peer teaching oct 2018 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the first line treatment for pre-eclampsia?

A

oral labetalol (beta blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are is the second and subsequent treatment of pre-eclampsia?

A

steroid is <34 wks

nifedipine (calcium channel blocker) or hydralazine (vasodilator)

the definitive treatment is the delivery of placenta–> mild by 37 wks. moderate/severe by 34 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the changes in blood pressure during pregnancy?

A
  1. the blood pressure drops in the 1st trimester until 20/24 wks.

then the blood pressure increases to pre-pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the new onset of hypertension in pregnancy defined?

A

> 140/90 mmHg

or an increase of > 30 systolic or >15 diastolic after 20 wks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the high risk factors of developing pre-eclampsia?

A

previous hypertensive disease in previous pregnency

chronic kidney disease

autoimmune disease–> SLE or antiphospholipid syndrome

type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what medication should women at risk of pre-eclampisa take?

A

daily aspirin from 12th wk until delivery (75 mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the moderate risk facotrs for developing pre-eclampisa?

A

first pregnency

aged 40 or older

pregnency interval over 10 years

BMI > 35

family history if pre-eclampsia

multiple pregnency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is HELLP syndrome in pre-clampsia?

A

haemolysis

elevated liver emzymes

low platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what other conditions does re-clampsia predispose yout to?

A
DIC
cerebrovasculat haemorrhage
placental abruption
renal failure
eclampisa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is eclampsia?

A

development of seizure in association with pre-eclapsia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how to manage eclampsia?

A

Mg Sulfate. used to bith treat and prevent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

causes of sepsis in neonates <48 hrs since birth? (early onset)

A

micro-organisms from the birth canal–> group B streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

causes of sepsis in neonates >48 hrs? (late onset)

A

hospital acquired–> staph.aureus, or staph epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the risk factors of sepsis in neonates?

A

prematurity
prolonged rupture of the membranes
previous GBS infection
maternal pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the treatment for GBS ?

A

benzylpencillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what arre the common causes of infection in pregnency ?(all are teratogenic)

A

Christ

C= CMV, visual hearing, mental development

H=Herpes zoster, rare

R=rubella, deafness, cardiac arrest, eye, mental development. befroe 16wk can offer termination

S=syphilis, miscarriage, congenital disease or still birth

T= toxoplasmosis, mental retardation, insual, hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is cause of painless bleeding in pregnancy?

A

placenta praevia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the cause of paiful bleeding in pregnency?

A

placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is placental praevia?

A

where the placenta is wholly or partially lying in the lower uterine segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the causes of APM? (antpartum haemorrhage)

A

placenta praevia
placental abruption
vasa praevia
uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the classification used in placenta praevia?

A

marginal (typeI-II)= in lower segment but not over the Os

major (type III-IV)= partially or completely covering the Os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what’s the presentation of placental praevia?

A

incidental USS
painless vaginal bleeding
abnormal breech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the magagement of placental praevia?

A

anti D is rhesus -ve

steroids <34 wks

deliver C/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is placental abruption

A

when all or part of the placenta separates before the delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the risk factors for placental abruption?

A

IUGR
pre-eclampsia
smoking
previous abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the presentation of placental abruption?

A

painful bleeding

ternder and tense uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Management of placental abruption?

A

ABCDE
anti-D is < 34 wks and not fetal distress

C/S if fetal distress

if no fetal distress and >37 wk induction of labout with amniotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the cause of pain in placenta abruption?

A

bloode behind placenta and in the myometrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is vasa praevia?

A

when fetal blood vessel runs in the membranes before presenting part

when the membrane ruptures the vessel ruptures too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

whats the presentation of vasa praevia?

A

painless viginal bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the 4 stages of fetal passage throught eh birth canal?

A

engagement, head enters the pelvis in occipital transverse position (OT)

desecent and flexion,

rotation

extention and deliver

restitiution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the factors determing the progree thoughout labour?

A

3Ps

Power–> force in expelling the fetus

Passage–> the dimensions of the pelvis and the resistance of the soft tissue

Passenger–> the diameter of the fetal head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the 3 stages of labour?

A

stage 1–> from the start of labour to full cevical dilation (10cm)

stage 2–> from full cervical dilation to the delivery of foetus

stage 3–> from foetus deliver to the placenta delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

whats the cause of a lack of power in labour?

A

inefficient uterine contraction

common in nullips and induced labour

35
Q

how to magage a lack of power in labour?

A

1st stage:
Nullip - Strengthening the powers artificially (augmentation) - artificial rupture of membranes (amniotomy, if this fails to progress further cervical dilatation in 1-2h, give oxytocin IV. If still not progressed within 12-16h, C/S.

Multip- exclude malpresentation before giving oxytocin

Passive 2nd stage:

Nullip - oxytocin, delay pushing by 2h

Active 2nd stage: if >1h, if head against perineum = episiotomy, if not = ventouse/forceps delivery

36
Q

cause of problem with passage in labour?

A

cephalo-pelvic disproportion=pelvic too small to let the head through.

it is often a retrospect diagnosis in the abscence of malposition and malrepresentation

abnormal pelciv archiecture due to rickets, osteomalacia.

pelciv mass= fibroid or ovarian tumor

37
Q

what is malposition?

A

Malpositions are abnormal positions of the vertex of the fetal head (with the occiput as the reference point) relative to the maternal pelvis

38
Q

what is malrepresentation?

A

Malpresentations are all presentations of the fetus other than vertex.

39
Q

what are the problems with passenger in labour?

A

occiput posterior (OP)= longer labour and more pain. use augmentation and rotation to turn to OA.

Occiput transverse (OT)= incomplete normal rotation, use ventouse

Brow presentation= extension of fetal head creating a large diameter. can palpate anterior fontanelle and supraorbital ridges–> C/S

Face presentation= complete extension of the head. Mouth, nose and eyes are palpable. if mento-anterior vaginal birth is possible.

for mento-posterior–> C/S

hydrocephaulus

40
Q

what is bishop score?

A

method to rate the readiness of the cervix for induction of labor

41
Q

interpretation of bishop score?

A

a score of < 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction
a score of > 9 indicates that labour will most likely commence spontaneously

Scores between 5 and 9 require additional consideration and professional judgement for clinical management.

42
Q

whats the method to induce labour?

A

Vaginal prostaglandins are best method in nulliparous and most multiparous women

Oxytocin is after SROM or 2h after amniotomy

Surgical method (amniotomy) comes after less invasive method.

Amniotomy involves rupturing membranes with an amnihook.

43
Q

what are the first line and subsequent methods of labour induction?

A

at all stages–> monitor with CTG

1) Membrane sweep
Pass finger through cervix and “strip” between the membranes and the lower segment of the uterus.

2) Vaginal prostaglandin gel
2mg inserted into the posterior vaginal fornix.
Give one dose and if it does not increase the cervical ripeness, you can try another dose 6h later. >2 doses are not helpful.

2)Amniotomy ± oxytocin
Rupture membranes with amnihook, if not progressed then start oxytocin infusion 2h after.
Can use oxytocin alone if SROM occurred.

44
Q

complications from induced labour?

A

Higher risk delivery - using instrumental or C/S risk is higher

Hyperstimulation of uterine activity → causes fetal distress and uterine rupture

Umbilical cord can prolapse at amniotomy

PPH

Intrapartum and postpartum infection

Prematurity from incorrect gestation or by design

45
Q

what is CTG used for?

A

Cardiotocography (CTG) is a technical means of recording the fetal heartbeat and the uterine contractions during pregnancy

46
Q

CTG abnormality(prolonged and late decelerations) and palpable umnilical cors is an indication of what?

A

This scenario describes cord prolapse, which is causing cord compression and hence showing variable decelerations on the CTG.

47
Q

what is the initial management of cord prolapse?

A

‘To prevent cord compression, it is recommended that the presenting part be elevated either manually or by filling the urinary bladder

48
Q

what is terbutaline used in labour?

A

Terbutaline is a medication used to delay preterm labor. It is in a class of drugs called betamimetics, which help prevent and slow contractions of the uterus.

49
Q

what are obstetric emergencies?

A
Shoulder dystocia
Cord prolapse
Uterine rupture
Amniotic fluid embolism
Retained placenta
50
Q

what is shoulder dystocia?

A

=complication of vaginal delivery. Inability to deliver the body of the fetus, having already delivered the head. Usually due to impaction of anterior fetal shoulder on maternal pubic symphysis.

51
Q

what are the complications of shoulder dystocia to the mother?

A

Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH), Perineal tears, urethral and bladder injuries

52
Q

what are the complications of shoulder dystocia to the fetus?

A

Brachial plexus injury (Erb palsy; C5-7), hypoxia, hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy and death

53
Q

how to treat shoulder dystocia?

A

Call for help!
McRoberts’ manoeuvre. Bring mother’s thighs towards her abdomen (flexion and abduction of the hips) → increases the relative anterior-posterior angle of the pelvis
Apply suprapubic pressure
Internal manoeuvres (+/- episiotomy)

54
Q

what is cord proplapse?

A

Umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus

55
Q

what is the risk of cord prolapse?

A
compression of cord or cord spasm → fetal hypoxia → 
irreversible damage (e.g. cerebral palsy) or death
56
Q

what are the types of cord prolapse?

A

Occult (cord alongside the presenting part of fetus)

Overt (cord past presenting part)

57
Q

whats the presentation of cord prolapse?

A

Mother usually asymptomatic/ report prolapse if the cord is outside the vagina.
Fetus commonly present with bradycardia (but could be any other CTG abnormality).

58
Q

what is the disgnosis of cord prolapse?

A

Vaginal examination → is cord visible beyond the level of the introitus (vaginal opening)? Is cord palpable vaginally?
CTG

59
Q

whats the management of cord prolapse?

A

Definitive Mx: deliver baby ASAP!
Urgent CS usually used
Instrumental vaginal delivery possible if fully dilated and will provide fastest delivery
Call for help! Need obstetrician, anaesthetist, neonatologist, and additional midwives
Try not to handle the cord (as much as possible). Handling can → vasospasm.
But until then…
If cord before the level of introitus → Presenting part of cord pushed back to avoid compression
If cord past level of introitus → keep warm and moist
Tocolytics (reduce contractions, and therefore cord compression)

60
Q

cord prolapse risk factors?

A

The key with this question is thinking about things which make is less likely that the fetuses head will be engaged with the pelvis. If the head isn’t engaged, the cord is more likely to prolapse!

1)Raised liquor volume - True. (aka polyhydramnios).
Increases the space for the fetus to move, making it less likely to engage with the pelvis.
Polyhydramnios also increases risk of premature rupture of membranes. If this occurs the fetus won’t be engaged.

2)Multiple pregnancy - true
Multiple pregnancies mean the uterus is distended, and the positioning of the fetuses may result in poor engagement.
During vaginal delivery of twins, the greatest risk of cord prolapse comes after the delivery of the 1st twin. This is because the second twin may be lying in any position.

3)Low lying placenta - true (aka placenta praevia)
prevents head from engaging, and if placenta is not over the os, the cord could prolapse when the cervix dilates

4)Prematurity → the presenting part is rarely engaged until labour and is more likely to present breech
Breech → fetuses may not be engaged properly in the pelvis
Abnormal lie → presenting part is not in the pelvis

61
Q

what is uterien rupture?

A

Important cause of abdo pain in late pregnancy (3rd trimester), usually .

62
Q

risk factors for uterine rupture?

A

prev CS (v. rare in unscarred uteruses)

63
Q

presentation of uterine rupture?

A
Maternal shock
Severe abdo pain
Vaginal bleeding to varying degree 
Chest / shoulder tip pain and sudden SOB
CTG abnormalities
64
Q

maganement of uterine rupture?

A

Urgent surgical delivery!

Future pregnancies: if pt has had a prev uterine rupture, vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC) is CI’d.

65
Q

what is amniotic fluid embolism?

A

When fetal cells/ amniotic fluid enters the mother’s bloodstream → stimulates a massive immune reaction. Aetiology not understood

66
Q

what are the phases of amniotic fluid embolism?

A

Pulmonary embolism → direct blockage, anaphylactic reaction → hypoxia and acute RDS
Hemorrhagic phase → activation of complement pathways → DIC. this is often fatal.

67
Q

signs and symtoms of amniotic fluid embolism?

A

presents similiar to PE

Signs: tachypnoea, tachycardia, hypotension, coagulation/ severe bleeding, cyanosis, cardiac arrest, hypoxia, resp arrest

Symptoms: SOB, palpitations, dizziness, confusion, seizures, cough, pul oedema, loss of consciousness

68
Q

what is the management of amniotic flid embolism?

A

ABCDE
Maintain O2: 100% supplemental O2 via mechanical ventilation
Maintain perfusion: fluid replacement, inotropic drugs
Correct coagulopathy: discuss w/ on-call haematologist. May need to give blood products
Delivery. Perimortem CS should be considered. It will improve fetal and maternal survival.

69
Q

what is the diagnosis of retained placenta?

A
Physiological Mx → if placenta not delivered w/in 60 mins of the baby
Active Mx (synthetic oxytocin + controlled cord contraction) → if placenta not delivered w/in 30 mins of  the baby
70
Q

what is the cause of retained placenta?

A

Uterine atony - most common

Trapped placenta - placenta detached but unable to deliver due to closed os

Placenta accreta/ percreta - more common w/ prev. CS.

71
Q

complications of retained placenta?

A

PPH (occurs 24hrs - 12 wks after birth)

Genital tract infection

Uterine inversion → emergency as can cause acute neurogenic shock, w/ profound bradycardia and hypotension

72
Q

management of placenta retainment?

A

Call for help
Assess blood loss
Administer IM syntocinon - increases uterine tone and may help with delivery.
Ensure bladder empty (full bladder can contribute to retention).
Manual removal of the placenta in theatre

73
Q

what is fetal distress?

A

signs before and during childbirth indicating that the fetus is not well. Fetal distress is an uncommon complication of labor.

Hypoxia that might result in fetal death or damage if not reversed or fetus delivered urgently. pH in the fetal scalp of <7.20 = sig hypoxia

74
Q

what is a meaure of fetal distress?

A

CTG, fetal blood sampling, fetal ECG

75
Q

what is CTG monitoring?

A

DR Brvado

DR – define risk - Other risk factors?

C – Contractions per 10 mins - Hyper stimulation > 5 in 10 mins

BR – Baseline rate – 110 – 160 is normal

V – Variability – variation should be >5 beats per minute

A – Accelerations - accelerations in fetal heart rate with movement or contractions are reassuring

D – Decelerations – Early (with contractions, usually benign) , Variable (? Cord compression), Late (persist after contractions, suggest fetal hypoxia)

O – Overall assessment – if normal CTG it’s reassuring, false positive is high for abnormal patterns

76
Q

syntocinon is the 1st line treatment of what?

A

Uterine atony is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). RCOG guidance: This states that first-line management should be 5U of IV Syntocinon (oxytocin), followed by 0.5 mg of ergometrine.

77
Q

what si primary postnatal haemorrhage?

A

occurs within 24h

Loss of >500ml blood <24h of delivery or >1000ml after C/S
Causes
Uterine atony (most common cause!) → enlarged uterus
Genital trauma
Vaginal: Bleeding from a perineal tear or episiotomy or high vaginal tear
Cervical: Associated with precipitate labour and instrumental delivery
Retained placenta
Coagulopathy

78
Q

what is secondary haemorrhage?

A

occurs between 24h and 12 weeks following delivery. Due to retained placenta or endometritis.

Excessive blood loss occurring between 24h and 6 weeks after delivery

Causes
Endometritis, retained placental tissue, gestational trophoblastic disease
Uterus is enlarged/tender with an open internal cervical os

Mx
Antibiotics
Evacuation of retained products of conception (heavy bleeding)

79
Q

what are the risk factors for PPH?

A
previous PPH
prolonged labour
pre-eclampsia
increased maternal age
polyhydramnios
emergency Caesarean section
placenta praevia, placenta accreta
macrosomia
ritodrine (a beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist used for tocolysis)
80
Q

what is the management of parimary PPH

A

ABC
1st line - IV syntocinon (oxytocin) 10 units or IV ergometrine 500 micrograms
IM carboprost
Remove retained placenta manually if there is bleeding or if not expelled within 60 mins of delivery
Other options include: B-Lynch suture, uterine or internal iliac artery embolisation
If severe, uncontrolled haemorrhage then a hysterectomy is sometimes performed as a life-saving procedure

81
Q

Which creening tools is most appropriate to detect postnatal depression?

A

Edinburgh Scale

82
Q

what is baby blue?

A

presentation=Typically seen 3-7 days following birth and is more common in primips.

Mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful and irritable.

mx=Reassurance and support, the health visitor has a key role.

83
Q

what is postnatal depression?

A

px=Most cases start within a month and typically peaks at 3 months.

Features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

Mx=As with the baby blues reassurance and support are important.

CBT. SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine, only if sx are severe.

84
Q

what is Puerperal psychosis?

A

Px=Onset usually within the first 2-3 weeks following birth.

Features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations).

Mx=Admit to hospital.

20% risk of recurrence.