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Peds > Peds week 5 > Flashcards

Peds week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Dose Propofol IV

A

2-4 mg/kg

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2
Q

Dose Propofol gtt

A

25-400 mcg/kg/min

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3
Q

Pentothal IV

A

4-6 mg/kg (about twice the propofol dose)

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4
Q

Etomidate IV

A

0.3 mg/kg (about a tenth of the propofol dose)

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5
Q

Ketamine IV

A

1-2 mg/kg (half of propofol)

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6
Q

ketamine IM

A

3-7 mg/kg (three times the IV dose, ~ as PO)

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7
Q

ketamine PO

A

3-6 mg/kg (3x iv dose, ~ as IM dose)

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8
Q

dexmedetomidine load (>20 min)

A

0.5 - 1 mcg/kg

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9
Q

dexmedetomidine IV gtt

A

0.2-1 mcg/kg/hr (almost the same as the loading dose, but run over an hour instead of 20 minutes

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10
Q

AvoidpropofolinductionthroughPICClines

A

increased risk of infection / occlusion

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11
Q

Barbiturates are contraindicated in patients with __ and should be used cautiously in patients who are __ or have limited __ reserve

A

contraindicated porphyria

caution hypovolemia or limited cardiac reserve

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12
Q

A couple of drawbacks to ketamine

A

hypersalivation could lead to laryngospasm (give glyco), increases CBF/ICP/CROM so not great for neuro, and increases IOP and nystagmus, so not great for eye surgery

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13
Q

Some drawbacks to etomidate

A

Suppresses adrenal function, but great for head injury and unstable CV status

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14
Q

fentanyl induction dose

A

1-2 mcg/kg

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15
Q

hydromorphone

A

10-20 mcg/kg (10x fentanyl dose)

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16
Q

morphine

A

100 mcg/kg (100x fentanyl dose)

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17
Q

sufenta induction

A

1-10 mcg/kg (1-10x fentanyl dose)

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18
Q

remi gtt

A

0.05-2 mcg/kg/min

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19
Q

fentanyl is highly lipid soluble and crosses the __ rapidly

A

BBB

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20
Q

Is dilaudid a good choice for infants and small children who are doing same day surgery and going to be discharged home?

A

NO due to resp depression

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21
Q

Drawbacks to morphine

A

histamine release causing hypotension, PONV

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22
Q

sufenta gtt

A

0.1-1.5 mcg/kg/hr

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23
Q

remi gtt

A

0.05-2 mcg/kg/min

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24
Q

methadone is __-__% protein bound. The main determinant of free factor is the __ acid glycoprotein

A

60-90% protein bound, a1 acid glycoprotein (think of A1 steak sauce being 60-90% protein bound on your steak)

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25
Q

midazolam po

A

0.5-0.7 mg/kg MAX 20 mg

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26
Q

midazolam IV

A

0.05-0.1 mg/kg (about a tenth of the IV dose)

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27
Q

acetaminophen PO

A

10-15 mg/kg/dose q 6h (about the same as IV)

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28
Q

acetaminophen rectal

A

30-40 mg/kg x1 loading dose (2-3x the IV dose)

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29
Q

ketorolac IM

A

0.5-1 mg/kg (max 30mg)

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30
Q

ketorolac IV

A

0.5 mg/kg (max 30 mg)

31
Q

acetaminophen do not exceed

A

90 mg/kg/24 hours

32
Q

ketorolac caution

A

renal and asthma

33
Q

compared to aspirin, ketorolac’s platelet inhibition is __ and no longer an issue when the drug has been excreted

A

reversible

34
Q

narcan IV

A

10 mcg/kg (same as flumazenil)

35
Q

flumazenil IV

A

10 mcg/kg (same as narcan)

36
Q

succs IV

A

1.5-2 mg/kg

37
Q

Roc RSI

A

0.6-1.2 mg/kg

38
Q

Roc regular induction

A

0.45-0.6 mg/kg

39
Q

vec IV

A

0.1 mg/kg

40
Q

cisatracurium IV

A

0.1-0.2 mg/kg (either same or double vec dose)

41
Q

pancuronium IV

A

0.1 mg/kg (same as vec)

42
Q

neonates appear more sensitive to roc than older infants

A

duration closer to 90 minutes

43
Q

how is nimbex metabolized?

A

hoffman elimination and ester hydrolysis

44
Q

why give panc?

A

when increased HR and BP is desired, along with a lengthy block

45
Q

glyco IV

A

10 mcg/kg

46
Q

atropine IV

A

10-20 mcg/kg (min. 100 mcg)

47
Q

neostigmine IV

A

70 mcg/kg (max 5 mg)

48
Q

decadron antiemetic IV

A

0.1 mg/kg (max 10 mg)

49
Q

decadron airway IV

A

0.5 mg/kg (max 10 mg)

50
Q

zofran IV

A

0.1 mg/kg (max 4 mg)

51
Q

caution with atropine and some children with Down syndrome due to

A

narrow-angle glaucoma

52
Q

amides are metabolized by

A

cytochrome p450

53
Q

esters are metabolized by

A

plasma cholinesterase

54
Q

bup with epi max dose

A

2.5 mg/kg

55
Q

lidocaine w/wo epi infiltrate max

A

4.5 mg/kg

56
Q

rope max dose

A

2 mg/kg

57
Q

epi for cardiac arrest, hypotension, heart failure

A

10 mcg/kg q3-5 min or 0.01-1 mcg/kg/min

58
Q

epi to treat bronchospasm

A

1-2 mcg/kg

59
Q

racemic epi

A

less than 2 years = 6 mg in 3 mls

greater than 2 years = 12 mg in 3 mls

60
Q

ancef IV

A

25 mg/kg

61
Q

clinda IV

A

10 mg/kg

62
Q

gent IV

A

2 mg/kg

63
Q

ampicillin IV urology

A

20 mg/kg

64
Q

ampicillin IV general

A

25-50 mg/kg

65
Q

vanco IV

A

15 mg/kg (20 mg/kg neuro)

66
Q

what is the hallmark of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

abnormal compression of pulmonary structures, lung growth is severely retarded

67
Q

congenital diaphragmatic hernia manifests as severe resp distress in the neonate due to

A

lung hypoplasia and inadequate gas exchange

68
Q

neonate is born with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, what do you do

A

avoid masking, tube quickly and rate high with Vt low, low peak pressures <30, NG tube, avoid nitrous,

69
Q

which lung is usually affected by congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

left lung through the foramen of bochdalek

70
Q

during repair of congenital diaphragmatic hernia the sat and heart rate fall, increased peak pressures, what’s going on?

A

tension pneumo on contralateral side, insert chest tube

71
Q

what pH abnormality with pyloric stenosis?

A

metabolic alkalosis, also hypokalemia, hypochloremia

72
Q

pyloric stenosis is considered a __ stomach and requires RSI

A

full

awake extubation

73
Q

which way does the oxyhemoglobin curve shift with pyloric stenosis?

A

left due to alkalosis d/t vomiting

Peds (8 decks)

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