF for SCFE in younger child

A 
Hypothyroidism
Renal osteodystrophy
Steroid use
Trauma
Sickle cell disease
54
Q

4 complications of SCFE

A
  1. Osteonecrosis
  2. Chondrolysis
  3. Chronic pain
  4. Osteoarthritis
  5. Limited hip ROM
55
Q

Laceration with metal on heel, cannot weight bear - 6 steps in mngmt?

A
  1. Clean wound with soap/water
  2. Update tetanus status
  3. Check XR for foreign body
  4. Give analgesia
  5. Suture laceration with 4.0 nonabsorbable suture material
  6. Bulky dressing
  7. Crutches as needed for weight bearing
56
Q

Indications to refer finger fx

A
  • Displaced finger fx
  • Intraarticular finger fx
  • Malrotation
  • Joint instability
57
Q

Tibial tubercle fx - vessels and N injury

A

Anterior recurrent tibial arteries
Saphenous N injury
At risk for compartment syndrome

58
Q

NEXUS criteria (5)

A
  • no midline ttp
  • no intoxication
  • no AMS
  • no distracting injury
  • no focal neuro deficits
59
Q

Distal humerus oblique fx - N injury? How do you test it?

A
  1. Ulnar N
  2. Finger adduction
  3. Sensation of little finger and ulnar aspect of 4th finger
60
Q

3 common sites where avulsion injuries occur in pelvis (5 total listed)

A
  1. Ischial tuberosity = hamstrings
  2. AIIS = rectus femoris mm
  3. ASIS = sartorius
  4. Pubic symphysis = adductor
  5. Iliac crest = rectus abdominis
61
Q

Active adduction of thumb = what nerve?

A

ulnar N

62
Q

Which nerve is injured with glenohumeral dislocation

A

Axillary N

all brachial plexus can be injured too

63
Q

Ankle sprain classification

A

Grade 1 - minimal TTP, swelling
Grade 2 -mod pain/swelling, decreased ROM
Grade 3 - sig swelling/TTP, instability

64
Q

What injury leads to Volkmann contracture?

A

Supracondylar fracture with compartment syndrome – > injury to brachial AA and median N

65
Q

Deformity seen with Volkmann contracture?

A

Claw hand

  • fixed flexion at elbow
  • pronated forearm
  • flexion at wrist
  • joint extension at MCP
66
Q

2 labs to check in SCFE

A
  1. Thyroid levels

2. Calcium levels

67
Q

5 bone/orthopedic complications with SCD

A
  1. Vaso-occlusive crisis
  2. Osteoarthritis/osteopenia
  3. Avascular necrosis
  4. Osteomyelitis/septic arthritis - salmonella
  5. Chronic pain
68
Q

Ossification centers / age in elbow

A 
C - capitellum, 1
R - radial head, 3
I - int (med) epicondyle, 5
T- trochlea, 7
O - olecranon, 9
E - ext (lat) epicondyle, 11
69
Q

Tilleaux fracture

A

SH3 fx thru distal tibial physis / epiphysis w/ avulsion of anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis (occurs age 12-14 yrs when medial physis is partially closed)

70
Q

Triplane ankle fracture

A

fx thru metaphysis (post aspect, seen on lateral), physis (transverse plane - seperated) and epiphysis (seen on AP, dx of lateral aspect); SH4

71
Q

Management of triplane ankle fx

A

Need CT scan, if > 2 mm need reduction; surgical fixation assoc w/ lower rates of physeal arrest

72
Q

What roles do you have to assign to your trauma team?

A
  1. Trauma team lead (you)
  2. Airway (1-2 people)
  3. IV nurse
  4. Med nurse
  5. Primary/secondary survey
  6. Recorder
73
Q

History suspicious for NAT

A
  1. Injury not c/w mechanism
  2. Changing history
  3. Delay in presentation
  4. Injury not c/w developmental age of child
  5. Hx of multiple ED visits for traumatic injuries
74
Q

3 clinical features of urethral injury

A
  1. Blood at meatus
  2. Perineal ecchymoses
  3. High riding prostate
  4. Difficulty voiding
  5. Hematuria
75
Q

2 methods of decontamination after bomb detonation

A
  1. Remove all clothing and store in closed bag
  2. Wash/shower with soap/water
  3. No specific PPE apart from regular PPE required for providers
    - no specific decon is needed for ionizing radiation
76
Q

“RED” on triage system

A

RPM -2 can do

RR > 30 bpm, (-) radial pulse, CRT > 2 sec, AMS

77
Q

“BLACK” on triage system

A

Deceased

Check respirations - if not breathing, position airway, if still not breathing = black

78
Q

What is different for kids in assessment of BLACK vs RED in JUMP START triage?

A
  1. Check breathing - if not breathing, reposition airway
    - if apneic, check pulse
    - if no pulse = BLACK
    - if (+) pulse = give 5 rescue breaths –> if still apneic = BLACK, if breathing = RED
  2. RR < 15 or > 45 bpm for kids
79
Q

What test do you perform 3 days post-detonation in patients affected by acute radiation exposure?

A

Complete blood count with differential (baseline –> repeat Q12hr x 2-3 days) - lymphocyte count is first to decrease. If < 100 in first 2 days, likely lethal. If 100-1000, severe but likely survivable. Lymphocyte @ 48 hrs is prognostic

80
Q

Trauma patient with fixed/dilated pupils, GCS 3, HR 40, RR 10, 2 IV in place, intubated.

A

Cushing’s triad c/f increased ICP
1. Hyperventilate PaCO2 30-35 mmHg
2. HOB @ 15-30 degrees, head midline/neutral
3. Hypertonic saline, 5 ml/kg bolus OR Mannitol 0.5-1 g/kg
4
4. Maintain adequate IV volume, normoglycemia, normothermia
5. Adequately sedate, pain meds and prophylactic seizure meds

81
Q

3 common thoracic injuries with blunt chest trauma

A
  1. Pulmonary contusion
  2. PTX / hemothorax
  3. Rib fracture
  4. Cardiac contusion
  5. Thoracic vascular injury
82
Q

Thoracic trauma pt, CXR with widened mediastinum - dx? next best test?

A 
Dx = ruptured aorta
Test = angiography; if unstable - transesophageal echo
83
Q

Thoracic injuries that require urgent surgical management

A 
Tracheal/bronchial rupture
Esophageal disruption
Diaphragmatic rupture/hernia
Pericardial tamponade
Great vessel laceration
Lung parenchyma, internal mammary artery laceration, intercostal artery laceration
84
Q

4 historical suggestions of NAI

A
  1. acute/chronic injury w/ inadequate, inconsistent or no explanation
  2. Severe head injury due to minor reported trauma
  3. unexplained symptomatic head injury in a child who was well when last seen
  4. Multiple ED/doctor visits for fx / injuries
85
Q

7 steps to log roll

A
  1. Personnel - 3 people
  2. Preparation - criss/cross, undo straps, tuck clothing
  3. Immobilization
  4. Rolling - roll 90 degrees
  5. Exposure - clothing/board removed
  6. Examination
  7. End - roll back
86
Q

Alternatives to log roll

A
  1. straddle lift and slide
  2. 6+ lift and slide
  3. Scoop stretcher
87
Q

PE findings of rib fx

A
  1. TTP
  2. Chest wall contusion/hematoma
  3. Deformity of chest wall on palpation
  4. splint/hypoventilation due to pain
  5. crepitus
88
Q

Questions to ask EMT about mechanism of MVC

A
  1. Significant intrusion > 20 inch
  2. Prolonged extrication > 20 min
  3. Death of any other passengers?
  4. Mechanism of impact
  5. Airbag deployment?
  6. Restrained?
  7. Any assoc fire injury?
  8. ejection or rollover?
89
Q

Waddell triad of pedi struck by car?

A
  1. Femur/pelvis fracture
  2. Intraabdominal injury
  3. Head injury (contralateral)
90
Q

2 complications of being on a hard board

A
  1. Pressure sores / pain

2. Potential respiratory insufficiency

91
Q

DDx fixed dilated pupils

A
  1. Head trauma with ICP
  2. intracranial mass with ICP
  3. Medication - anti-cholinergic (atropine)
  4. Hypoxia from cardiac arrest
  5. Drowning/submersion injury
92
Q

5 immediately life threatening thoracic injuries

A
  1. tension PTX
  2. traumatic rupture of aorta
  3. cardiac tamponade
  4. commotio cordis
  5. diaphragmatic / esophageal rupture
  6. flail chest
93
Q

5 potentially life-threatening thoracic injuries

A
  1. pneumothorax
  2. hemothorax
  3. cardiac contusion
  4. pulmonary contusion
  5. tracheobronchial injury
94
Q

2 renal injuries not associated with hematuria

A
  1. vascular pedicle injury (50%)

2. penetrating injury (33%)

95
Q

6 clinical findings suggestive of renal injury

A
  1. Flank pain
  2. Flank ecchymoses
  3. Hematuria
  4. Shock
  5. Peritoneal signs/symptoms
  6. Flank mass
96
Q

Hallmark clinical indicator of “lap belt complex”

A

abdominal ecchymoses in distribution of seatbelt + abdominal/back pain

97
Q

2 features of “lap belt complex”

A
  1. Intraabdominal injuries - usually hollow viscous injury

2. Lumbar spine fx - chance fx

98
Q

IAI assoc with Chance fx

A

mesenteric disruption
duodenal hematoma/perforation
bladder rupture
transection of small bowel

99
Q

Clinical features of traumatic aortic rupture (aside from shock/hypotension) [5]

A
  1. Pulse differential bw UE/LE
  2. Paraplegia
  3. Thoracic contusions
  4. Anuria
  5. Thoracic/back pain
100
Q

5 CXR findings in TRA

A
  1. widened mediastinum
  2. tracheal/NGT deviation
  3. L pleural cap
  4. L pleural effusion
  5. loss of aortic knob
101
Q

5 CF in traumatic asphyxia (ie car ran over chest)

A
  1. Facial edema
  2. Petechiae of upper body, subconjunctival hemorrhage
  3. Chest contusions
  4. AMS
  5. Respiratory distress
102
Q

5 grades of renal injury

A
  1. contusion, subcap hematoma
  2. Lac < 1 cm, nonexp hem confined to retroperitoneum
  3. Lac > 1 cm, no extravasation or collecting system rupture
  4. Lac into collecting system or renal vascular injury
  5. Shattered kidney or avulsion of renal hilum
103
Q

What is a flail chest

A

2+ contiguous rib fractures with 2+ breaks/rib (Segment loses contiguity with thoracic cage)

104
Q

4 causes of hypoxemia in flail chest

A
  1. pulmonary contusion
  2. splinting with hypoventilation
  3. PTX/hemothorax
  4. impaired normal inspiratory/exp fxn due to paradoxical chest wall movement
105
Q

Indications of abdominal CT in pediatric trauma pt (6)

A
  1. MOI suggestive
  2. Slowly declining hematocrit
  3. Unaccountable fluid/blood requirements
  4. Neurologic injury precluding accurate abdominal exam
  5. hematuria
  6. acute “need to know” prior to OR for other reasons
106
Q

MC solid organ injuries

A

spleen > liver > kidney > pancreas

107
Q

Lab criteria for abdominal CT in trauma

A
  1. declining Hb/Htc
  2. gross hematuria
  3. AST > 200, ALT > 125
  4. amylase > 125
108
Q

3 indications for laparotomy in BAT

A
  1. Shock unresponsive to fluid / blood
  2. Penetrating wound to abdomen
  3. Pneumoperitoneum
  4. Multisystem injuries with indications for craniotomy in presence of (+) DPL / FAST
109
Q

Cervical distraction injury

A

Interspinous distance > 5mm (atlantooccipital and C1-C2 distance) –> assoc w/ vertebral or carotid injury, rapid acceleration/deceleration injuries, usually incomptability w/ life

110
Q

4 RF for severe electrical injury

A
  1. high voltage exposure > 1000V
  2. Alternating current
  3. Duration of exposure/contact
  4. Associated traumatic injuries
111
Q

Worse prognostic factors submersion injury

A
  1. Duration > 10 minutes
  2. No ROSC in 25 minutes or persistent need for CPR in ED
  3. Acidosis pH < 7.1
  4. Hyperglycemia > 13.8 or 250 mg/dL
  5. Prolonged coma > 24 hours
  6. Absent pupillary reflexes
112
Q

Labs seen with submersion injury

A
  1. pH < 7.1 (respiratory and metabolic acidosis)
  2. Hypoxemia
    Hypercapnia
  3. Hyperglycemia
113
Q

Temperatures for grades of hypothermia

A

mild > 32
moderate 28-32
severe < 28

114
Q

4 metabolic considerations in hypothermia

A
  1. metabolic acidosis
  2. hypokalemia
  3. hypocalcemia
  4. hypoglycemia
  5. coagulopathy
115
Q

2 complications from biting electrical cord

A
  1. scarring/contracture

2. Bleeding from labial artery when eschar falls off 7-10 days after injury

116
Q

Management of hyperthermia

A
  1. IVF
  2. Remove clothing and initiate active cooling
  3. Benzos for agitation/to stop shivering
  4. Cardiovascular support as needed
117
Q

6 complications of hyperthermia

A
  1. Seizures
  2. Respiratory failure
  3. Cardiogenic shock
  4. Rhabdomyolysis with renal failure
  5. Coagulopathy
  6. Electrolyte derangements
  7. Dysrhythmias
118
Q

3 signs of HAPE

A
  1. Tachypnea, cyanosis
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Diffuse crackles on auscultation
  4. Frothy / rust colored sputum
  5. elevated JVD
119
Q

3 symptoms of HAPE

A
  1. cough
  2. dyspnea out of proportion to activity
  3. fatigue / weakness
120
Q

Tx. HAPE

A
  1. Descent
  2. Supplemental oxygen
  3. Limit exertion
  4. Hyperbaric if severe
121
Q

Ten complications of central venous cannulation

A
  1. Vessel laceration
  2. Missed vessel
  3. Hematoma
  4. Thrombus
  5. Infection
  6. Dysrhythmia
  7. Cardiac injury
  8. Dislodged catheter fragment
  9. Air embolism
  10. PTX
122
Q

3 landmarks for chest tube insertion

A
  1. Midaxillary line
  2. 5th intercostal space at nipple line
  3. Insert above lower (5th) rib to avoid neurovascular bundle
123
Q

Complications of chest tube placement

A
  1. Bleeding/hemothorax
  2. Lac to visceral organs (heart, liver, spleen)
  3. Diaphragmatic laceration
  4. Re-expansion pulmonary edema
  5. Pulm contusion/laceration
  6. Pain
124
Q

Landmark for needle cric

A

midline, inferior to thyroid cartilage, superior to cricoid cartilage (usually difficult to identify landmarks)

125
Q

4 steps to thoracotomy

A
  1. Supine position
  2. Clean chest w/ povidone-iodine solution
  3. L 5th intercostal space - anterolateral incision from sternum to axillary line
  4. insert chest wall retractor / rid spreader
  5. Inspect for tamponade –> pericardiocentesis, internal cardiac massage
  6. Clamp pulmonary vessels and descending aorta (depending on where hemorrhage is
126
Q

4 complications of casting/splint

A
  1. compartment syndrome
  2. skin breakdown
  3. joint stiffness
  4. pressure sores
  5. muscle atrophy
127
Q

4 locations you can place an IO

A
  1. proximal tibia
  2. distal femur (3cm above lateral condyle)
  3. proximal humerus
  4. distal tibia (1-2 cm above medial malleoli)
128
Q

4 complications of IO

A 
Subcutaneous abscess
Infection (osteomyelitis)
Extravasation into soft tissue
Fat embolism
Fracture (growth plate injury)

RCPEM (5 decks)

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